Wednesday, September 30, 2015

huge new mathmatics crazier theories and better ways to think

now in m=sinh(mv) then dm/sqrt(1+m*m) is dmdv and take out two dm's on both sides and flip both sides then dm*sqrt(1+m*m) is dm/dv then derive again and m/[(1+m*m)^1.5] times dm/dv then times dm*sqrt(1+m*m) so m*dm/(1+m*m) now when deriving first you go dm on both sides then derive again but there is two dm's on one side then turn dmdv into dv so intregal is ln(1+m*m) also the negatives cancel out because the function is an odd function that has to be flipped also the net multiple for constant is 1/2 so m*m+1 is e^2v then e^v is the hypotenuse which is a length of the curve when integrated thus e^v is the legnth of the curve now for m=cosh(mv) then same stuff happens but now you have m*m-1 is e^2v now in m is sin(mv) again the same stuff happens with an odd numbered more negatives to keep it negative of the same but now it is ln(1-m*m) is -2v or 1-m*m is [e^-2v] then 1-[e^-2v] and [e^-2v] is really 1/[e^2v] anyway m is sqrt(1-[e^-2v]) now for m=sinh(v) then [dm/sqrt(m)]/sqrt(1+m) is dv then square is ((dmdm)/m)/(1+m) is dvdv then or dm/(1+m) is dvdv or d(v*v) then ln(1+m) is v*v then [e^(v*v)]-1 is m now in sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) is m go sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) minus sqrt(v)/sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) is the derviative then replace with m then m minus (m*m-1)/m then 1/m is integratedin ln(m) see I derived in terms of v and integrated in terms of mass so I went dm/dv then dm/dv of this is ln(m) then instead of dmdv now it is dm/dv then [e^(dm/dv)] is m thus the differential of [e^(dm/dv)]=m is (sqrt(1-sqrt(v))=m!!! now in the cosh(v) is m the antikozak is (1/2)/(1-v) plus (1/2)/(1+v) then 1/(1-v*v) or when kozaked is [e^(m*v*v)] also when the derivative curves the straight line of instantaneous slope then it is indeed catching up to mass and then out-running it!!!!!!! now when multiplying the function it is mv then integrate both sides to m*m*v*v/2 then one side was derived in terms of v once to get function twice to get derivative of function then d(m*m*v*v/2)/d(v*v) is dmdv/d(v*v) or dm/dv now for anyway now the fraction of chain derivatives multiply's as does the upper of the next chain the same thus nothing is wrong with that anyway the sin(dv/dm) is v sole for m well go sin(dm/dv) is m then arcsin(m) is dm/dv then dm/(arcsin(m)) is dv then times both sides by 1/sqrt(1-m*m) and the dv side by dm because the arcsin(m) derived interms of mass whereas the other side already has a dm accounting for everything then go dmdm is really d(m*m) etc. and go d(d(m*m))/d(v*v*v) because two for the derivative twice and on of them from the dm on the dv side then then the dv cancels and the dm's dv cancels by multiplying then intregal of d(d(m*m))/d(v*v*v) taking out two dv's in the denominator is ln(arcsin(m)) or ln(dm/dv) and the remaining dm before I sustituted is really dm/dv and then the dv on the other side thus 2mdm/dv is ln(dm/dv) then dm/dv is e^(2mdm/dv) then [sqr(dm/dv)]/2 to integrate in terms of ddm/d(v*v) but first mutiply the other side by ddm/(d(v*v) as well then the twos cancel then ofcourse m(dm/dv) [or really d(m*m)/dv or really sqr(dm/dv)] is really e^(2mdm/dv) then take the dm/dv out to get m is e^(m(dm/dv)) then the kozak of that is 1/(1-(dm/dv)) then 1-(1/m) is dm/dv then m/(m-1) is dv/dm then mdm/(m-1) is dv then finally intregal of 1+(1/(m-1))dm is v then m+ln(m-1) is v then switch the variables to v+ln(v-1) is m then in sin(dy/dx) is y then x is y+ln(y-1)!!! now this will happen the same with cos(dy/dx) except two negatives canceling thus the same so x really does not care about the phase shift!!! now this can be use to figure out how much force to give an object to make it do what you want if accelerating it in an m=F(mv) fashion etc. now this can also be used to figure out how much battery energy to give the function machine to make it force how ever much you want etc. now say sin(dy/dx) is y is F(x) is y then the y will do whatever no matter what it is deriving by thus FFFF(x) is x is [(y+ln(y-1))^y) then remember ^x to get the liniar then ^y to switch and it is really y dx then integrated to get the x instead of dx also go to get the truth ((y+ln(y-1))^(2^y)) because x will equal FFx) etc. and the e^(dy/dx) is especially for the builds and use these for any function of function etc. and function machine etc. now in the [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)]^(2^v) when the function is f(x) x is f(x) then when it is ff(x) x is ff(x) then ff(x) becomes f(x) derivative wise then x ffff(x) becomes ff(x) becomes f(x) then is is ffff(x)/ff(x) times ff(x)/f(x) to be f(x) to the x or x is really v now in this next stuff y is v and x is m now in ln(y) is sin(dy/dx) what is x well y is e^(sin(dy/dx)) then e^(dy/dx) then integrate and switch and switch again back to get y is sqrt(1-sqrt(x)) then x is sqr(y*y-1) then the dy/dx is integrated so you do not have d(sin(dy/dx))/(dy/dx) and that is (((y^5)/5)-(2(y^3)/3)+y) then the inner function then you have y+ln(y-1) then by the multiplying rule of ((y+ln(y-1))^(2^y)) then go x=[((y^5)/5)-(2(y^3)/3)+y] all times [y+ln(y-1)] all this to the (2^y) now the bigger y and the smaller y are not the same that is why in the mutliplying rules they have two different functions now if it is to the y then it gets the right answer but to the (2^y) it makes the particle accelerators and thrusters work efficiently so use y in math in the accelerators and magnetic thrusters use 2^y now to get y justs switch the variables in the functions as in for anything a function all by itself multiplied functions just switch the variables now where I said switch then switch back it never switched so it is in the right place already now intregal of f'(mv) dmv is F(mv) then F(mv) is x then m is e^x in certain situations only also in the v=H(mv) or really v=F(m) (another situation here) then if it equal v the function does not equal m then it is not force to be liniar all over again but m=(Hmv) or m=F(m) now it has to be a relative liniar over and over again then for this situation you can add or subtract or divide or multiply since derivative of one to one liniar is one!!! thus e^(dm/dv) + sin(dm/dv) to solve then v is sqr(m*m-1) plus (m+ln(m-1)) now remember to get m just switch the variables at the very end now for [e^(dm/dv)] times [sin(dm/dv)] then go times or sqr(m*m-1) times (m+ln(m-1)) is and notice neither one is integrated unlike doing a function within a function now if it were a function of m and not derivative of m then it would not be figured out in this manner but instead the manner I showed as in e^(sin(mv)) now the reason it cannot be done in this manner is because it is not a derivative where it just multiplies see in function of function the chain rule says multiply but when it is always liniar relatively as in different situations different manners also in these past situations go ahead and assume that x is v and m is y now in these equations these will definitely be good in the function machine but remember the actual function of function of etc. function machine is what is wanted otherwise the function will freeze to one function see these just measure the function machine like a temperature gadge in water one does not throw the water and burner out and cook with the temperature gadge!!! now in the H(mv) the v is a liniar and the ralative liniar is one to one then the rate is constant rectangular m*dv that is why the H(mv)'s can be treated that way now in H(m*(F(v))) is just where the rectangles now multiply by a F(v) instead of v still treated the same and H((F(m))*(F(v))) then again multiply and treated same and ofcourse H((F(m))*v) same deal see rectangles base times height no matter what!!! and the m=H(((F(m))*(F(v))) where m is ofcourse eturn to liniar again no matter what!!!

