## Saturday, May 21, 2016

### time travel back and forth and other things

now in the time backward when traveling through time you go to universe two then two goes to three etc. to huge number that makes infinity look like zero then when going back in time the ship moving back in time hits universes with the ship in it then when you hit the universe with yourself then yourself in in another universe and you hit the universe with the ship instead then going forward in time see the now you are still in another universe and they rotate like musical chairs now a system universe is a path and a basic universe is a cube or whatever dimension and this stuff applies to both types or really all types of universes and back is when the ship goes back but if wanting you age backwards or really live backwards then manipulate the relativity to go backwards to chose a backwards path or really do a U turn to reverse and these two types of reverses can be alike or different and remember time freezes then goes forward again but the path is reversed but if wanting to live life backwards you must use the ship and drop into a negative parallel universe as in same exact universe just negative also when you make different choices on the way then you choose a different path in another universe but if same exact path then someone changed history and you will never know it because it is in another universe!!! so you can go back in time but the other you is in a different universe and there are infinite number of you and if change history you do not because that is in another universe!!! now the universes are all connected by the cartisian coordinates so you never change the universes or history you just select different universes and you do not run into your other you instead you already have an infinite number of you and select different you's in different universes and leave the universe with the other you instantly but really you are taking a different path but no matter which universes you select it s one you at a time now this sounds lke created energy well no becuase each universe is at infinitely small and frozen in time then energy is putting the picture into motion!!! so Steven Hawkings was on to something about time travel!!! now what if ging back and forth in tie and you are aging well then the universes are being hit by a spiral where z is age and sqr[A*sin(y)] plus sqr[Bcos(x)] all square rooted is the spiral also dmensions may circle as in one universe to another to huge make infinity look like zero to the one or paths are circlular as in ellipse paths make universe like ellipses and therefore 1/(d*d) for basic force and say (v*v)/r the v*v is slower by an invert liniar at larger distance thus more mass and more r then v makes force in FD 1/(d*d) but some are 1/v or hyperbola etc. this universe will make a huge time travel cycle and with cubes they also make a time cycle or hyperbola or 1/v etc. anyway force is m*v*v/r m and r cancel and v*v is half at larger distance so 1/(d*d) but in another universe system or path it would not be necessarily these dimensions!!! now all math I have ever done in this blog proves all this and everything!!! now in e^(v^n) then n*(v^(n-1)) is d(ln(da/dv)) then go da/dv times da/dv all times dv/da then it is just da/dv again but that one was used so do it something like that in a=g-(e^(v^n))) as in something like that maybe a little different also for all this kind of stuff replace (n) with (N-2) and it works so take all this into account now in the sine*sine  waves traced by particles in the particle accelerator (not the tracers!!!) when pahase shift increases one to noe liniar then at zero the waves are still at one the waves are moving forward finitely then forward infinitely fast etc. then the waves go forward finite then infinite then at all tmes the phase shift is one to one slope finite then the waves shift from infinite forward to infinte backwards to finite backward then still again as liniar continues finite one to one then you can make shift liniar up and down appropriately to get the same thing then in the infinite shift that is where the machine shfts dimension that is the hollow cylinder or solid cylinder accelerator magnetic thruster or regular etc. now go c*c-c*c/(m*m) is v*v or really v*c then go c*c*m*m*v*v/(r*c*r*c) is c*c*f*f then c*c*m*v*v/(r*c) is c*c*f*f then 1-1/(m*m) is f*f and f is force then 1/m is (sqrt(1-f*f))/c then m is c/sqrt(c*c-f*f) then e to the (m*m*v*v/(c*c)) then really e to the sqr(c/sqrt(c*c-f*f)) then go e^(2e^(2e^((1/sqrt(c*c-f*f))))) etc. then the kozak equation is followed by nature!!! and c is really the unit now sometimes the mass and v and A all these phenomina etc. can be inverts sometimes negative liniars linar mass increases liniarly as (1/2)*m*v*v decreases liniarly all with big constants as in kinetic energy in a fiel when changing distance in relativity now a is g*(e^v) minus (k/m)*(e^2v) then c is a/(e^v) then c is g minus (k/m)*(e^v) then go c is g minus dc/dv and then go dc/dv then that is dv/d(e^v) times 1/da then because d(e^v)/dv is e^v then went going dt/dv so 1/da then dt/d(e^v) then I(1) d(e^v) then g is gt then a/(e^v) is really I(a*(e^-v)) then -(e^-v) then use k/m anywhere there is an e^v then or call -mg/2k as s then ((e^v)+(e^-v))/2 then st is cosh(v) then set s to one then 1/sqrt(t*t-1) is v then m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) make c the unit and go 1/sqrt(1-v*v) then t is mass as well then t is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) then st is [sqrt(1-v*v)]/[v] is t then that is perpendicular activity and it is like sine/cosine or tangent or tan(0) (0=angle not necessarily zero) or if perpendicular angle then v/sqrt(1-v*v) the intregal is sqrt(c*c-v*v) or circle now go ln(m*m) is m*m*v*v then (ln(m*m))/(m*m) is v*v then sqr(ln(m*m))/2 is I(sqr(dm/dv)) of v*v) or c*c*v*v/((c*c-v*v)^3) then 2*sqr(ln(m)) is c*c/((c*c-v*v)^2) then the two is canceled by another then ln(m) is c/(c*c-v*v) then ln(ln(m)) is ln(c) minus ln(c*c-v*v) then ln(c) is ln(ln(m)) then e^(e^c)) is m even at infinity to reduce mass have circuits do all this also time goes to zero and mass at infinity well the time taken up is infinity the time itself is an invert of it HUGE CORRECTION now go ln(m*m) is m*m*v*v where c is unit then (2lnm)/m d(m*m) is m*v*v then dm/d(v*v) to go d(v*v) or c/((c*c-v*v)^1.5) times c/(c*c-v*v) times v*v for dvdv then sqr(ln(m)) dm is c*c*v*v/sqr(c*c-v*v) dvdv then c*v/(c*c-v*v) dv then ln(m) dm then c*ln(c*c-v*v) is -m+mln(m) then divide both sides then sqrt(c*c-v*v) wich is equal to 1/m times ln(c*c-v*v)  plus one c is the unit then reconsider c then sqrt(c*c-v*v) goes to zero faster then ln(c*c-v*v) goes to infinity thus zero thus mass is one or just e then if one kilogram then it would be e kilograms then do this all strictly backwards keep this up in the circuits of the function machine or circuits or both then mass is smaller and smaller with velocity higher and higher even past asymtotes because just go v*v-c*c and same thing with maybe negative to decrease mass with increased velocity then mass is decreasing as velocity increases as long as this is applied then when slowing down if not reverses the whole process to increase mass again then you are in another dimension but not to worry the mass will come back automatically because the process will reverse no matter how you reverse it so one reverse is from infinity to e then next cycle is e to zero and the cycle is extremely fast etc.!!! now when integrating and square rooting and not square rooting the dm this is because of the intregal of intregal of dmdm equals intregal of d(m*m) rule as in both m's can be the same or different now go sqrt(c*c-(a/2)*sin(2t)) then when applying just square this because of hypotenuse effects and then sqrt(c*c) again for hypotenuse effects and flip the sine for negative reasons but it is really this now c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is m then sqrt(c*c-v*sqrt(c*c-v*v)) then c*c-c*c/(m*m) then sqrt(c*c-v*(c/m)) then c/v is m then c*c-c*c/(m*m) is v*v then sqrt(v*v) is v or the sqrt(c*c-(a/2)*sin(2t)) then you went cos(t) times sin(t) etc. now if the dimensions were not c+(a/2)*sin(2t) and hypotenuse square then c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) would not be the relativity!!! now the line from the plane is maximum and only for dimension pi/2 or 90 degrees then a*a plus b*b is c*c they are all squared also this proves that all particles and everything goes in straight line and circles at the same time now the sqrt(c*c-(a/2)*sin(2t)) is