Friday, September 18, 2015

how particles work in terms of relativity and double step functions

now in the particles say because of time relativity there are three then if the state is such that the barrier is overcome then it splits into three particles are what kind depending on energy state but if past light speed or in photons cases average past light speed it then creates energy to make particles which is the main reactions in the big bang also in cosh(cos(mv)) is m a little algebra says e^(2v) minus m*m is 1 which means the length of the curve is intregal of e^v or e^v see 1/sqrt(1-m*m) ran through dmdv*arccosh(mv) in terms of m and other side dm/dv is understood and both sides divide by dv ofcourse then it stops at -1/(1-coth(v)) after running 1/sqrt(1-m*m) through the arccosh function it goes [m/(1-m*m)^1.5]/sqrt((1/(1-m*m))-1) and a little algebra is to -1/(m*m-1) which is arccoth(m) when integrated then m is coth(-v) or m is -coth(v) then m-1 is -coth(v) because of m being one then go 1-coth(v) then invert negative to get the -1/v effect canceled then the length of curve can be achieved this way and intregal of e^v or e^v is the length also in both steps in arccosh and then arcsine the dm's and dv's do the same thing and derive both steps now there is cosh(cos(mv)) is m then the (sec(v) to the v) where the v inside the sec function is single so also negative 1/v and invert is for negative exponent so go e^(n/(e^(e^(n/(e^v))))) n is 1 or -1 etc. then v is e^(n/(e^v)) then when v is infinite then it is at one (or c) again and this time I am talking of v that is not velocity and m is not mass but if they were then velocity is one unit not kinetic energy velocity but absolute energy velocity is one unit (or c) but this curve is adding a dimension every time it moves one unit of infinitely small dx also the build is reverse when the velocity and mass are headed back to one now particles change direction at transforming or producing or absorbing or at producing their own kind or absorbing their own kind and the change is infinitely fast acceleration change because of definite barrier also why did I switch cos and cosh around well when inverting the function there is invert of derivative so dB(A)/dB times dB/dv is dB/dA times dA/dv so in terms of A but switched is dA/dB then switched is dA/dB times dB/dv which is back to the function then the dB/dv is in terms of the invert so everything is inverted back also the dot product F*D dE times dM to get zero and same with with any of these in the infinitely small cube well dE*dM (M is momentum and E is energy) is zero also you ever wonder if we meet death is that completely the end well the probability that we can come back if it is not zero then we can well the probability that we come back is not zero!!! otherwise how did we get here in the first place!!! also how long is the wait well as long as we are not alive the wait is infinitely small!!! however make use of this life because it effects all the other lives and here's why the probability is stronger that we will be good if we are good!!! also there may be some serious errors in this and the other posts but you'll get it just be flexible to not assume I did not make errors and to know what I ment!!! now the memory in life is erased when when one returns to eath soil then reassembled like say a computer also it effects past lives whether one is good because of probability also if multiplying mass then the barrier was infinitely thin but not anymore the (ln(kqq/Ar))*(ln(kqq/Br)) then for a while it is negative and of the outer sides it is positive and A is larger or smaller then B the more equal the thinner the shell barrier also if there is any confusion in these fractions use sqrt(-1) or i but they have to cancel to negative one or positive one also one can make a shell barrier around a ship this way now in the dimensions the 'a' factor is like crossing light speed that is why it can cross dimensions now in the energy ((1/2)m*v*v/r)*r then divide by r*r for the force to get (1/2)*m/r now in the prisms go straight triangle then x*x curve then another x*x curve and for each have a perpendicular right after and then the line to have another unit with the line on the first prism then the contract to a dot then double unit one is as far from dot as double unit one (or two units) then in the next double unit all inverted as in straights turn to 1/x and parabolas turn to 1/(x*x) but in the next double unit the 1/x is after the 1/(x*x) not before and this will with dot signaling currents in the powerhead make a hologram with no walls and you can pass your hand through the light making the object like a ghost and in the doubles the units have to be perpendicular and the next unit is 180 degrees from the former also the transmittion can go through electric wire from the powerhead and the TV unit can have a powerhead and the glass math grapher hologram I talked of a while ago can stimulate a picture and all prisms parallel or perpendicular or 180 degrees as in the first two pieces one perpendicular but the next two pieces two parallel sets and two perpendicular sets and get the distances all equal with the right distances also the pieces are all square cross section and triangle section or triangle side curved section and the two piece together the perpendicular one is identical to it's partner also remember y=e^sin(x) well go (1/(m*m))/sqrt(1-((1/m)^2) to get 1/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) or arcsec(m) is v or m is sec(v) then get ln(sec(v)+tan(v)) then switch and switch intregals to get v is ln(sec(n)+tan(n)) n is intregal of e^sin(v)!!! also the image is created then a gas or solid is needed to light it but not with the powerhead deal!!! so now you can see a movie in three dimensional and swoop your fist through the villian image because you get mad when the villian is winning or kiss a pretty woman that is not there!!! also the size can be magnified to huge or small by changing the constants on the fractions earlier!!! now in the dimensions at 2c the 3c cannot be handled by the 2c dimension machine and the c cannot handle the 2c so right at 2c dimension same with anything the tangent is same thing for tangent dimension etc. now e^F(v) and e^-F(v) then one is the exact negative of the other no matter what then integrate thus sinh(F(v)) will always go to zero and cosh(F(v)) is always at F(v) then sqr(cosh) is one at certain functions and sqr(sinh) is zero at certain functions thus sqr(cosh) minus sqr(sinh) is one like in the original equation!!! also in e^tan(v) is m then -1/(1+m*m) as in (1/(m*m))/[((1/(m*m))+1] first and then arccot(m) then integrate to -ln(1+n*n) minus arccot(n) is v some of the signs may be wrong negative or positive then n is intregal of m and the switches are because the function got inverted thus intregal of e^tan(v) also the 'a' factor behaves like the light speed situation thus dimension travel now the cosh(v) is consistent with velocity approaches infinite then mass goes to one and velocity goes to zero also when velocity is at infinite then graph is like a giant sine wave thus at the same point in ends up at is mass is one and velocity zero just like in a circle and hence the sine wave behavior so where it starts in a circle is where it ends up so energy is not being created out of nothing but it can still be created out of something like space also velocity is perpendicular to one in sinh(v) and cosh(v) but mass is the hypotenuse and the catanery functions (cosh and sinh) are along the curve to make them the qualified functions so in any curve the velocity goes to zero and mass to one also in the polarizer make sure there are dirivative circuits everywhere along all wires and against the currents and you might want to use negative derivative circuits as well and you might want to do this with any derivative circuit also all this is with the simple or trick rectifiers and maybe other things also hook the negative swopped with the positive also remember in the thruster to use the gravity pull to generate electricity by lurching the back and forth particles in a general direction and then that current is power stepped and sent to the thruster to push against gravity to gravity is pushing it upward and for heavy objects the voltage is huge also the push and central plates are active plates all plates copy there magnetic counterparts also go simple rectifers for the polarizer that turns light into electricity now in the C-k(charge C is a large constant and k is small constant when going below light speed the C get's eating by the k(charge) to zero and charge is liniar to mass also the f=k*q*q/(r*r) when kozaked is e*k*q*q*[e^((f*f*(-(r*r+1))))] or turned into the e*k*q*q*/{[e^((f*f*((r*r+1)))-1)]} is f*f and the negative one is for integration constant plus c effect also in m*v*v/r is k*q*q/(r*r) then v is sqrt(r) since a is constant then m is k*q*q/(r*r) then k*q*q/(m*m) times k*q*q/(r*r*r*r) is dm/d(r*r) is d(r*r)/dm is one then m*r*r is constant then dm/dr then constant times d(1/(r*r))/dr then constant times df/dr then d(ma)/dr then dm/dr is d(1/a) so m/r is 1/a because v*v is always c*c!!! by m*v*v/r is acceleration and go dr/dm for actual acceleration then dm/dr is a constant then m*m is intregal of -1/(r*r) d(r*r) or ln(K/r*r) where ln(K) is added by intregal plus c effect that is you can add a constant in integration automatically becuase negative one then m*m is ln(k*q*q/(r*r)) omiting contstants be resquaring the squares in intregals now in m is e^(sqr(sin(v))) the 1/sqrt(m) then (1/sqrt(m*m*m))/sqrt(1-(1/m)) then 1/(m(sqrt(m-1))) then z*z is m then dm/dz is z then 1/[z(sqrt(z*z-1))] then arcsec(z) is v then z*arcsec(z) is z*z*arcsec(z) minus sqrt(z*z-1) is all v then n*arcsec(sqrt(n)) minus sqrt(n-1) is v start with v dm and switch all of it in reverse now n is intregal of m dv also remember the (1/2)*(m*v*v) then it is m*v*v if taking all the energy or really m*c*c also in m*m is ln(k*q*q/(r*r)) then e^(m*m) is k*q*q/(r*r) then to get the derivative go m*e^(m*m) is 1/k*q*q times q (r is kept at one) then m*m is ln(k*q*q/(r*r)) then e^(m*m) is k*q*q/(r*r) then go 1/(k*q*q) times q then mass is directly proportional to q liniarly now the way to phase a wave is go sin(0+z) 0 is feta and feta is angle and the way to track the phase is by when the waves are closer to zero the z decreases change more and z can be a constant or any function now dy/dx minus Ky is zero the dy/dx is 1/(r*r) thus u is e^sqr(K) then derivative because integrating equation and ln because ln other side then it goes from K/(r*r) to ln(K/(r*r)) then K is k*q*q assuming k*q*q is a "changing constant" also in the kozak equation for light speed the function is changing so the curved where the instantanous straight line should be and hence acceleration up to and past the mass and the mass particle is infinite cylinders like any other particle shift infinitly fast because of the cylinder's infinite speed but the mass particle is aligned with the tan(0) in spiral wave behavior of acceleration so it effects acceleration also in barriers antimatter is where the field exists on the outside of the barrier but not the inside but matter and antimatter come together to complete so field exists everywhere so everything I said of mass particle and other paticles some of it is not true but use the ideas they are true in other situations also inside a blackhole is a lower parallel universe

Wednesday, July 29, 2015

the life particle and other things

now any particle with the angle of wobble changing the function can be anything of f(x) but x must always be infinite to zero to negative infinite to zero to infinite etc. and this is for any particle including the life particle which I talked about at the end of the last post before this one also the reason is because particles are circular hence the sine properties also each particle possibly represents a dimension because the possible directions of the cylinders is effected by dimensions like one direction one dimension two dimensions infinite directions three dimensions infinite cubed directions fourth which is time then the timing sets the course of which fields attract each other etc. so four forces of nature to four dimensions!!! now in m equal sin(m*m*v*v/2) the antikozak of that is m equal sec(v*v) now why well arcsine(m) is m*m*v*v/2 then 1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) is mv then intregal of (v*F(v)) is 1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) then derive in terms of v and also m is F(v) and aTb is a to the b then {-m/[(1-m*m)T(1.5)]} all times dm/dv then v is {1/[(m*m-1)T(1.5)]} all times dm/dv then dm/((v)dv) is dm(dv*v) is [(m*m-1)T(1.5)] then 3m*[sqrt(m*m-1)] is ddm/[d(m)*d(v*v)] see I derived them both to dm because of the differential equation then 3/(d(v*v)) because set the dm and v equal and get a three then reset their inequalities and this is 3m*[sqrt(m*m-1)] then d(v*v) is 1/(m*(sqrt(1-m*m))) then v*v is arcsec(m) because d0/dx is sec(0)tan(0) then dx/d0 is 1/(m*(m*m-1)) or 1/[sec(0)tan(0)] anyway m is sec(v*v) then go(1/2)*2*v*sec(v*v) then (1/2)*ln[sqrt(1+m*m)+(m)] but according to the kozak formula the intregal of (1/2)*ln[sqrt(1+m*m)+(m)] is such that m is sine(m*m*v*v/2) where v is sqrt(arcsec(m)) so this is the intregal of (1/2)*arcsinh(m) so if m is sine((1/2)*m*m*arcsec(m)) then you have the m*m*v*v/2 equal intregal of (1/2)*arcsinh(m)!!! now also remember the both signal magnets and both relay magnets are energy supply to the relay system now also passive plates and passive magnets almost the same treatment also the disk magnets are particularly useful if the accelerator is huge to squeeze the magnetism of the central toward the outer for the particles now intregal of arcsinh(m) is m*arcsinh(m) plus sqrt(1+m*m) then the solution is m equal sin(m*m*v*v/2)!!! now you can change m and v to anything and in intregal of m*v (dmdv) equal intregal mv d(mv) the dmv/dw cancels out so you can freely change it!!! w is whatever now sqr(cos(0)) is e to the [sqr(sin(&))*sqr(cos(0))] (turning m into cos(0) and v into sin(&)) kozaked is cos(0) is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) or cos(0) is cos(&) then 0 is & then when the circular substitution happens enough then 0 and & are equal and sqr(cos(0)) is e to the [sqr(sin(0))*sqr(cos(0))] then 2*ln(cos(0)) is [sqr(sin(0))*sqr(cos(0))] then 2*ln(cos(0)) is [sqr(sin(2*0))/2] then -2*tan(0) is 2*sin(2*0)*cos(2*0) then -2*tan(0) is sin(4*0) obviously 0 goes to zero and both of the expressions are zero so just some things you can play around with in these equations also in the function machines you can use all ideas and the old fashion method of compounding