the universe path with choice angle (not t) as one to one liniar but the c+(a/2)*(sin(2t)) is particles trying to copy universe but choice changes angle so the basic universe path is assuming choice angle is one to one liniar but angle changes in the universe so the path is in the universe in one big cube and the path is the little cubes little is 1/infinity and big is finite or infinity where infinity s really infinity to the nth dimension now in some of this v1 is really v if I did not correct it now the wave is above then below light speed etc. then in particles wave about a sine which is about a line but in light the wave about a line see the tracers always average light speed or the wave also the mass is zero in light beause sine cancels to line because two tracers counteracting each other also sqrt(c*c-dt*dt) then dt is sqrt(c*c-v*v) then it is v1 then t s r then m is c*dt then m is rc now in rct is t then rc is one then vc is zero then v is zero then the sqrt(c*c-c*c) is zero thus the dimensions in zero veloicty then zero velocity zero distance at center of universe also what I really mean a little bit ago is when I say m0 I really mean m or mass at rest I accidently switched them around now go m is c/v as proven and m*v*v is q/r where one q is constant because it is the frame of referance then rcv is q then mv is q ofcourse with a constant and c/v is m then c/(r*r) is v*v/r with the left q and right m then take them both out since q is m then c/r is v*v*r then c/(v*v) is r then c/v is rv and m is rc thus m is rc and mass is charge because twice mass is twice charge all proven in the past see older information now in the k*q*q/r is m*v*v then k*q*q/r is mcc then m*m*c is k*q*q then (rc is m) then K*q*sqrt(k/c) is m and since c/v is based off of the kozak equation and rc is based off of c/v then all this stuff applies to relativity mass as well but remember huge constants to subtract from or add to but small constants to multiply by thus in relativity all fields increase in direct proportion to mass thus it works now how can m be q and mv also be q well one is the circle around the frame where mass changes merely by distance from field source as well as relative speed and the other is the amount regarding frame and other frame traveling fast speed relative and that's it now the speed of phase shift for waves has to a certain amount for a given wavelength and distance because the whole particle is really the wave so rate and amount both count also why does field change merely by distance well the distance effects wavelength and also phase shift speed and I talked of both of these a little bit ago so read earlier information and speed is increased by energy just enough for the rate m*v*v/r because m*v*v is energy!!! now the non kozak way is any fixed function that cannot manipulate and curve the derivative infinitely small lines thus non kozak the mass keeps up no matter what then at light speed mass is infinite then q is mv or cv/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then (q*q*v*v*v/(mv*mv*mv))*dq/dv or v*v*v/q dq is c*c*v*v/(c*c-v*v) dv then 1/q dq is c*c/(v*(c*c-v*v)) dv then go v1's but it winds up the same thing now by triangle trick csc(0)*sqr(sec(0)) times c*cos(0) or csc(0) times sec(0) or 2/sin(20) or csc(20) then lnq is ln[(csc(0))+(cot(0))] then q is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) plus v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then at v is zero q is 1 and at v is c the non kozak way then q is 2c*infinite now go kozak as in c*c*v*v/(c*c-v*v) is q*q-1 is c*v*(e^(q*q*v*v/(c*c))) but that is (-1+c*c/(c*c-v*v))*c*c from c*c*v*v/(c*c-v*v) then integrate is c*(c*c/q*q)*(e^(q*q*v*v/(c*c)))  then the q*q on both sides are re-expressed and substituted and divided out or c*c/v is -c*c*v+(c*c)/v1 then c*c is -c*c*(c*c-v*v)-((sqrt(c*c-v*v)))/v1 also v1 is sqrt(c*c-v*v) then I changed c*c/(c*c-v*v) to c*c/sqr(v1) then c*c*c*c-1 is q*q-1 then q is c*c then there is two q's then each q is c then that is if the time consumed was c seconds because of that much slower process gives mass that much more chance but in one second it would only be one sqrt(2) charge  twice with both q's to get one now in pendulum after switch on one go pi/2 minus angle then combined to cancel the unwanted part by sign