functions as well now if wanting intregals like IIIIffff(x) then have a recycle function machine whose functions are just integrators and from the function machine to the integrator function machine and then that never rejoins the main function machine if wanting five functions then five intregals etc. then have a five and it rejoins etc. now in the arcsin(m) situations I assumes that m was sqrt(M*M-1) and M is the original mass but say M is m then you are integrating the ln[sqrt(m*m-1) plus (m)] which is impossible to integrate but with kozak method you can as in m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) and then go m is sin([m*m*arcsec(m)]/2) and you can do anything with this with any equation also do to all plates passive and active what you do to their corresponding magnets passive and active with exceptions now active plates do what active magnets do and passive plates do what passive magnets do with almost the same circuitry for both also in m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) you cannot replace v*v with arcsec(m)!!! also in sqr(sec(x)) is e to the -{sqr[tan(0)sec(0)]} then sec(0) is 1/sec(0) then sqr(cos(0)) is 1 then cos(0) is one then 0 is zero when m is infinite!!! also say m is sqrt(1-v*v) then go v*sqrt(1-v*v) then (1/3)*[(1-v*v)^1.5] (^ is to the) anyway then go (1/3)*[m^(1.5)] then go [(15/4)^(2/5)]*[(mv)^(4/5)] all to the (2 to the v) is m then if v approaches infinite then m is one and then because m is sqrt(1-v*v) then v is zero!!! so circular movement at infinite winds up as zero even without relativity factored in!!! now sqrt(1-v*v) is sec(0) then when m or v is infinite in a circle then v is zero then m is infinite while v is zero also go what is zero to the zero well x to the x then ln(y) is x*ln(x) then ln(x)/(1/x) then 1/x/(-1/(x*x)) then x or -zero or zero then y is one thus one for [(mv)^(4/5)] ^ (2 to the v) where the exponent of mv would go to zero also the sqr(cos(0) would cancel the square effect of sqr(sec(0)) also if m is infinite then v is zero so m*zero would be finite even if v is infinite to go to zero now anything that mimics the nature of a circle is treated like it!!! thus ellipses etc. also the energy is then finite at energy is infinite!!! because (1/2)*(m*v*v) and two zeros means energy is zero at infinite!!! now ofcourse m*c*c is energy so the kinetic is zero then m*c*c is all potential then it is possible that their is nothing but potential and no kinetic at rest thus cylinders really are going infinite speed in a circular!!! so mass and no kinetic is indeed possible!!! now for cylinders the mass would be because of the infinite small size and infinite velocity to infinite small velocity thus cylinders really are 1/(cube(infinite))!!! so liniar dimensions really are infinite small in cylinders (mass to volume) also mass particle the velocity goes to infinite to the w (w is whatever) and the velocity is 1/(infinite to the w) but the particle itself has infinite more energy so the other particles are just signals!!! now no matter what waves or really lobes stay same velocity c and cylinders stay same velocity c*infinite and wobble behaves as is now in spiral and waves spiral responds n/infinity and cycloid waves respond in s/infinity time with n greater then s because waves are direct and spiral is perpendicular so a+b is constant and a*a plus b*b is constant since energy is all the same then 2ab is constant then ab is constant so if large emphasis on wave and small on spiral or vice versa then still same speed behavior but in functions both are zero time response but if changing derivative infinitely fast then the n and s pop out with no division of infinite as in f(x) then f(f(x)) then f(f(f(f(x))) (f(x) is e to the x) then eight etc. then light speed also if all wave no spiral the limit is the same and vice versa the same and when the spiral falls behind then further acceleration is further behind when not zero then this is called succession but normally and al division of infinite the particle with spiral and wave combined is always light speed now when 'a' factor that means the change is happening under light speed thus energy distruction!!! over is energy creation one is neither but listen to what I said in the past!!! see 'a' factor has also to do with the spiral and wave interaction in the same way!!! also for wave or lobe and cylinder I may have made an error just now so listen to the past information so in other dimensions or universes or both it is possible the objects accelerate themselves!!! now be carefull m/[(1-m*m)^1.5] the m/[(m*m-1)^1.5] has an i or imaginary number but which cancels a numerator that does the same thing now for d(arccosh(arccos(v)))/dv is d(arccosh(d(arccos(v))))/d(arccos(v)) times d(arccos(v))/dv then the arccos(v) copies it's sine counterpart with a negative and d(arccosh(v)) is 1/(sqrt(m*m-1)) then m is 1/(sqrt(1-v*v)) then (sqrt(1-v*v))/v then 1/sqrt(1-v*v) times the negative is now negative(1/v) then that is perpendicular in a cartesian coordinate system the more perpendiculars the more dimensions like three are three possible perpendiculars also reverse the function to and the derivatives are taken out then you have cos(cosh(cos(cosh(v)))) perpendicular to a to b to c etc. but in cosh neither numerator or demoninator produce an i and you still get sec(v*v) but you now have sqr(sec(v*v)) for each also in differentials dy/dx plus xy minus xy is x to the n then you have sin((eTx + eT-x)/2) is 1/v no negative and with sin(cosh(v)) then if v is x to the n then the infinite is e to the infinite becomes one (because infinite becomes zero) then eT-x becomes zero then sin(1/2) then conversion because the introduction of the formula of sin or cos means d of formula in terms of variable to get pi/2 everytime sin or cos is one or zero respectivelythen you go sin(pi/4) in short infinite to the nth is always for pi/4 so (sec(v*v)) to the 2*n then sec(v*v) at v is infinite is sec(pi/4) or sqrt(2) then 2 to the nth is with the nth dimension so take a line and it will measure 1/(sqrt(2)) then area will measure 1/2 then volume 1/(sqrt(8)) or really 1/2 first then 1/4 then 1/8 then dimension for or time is 1/16 then when the edges are zero the dimensions cannot go any further but this does not happen until infinite!!! so now remember the waves are c and the cylinders are c*infinite so cylinders say three point is because infinite velocity but waves are say three point because or the time dimension cylinders do not have a concept of time because infintely small mass!!! also remember when dy/dx plus xy is w (w is whatever) then go e to the x and dy/dx minus xy is w then go e to the -x also when going to infinite dimension then all sides are equal to get a sphere at zero then at dimension zero is what it is called the universe is a point and even if universe is infinite still a point because 2 to the infinite and the universe has levels but only finite levels so everything is the same except a b and c etc. are all finite and the universe is a cylinder or really a sphere with a cylinder pointing at all ends or really eight hyperbolas to a sphere and the hyperbolas are each a cylinder and in these positive dimensions one circular hyperbola then the hyperbola at infinite is a cylinder when slope a/b of hyperbola becomes zero now the reason is the inverse relation is sharper and sharper where the slope is infinite at zero and horizontal at non-zero so the other cylinders then are other parallel universes!!! also at dimension zero the universe is now a point and you start at zero by infinite then it starts all over where the universe is an infintely small cylinder or point!!! now take the sin(x) machine and go d(cos(x)) or sqrt(1-x*x) or the cos(x) machine or just derivative of sine and for example if in cos(x) I say dx sometimes I really mean d(cos(x)) in way past past present and future and way future anyway then invert to get sec(x) also x is m*m*v*v/2 then v is 1/[(m*m)*(sqrt(m*m-1))]then n+1 is m*m then d(m*m)/d(z*z) where z*z is (m*m+1) correct some possible errors in this and you get 1/[(m)*(m*m-1)] then go -1/m plus 0.5/(m-1) minus 0.5/(m+1) then go -ln(m) plus (0.5)*ln(m-1) minus (0.5)*ln(m+1) again surf out errors to get eTv is m*sqrt((m-1)/(m+1)) then surf out errors to get 1/(m*m) is eT(2v) then then m is eT(-v) then if v is infinite then m is 1/(eT(infinite)) then m*v is zero then m*m*v*v/2 is all zero then m is sec(zero) then m is one then mass at velocity is infinity is whatever mass was at rest!!! see zero mass would fade into space again so we do not want that now ofcourse infinite would fade to zero under certain conditions but under these conditions it goes to one now in space minus mass is constant is because the more space the more mass and mass plus energy is constant amount of energy then space minus mass is constant but also space plus mass is constant to conserve energy thus space*space minus mass*mass is constant then sqrt[space*space minus mass*mass] mass is tangent and space is secant then the kozak theories are in play with the expanding universe thus sec(m*m*v*v/2) then if you go through a blackhole that manipulates space the same way except contraction instead of expansion then mass will return to one and you will be in the velocity is infinity back to finite in a split second and the cosh and cos are both effects of sec's thus you will be in a world where this universe is an infinitely small point or cylinder and then a huge amount of time will pass in 1/infinity time and this universe would have completely expanded and the life of the universe is actually greater because at first cylinders stay unless the mass of the cylinder is 1/(infinite^4) again or zero mass for cylinder again but ofcourse the larger universe all has a life but the time is infinitely greater so it is only safe to say this universe will stop expanding in finite time (I think I last said e to the c) but one thing the cylinders will recontract to give off mass to another point to yes maybe this universe is whatever I said in the past lifetime also in blackholes these are the infinitely small blocks or matter for the infinitely larger universe also in blackholes they are gates to the infinitely larger universe now derive c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and get dm/dv is cv/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)^3) and then dm/(mdv) is v/(c*c-v*v) then dm/m is (1/2)*(vdv)/(c*c-v*v) then ln(m*m) is ln(c*c-v*v) then derive then 2m is 2*c-2*v then m is c-v then at m is zero see the intregal because total mass build then ln because mass and velocity are thinking exponential (2 then 4 then 8 then 16 etc. (s.infinite's)) then mass is zero because the cylinders are infinitely small but only at velocity is zero then m is c*m0/sqrt(c*c-v*v) but I always assume m0 is one then at v is c it is infinite/(sqr(infinite)) or one!!! so the mass is the mass at v is c!!! higher it explodes to infinite lower is collapses to nothing (this is without the kozak processes) now integrate to a plus (c*c/2)/2 on the left side and to a (c*c/2)/2 on the right side or switch the negative and positive now v is e to the m*v*v when at infinity because d(m*v)/dm goes to one at infinity to replace m*v with v and when switched to replace m*v with v and then v is e to the (v*v*m*m/2) and the you have to switch negative and positive also (now where I say m*m*v*v/2 or something similar it is possible in some cases I ment m*m*v*v/(2*c*c) or over c etc. for each v including this one right before this statement) now the reason to replace m*v with m is one side is dmv other is dm then the switch and then v is c/sqrt(c*c+v*v) then v is e to the -m*v*v then v is at zero again also let's see how dmv/dm does in the sec equation well go (eT(-v)-(v)*eT(-v))/eT(-v) then v is zero from infinite to zero then dmv/dm is one here also now this means the work on the sec equation is accurate now each v for some equations supposed to be accompanied by a 1/c unless you have the v is c or some other special cases now blackholes are simply holes in the universe to a much larger world in such that you are thikning of the universe in two dimensions and to get into a higher dimension do the 'a' factor over light speed to get into a twin dimension of what you are already in do it below light speed and a parallel universe do it right on light speed and can the balance of light speed ever be thrown off well the energy must be greater then the total energy in the universe as in the infinte creators then hinder it goes lower help it goes higher as in if a pole is holding a car you must life the car and then the pole will bend considering the pole is strong or not strong so if you want the universe create infinite energy in finite time the way I said now the space*space minus mass*mass is always c*c also remmeber in the kozak equation of v is e to the -m*v*v remember when velocity is infinite then velocity is zero now in the universe the reverse says when v is zero it is infinite thus the universe is zero then infinite times zero or a constant so when it reach zero that is what happened as in the balance of light speed or really zero turned into c the energy was created see the light speed balance was messed with to tip the creation of energy now today light speed c is the balance so everything went zero now everything goes c a definite change for definite energy levels see there is a God but he works infintely mysteriously see did God create life or did the Sun and Earth's atmosphere and that huge collision with that huge comet well both God worked through these things to create life and he made the life particle by natural causes so indeed energy was created naturally and by God!!! God is NOT an obvious God he is infintely mysterious because mysterious is creative and God is one creative God!!! see we do NOT have all the answers and it is NOT that simple!!! now in the integration or fraction cancelations or derivatives the constants go to one because say the liniar is increasing then the whole square is put in place to get the two to cancel and similiar phenomina is for anything else also when m is sinh[(sqr(m*v))/2] then m is v*v then when flipping it you just flip the result then for multiply you just multiply thus the catinary winds up being parabolic when antikozaked also in the x^(1/3) the whole square to the parabola to get multiply x^(2/3) again canceling the number constants anyway in infinitely big circle or almost infinitely big circle the parabola and the catinary have the say so!!! so when antikozaked the path is free when kozaked the path is chained!!! thus the antikozak shall set you free!!! now the energy of a magnetic field super or non super conducting is (1/2)*N*A*B*B and the power if it is changing is N*A*B charge times velocity times B all is force and N is number of wrappings and A is crossectional area and if area changes then go intregal of A or H then (1/2)*H*B*B is energy and H*B is power also the sinh(m*m*v*v/2) is m then -1/((m*m+1)^1.5)*(dm/dv) is all v then in the triangle 1/(m*m+1) is cos(0) and derivative is sec(0)*sec(0) then cos(0) then intregal is sin(0) which is m/(sqrt(1+m*m)) then v*v is m*m/(1+m*m) then arrange and get v*v/(sqrt(1-v*v*v*v)) then v/(sqrt(1-v*v)) times v/(sqrt(1+v*v)) then you wind up with v*e to the (m*m*v*v/2) times v*e to the (-m*m*v*v/2) when going back then this cancels to v*v*1 so m is v*v because m is both multiplied now this is interesting try 1/sqrt(1-m*m) [1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) is same as 1/sqrt(1-m*m) in this and all cases] anyway everything happens to 1-m*m that happened to 1+m*m with a few minuses and pluses changed then it is v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) is all m how can it be sec(v*v) and v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) well it depends on the values you put in sin(m*m*v*v/2) is m to start it also why does it not go sec(sec(v*v)*sec(v*v)) etc. well the v is squared in sin(m*m*v*v/2) and in sec(v*v) so if v*v is z then just a liniar and same for v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) so now go z/(sqrt(1+z*z)) in sin(m*m*z/2) also the sinh(x) acts like a sine in that the slopes are the same at the zero x axis also the parabola, y = x*x and the sinh(x), y = sinh(x) is the same values when kozaking them then x*x = sinh(x) with substituting more and more values then the the circle is sqrt(1-sinh(x)) in a flat surface with infinitely big circle or straight line and it has to be a center attracting it but what if the position changes like in a normal circle then v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) for sine and v*v/(sqrt(1-v*v*v*v)) is there much difference then when v*v*v*v is changed in sine to go from infinite to finite which is what happens then indeed the cylinders trace sine waves!!! now for direct lines there is no attractor so again infinite to finite back to infinite again to keep it sine waves also parabola curves are too like sine waves in that the x axis points and same slope also sqrt(1-sinh(x)) is circle then when x is zero then circle is one etc. but these curves are for wobble and movement of cylinders what those waves are and the answer is sqrt(1-sinh(x)) and the spheres are finite because of either infinite number of cylinders or infinite speed or both where wobble is infinitely faster and these waves are for energy levels of cylinders as in how big the particle is also say wobble is infinite to the (2/3) then movement around circle is infinite to the (1/3) to get infinite and ofcourse do it to the c then get c*infinite now the space minus mass and space plus mass are both constant only when in the same energy level these constants change when changing energy levels and space would be like secant and mass would be like tangent also the energy level shift is finitely fast like in an electrons of the atom now in the first energy levels the volume of the universe was not zero just a number real close to zero also in the cylinder the universe will get from 1/(d*finite) to 1/(d*infinite) to get a cylinder but the universe is infinite expansion to be canceled to square one as in 1/(d*finite) (square one is just an expression) so energy creation also it is possible points are shaped like little cubes otherwise no space between them to form into cubes but a cylinder bends the cubes so energy is bent space also tiny speed is first energy level then light speed for this huge energy level etc. remember the many cylinders is really one cylinder and same for particles and waves and maybe n/infinite and s/infinite where n/s maybe bigger then one thinks now for the spiral and wave past light speed it will all go backwards but past 'a' factor it will slow going forward or speed up backwards and the behavior shifts instantly the forward is sqrt(cos*cos plus sin*sin) is one or c but it turns to backwards is sqrt(sec*sec minus tan*tan) is one or c all instantly (like in universe) also the blackholes are finite in size with a lower energy level now to brake the speed of light balance just go past it and if getting infinite energy in the process use all the ways I showed you then you can blow apart a blackehole by upsetting it's w relative speed or whatever depending on the blackhole going back to light speed also sec(v*v) is from m is cosh(m*m*v*v/2) or m is cos(m*m*v*v/2) now to get infinite going past light speed one way is to use m is cosh(m*m*v*v/2) or m is cos(m*m*v*v/2) or asymtote graph for the 'a' factor or the past ways I showed you the recent past and the far past etc. now if I said sec(sec(v*v)*sec(v*v)) or sec(sec(v*v)) or anything like this I may have messed up it is ((sec(v*v)) to the 2) or really ((sec(v*v)) to the v) also remember the pi/2 factor when changing to a trigonometric function also in a blackhole to blow it apart be sure to make the beems meet at the center of the blackhole also in the spiral going backward and wave going backwards I really mean the wave going negative and the spiral turning the opposite way and the neagive wave increases progression when spiral goes increasing backwards etc. also the kozak will go cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)) then cosh(cos(cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)))) then cosh(cos(cosh(cos(cosh(cos(cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)))))))) so f(x) then ff(x) then ffff(x) then ffffffff(x) etc. so when v*v aproaches infinite each v is sqrt(infinite because of the square effect by the kozak equation so v*v is z and m*m is M so work with that also I some places where I said m I MAY have ment M only in some places now I messsed up big time the m is v*v and then m is sinh(m*m*v*v/2) then v*v is sinh(m*m*v*v/2) then the simple parabola is the sinh kozaked so everything is true except take this into account and similiar mess ups may have happened so takethose into account also otherwise everything else is true so the kozaked function from m is f(v) to m is g(m*m*v*v/2) is always (f) to the (2 to the vth) and the and the other function is always the (2 to the vth) build of whatever function also a blackhole is finite in size but and it is regular matter but it accelerated past the 'a' factor to change the standard c relative to 'w', a lower veloctiy standard function because it si compressed also the single dimansions would each be half as much as in length, width, and height each are 1/8 for volume then with time now go 1/(16) now go cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2) then m is sqrt(2) because otherwise you would have to make each 'v*v' mulitplied by mass but not to worry for the dimensions I keep m at sqrt(2) and this makes sence because the sec(v*v) winds up at sqrt(2) which is m and remember when going to sqr(sqrt(2)) or sqr(sec(v*v)) then go cosh(cos(cosh(cos(v*v)))) is antikozaked then sqr(sqrt(2)) as well just like in previous kozak functions also when a blackhole shoots up light the v*v kozaked is sinh then the wave a catonary thinks is the derivative is always the value down the curve so the speed would have to be the same then as the curve gets "pinched" same speed then as it goes to infinite " pincned" curve still same speed because the equation was kozaked to get to this so anyway the lines must go to zero to get infinite dimension the blackhole is finite concentration but the dimensions would be pretty high!!! and veloctiy would not be infinite but high and you would "ALMOST" get to the higher universe also in the past when I said kozaked I either mens kozaked or antikozaked and this might be true in the present and future as well also all these ideas I have been doing can be used in the inventions and everywhere now in the pi/2 the conversion is everytime a trigonomic function is introduced and the pi/2 is inside the trigonomic function multiplying the whole inside function also in a blackhole the c to a w because the universe is cut off from the blackhole so the speed of light changes and the gyrosopic force changes the direction and nature of the function of the cylinder when it turns so that they still make contact also in a car the according to kozak equations the m will go right back at one so the infinitly moving car mass is one like at rest but v will be zero then the u will be zero then you have mass at one and no velocity but on the inside velocity never changes at u but the v is zero then the mass stays intact thus you will simply have mass at rest and you must start all over again!!! and the nature of the acceleration will determine where the infinite car becoming velocity is zero and mass is one is going to wind up!!! now the way a blackhole is going to wind up cut from the universe is when light cannot escape then the very relativity rule is broken to cut the blackhole off from the universe!!! now somtimes when I say any of the following I mean any of the following ddy/ddx, (ddy/d0)/(ddx/d0),ddy/d(x*x) etc. see I am trying to fold up some errors and I made similiar errors like d(dm/d(v*v)) in terms of m that means (1/d(v*v))*(ddm/dm) so all but these errors are true also the d0 effect you can derive the top and bottom etc. just be flexible in a million different ways!!! now the particles are such that say degree one is infinite then degree two is infinite*infinite etc. now in particles say degree one is sqr(sqr(infinite)) then degree two is maybe mass and the mass particle is such that the function is is tan(x) and/or sec(x) to get to the angle changing with speed in spiral and wave so there are various degrees with various particles and the speed of the particles compensate for different degrees to keep particle effects the same also make one less infinite for each degree or maybe two or three to get infinite whatever speeds for cylinders etc. so the degree is say one less or two less then the degree needed to accompany the 1/[(infinite) to the three] volume cylinders or really 1/(sqr(infnite)) or 1/infinite to accompany the volume etc. also the relative speed function is determined by another function in the wobble angle change etc. also the hologram effect is different for different degree results per particle etc. now in each cylinder the spread of curvature is vertical and horizontal that makes a 1/(D*D) per cylinder everything is still true also the level of trace is different per degree etc. now for magnetics the cone is for infinite to decrease with distance to take out an 'r' thus the magnetism or sister field is 1/r while the field is 1/(r*r) now surf out any other errors also in sec(x) cos(x) and tan(x) go (pi/2)*x and in csc(x) sin(x) and cot(x) go (2*pi)*x and in {[1+sin((pi/2)x)]*[tan((pi/2)*x)]} all to the x as in (cos(x)/sin(x))*sin(x) and {[1-cos((2*pi)x)]*[cot((2*pi)*x)]} all to the x as in (sin(x)/cos(x))*sin(x) (l'hopital's rule applies here in parts of it) also everytime a trigonometric function is introduced go pi/2 times all inner function or 2*pi times all inner function also about the v equal 2u/(1+u*u) then if u is tangent then tan(2x) is v then the the u and v are in the same phenomina thus the angles are equal so thus v must be 2u/(1+u*u) also the blackhole is close to sinh function and v*v function at the same time because the values are close to infinite for circle and tiny close to zero for the new "c" or really w also the wave and spiral combined is the plane that folds like the plane where the beginning negative joins the positive end and all of the universe works this way!!! and the particle circle and wave divided evenly to get the negative beginning to the positive end and positive means right side up and negative means up side down thus energy creation now when crossing the 'a' factor you go to parallel dimension angle depending on behavior of particle or body when going past light speed then to a parallel universe angle depending on particle or body and then constant integration to go to curved dimension and lower or upper derivative or intregal also for curved universe constant integration to approach light speed and when meet at light speed or close then time change because it is highest dimension in this universe and universe meaning another small one not the large the large I already talked about and when starting behavior only a tiny amount of approaching other dimension also to get IIIIFFFF(x) put the integrator in a parallel circuit with a loop close and then the function in a second parallel circuit loop close as in inside the loop and put the function inside the integrator loop and whatever function determines whatever dimension and whatever intregal rate determines whatever angle behavior of upper dimension all same for derivative and function ddddffff(x) and the formulas for these are just the amount of required energy now if going IFIFIFIF(x) then that is a dimension that is completely different as in not even curved but beyond measurability of these dimensions!!! now in light one particle is clockwise and other counterclockwise so they cancel so they can do what they want and so the particle goes above and below light speed equally sine wave wise but in electron no cancel so the electron can go at whatever speed and half above or half below well it chooses half below because the overall upper bound is light speed unless getting it over then lower bound anyway the light is sine wave and the (1/2)*A*B*B is equal to k*q*q/r where B is qv/(r*r) this all becomes v*v/r equals 2k or a constant then v is proportional to sqrt(r) then (1/2)*m*v*v is really (1/2)*m/r which means if r is half then m is 1/2 for attraction which means energy and mass are proportional thus frequency is energy now for electron the speed is constant along the sine wave but still what frequency is it set at just like in light also this is for any particle of non canceling and canceling so combined this with past information now the speed along the wave is always light speed in a non cancel but the v*v/r is angular acceleration is guess what it is varied!!! v is proportional to sqrt(r) so when frequency is higher then amplitude is lower inversely or however I said in the past but the speed is always light speed in non cancel well the frequency changes without speed changing to effect the non cancel also some of this is present information for canceling and some is for non canceling so in the non canceling it is along the x axis in canceling it is along the sine curve so just take all this into account so there are three types non canceling above and below and canceling now some of this stuff I typed for electron or non canceling I really may have typed for canceling like photon and the other way around as well also remember if going to another dimension FFFF(x) etc. to get F(x) in the other dimension and for behavior of intregal or derivative to which of those dimensions etc.!!! now in the accelerators and the magnetic thrusters the ffff(x) etc. go dx to build and 1/dx to unbuild in the signal part of function machine and say signal a sine wave then it builds and unbuilds in a sine fashion also you can build unbuild or back and forth in any fashion and the x increase or decrease in any fashion and intregals or derivatives build unbuild back and forth any order with function any fashion and change order by changing fashion of each and connecting the signal of both to one signal and you can do all this with derivative as well and the you can do any combination and style you want in the accelerating and/or decelerating and in any order of stages also you can go sine*sine and a machine that square roots and arcsines to get a liniar back and forth etc. you can do any combination you want!!! and this is all for pure acceleration or pure deceleration or both together now I told you wrong the space minus mass is not constant and the space plus mass is not constant but space*space minus mass*mass is constant and is c*c (c is light speed) also in the sine wave that signals the function machine one parallel wire is dx the other 1/dx (d is derivative) then have the sqrt(sine*sine plus cosine*cosine) for each signal and then the function is increasing then decreasing back and forth also the actual sine wave function signal is around the other function signal and then the freeze circuit is inside the sine wave signal and the unit current is the inner function also in the (etc.) sin(sin(sin(m*m*v*v/2))) go central function is x*x/2 and door function is sin(x) then say go sin(e^(m*v)) then 1/sqrt(1-m*m) then m/[(1-m*m)^1.5] all times dm/dv is e^(m*v) then then d(m*m)/[(1-m*m)^1.5] is e^(m*v) then d(m*m) is understood then {1/[(1-m*m)^2.5]}/{1/[(1-m*m)^1.5]} then dm/(1-m*m) is d(m*v) then 1/(1-m*m) is dv then v is (1/2)*(ln((1+m)/(1-m))) then if e^v is infinity halfs then m is one then the pi/2 rule then sin(4*infinity) (1+m and 2v) for the (1/2) but infinity halfs to 2 infinity which pulls it to pi/2 then one then the pi/2 rule to one then forever number of doors functions brings it to one!!! (dv is understood also) and velocity is infinite/2 because the velocity is about average speed with liniar in the central function and door function now how about e^(sin(m*v)) then go (1/(m*m))*(dm/dv) then dv is understood to get go (1/(m*m))*(dm) to get the dm out that is understood to get 1/m is sin(m*v) then go d(arcsin(1/m)) is d(m*v) to get (1/(m*m))/sqrt(1-(1/m*m)) then dm/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) is d(m*v) then darcsec(m) is dv then arcsec(m) is v then m is sec(v) one more thing try e^(e^(m*v)) then (1/(m*m))*(dm/dv) dm/dv understood then go (1/(m*m*m))/(1/(m*m)) then 1/m is dv then e^v now these would be good in computing the 'a' factor equations or function machine resulting values etc. now earlier I was talking of ln(m+(m*m-1)) well in turns out that it is arccosh(x) but when switching it to feta instead of mass then you have the intregal of sqr(sec(0))*ln(sec(0)+tan(0)) now to get rid of sqr(sec(0)) divide both sides and then replace by dm then that is your intregal of ln(sec(0)+tan(0)) which is when m is (dm)*(sin(m*m*v*v/2)) also the reason space*space-mass*mass is c*c the difference decreases invertly to the sum because of squeezing in the universe now for the function machine in any particle machine use an initial function unit that goes into the recycle then that machine controls the heads of the builds also force has whatever head you want then 'a' does the rest also the mas goes to one in sin(e^(m*v)) then mass is one and v is infinite/2 also in the equation with dm when going 1/dm you go from one to dm also the heads can be door functions as well as in sin(sin(e^(e^(m*m*v*v/2)))) etc. and more than one central function as well and say the inner door can be larger or smaller then the outer door etc. also 1/(2-2) is (1/2)*infinite etc. also the space*space minus mass*mass is square rooted because the space and mass are squared for the universe now in the tracing of one cylinder to many or really the same one at different time frames the rate of trace change is such that the cylinders go infinite clockwise or counterclockwise and same with finite particles except finite also in the door functions I messed up a little the 'a' factor is not able to be solved with this etc. and I want one door function and one central function although you can have many of each also I messed up a little but take all ideas into account and it is possible for 'a' factor to be solved if going [(1/m)^n]/[(1/m)^(n-1)] but that would be under special conditions now in the cylinders the cylinder traces the other cylinders then that is infinite*c then the other trace is finite or c with the wave and if any more tracing all but one are infinitely small and infinitely fast also in all the constants in the other stuff above the reconstruction to a square will cancel the constants and when moving to infiinte speed the cylinders slow from c*infinite to zero and proportionately the waves slow from c to zero and the slow down is such that when the spiral and wave each (other kind of wave I think) the energy goes in then when the largest finite number is reached the slow down takes it away then the slow down starts speeding up again and it is all a big circle see the energy goes in then slow down dominates to take it back out then everything is reversed in a big circle that is why velocity winds up as zero and mass back to one now to treat m=sin(e^(m*v)) as one function go 1/sqrt(1-m*m) is (e^(m*v))*dmv/dm then go d(m*m)/sqrt(1-m*m) is (e^(m*v))*dmv/dv then sqrt(1-m*m) is intregal of (e^(m*v))*dmv/dv then go (dmdv) times e^(2*m*v) is 1 but the two goes by square rule then m*v is e^(m*v) then m must be 1/(v-(v*v)) for and the intregal earlier is from m*v or F*T to F*T*V or F*D which is energy also sin(sin(m*v) then same thing except 1 is sin(m*v) then m*v is sin(m*v) [by the way sin(m*v) is m then dm/sqrt(1-m*m) is dmdv then dmdm/(1-m*m) is d(sqr(mv)) then 2m*dm/(1-m*m) is d(sqr(mv)) then 2m/(1-m*m) is dmdvdv then divide both sides by dm to get (1/dm)*(2m/(1-m*m)) is dvdv then multiply the dm but integrate to get -ln(1-m*m) is v*v then 1-m*m is e^(-v*v) then sqrt(1-e^(-v*v)) is m] then {sqrt(1-e^(-v*v))}/v then also one more the e^(cos(m*v)) then 1/m is (dmdv/dm)*-sin(m*v) and the same process to get 1/m and m to get dmdv((-cos(m*v))) is 1 then back to m is sin(m*v) then to the formula I just said(the square is gone because somewhere along the line the 2 or really square effect as in maybe dvdv is sine*sine or something got canceled then mv is and all these are energies but notice if v goes to infinite then v goes to zero!!! also the mass will be one in all the cases!!! with a little help from the constant integreate effect also there is one for c*infinite in cylinders and one more for wave particle tracers if anymore they are infinitely small also so these are just some ways to kozak or really antikozak a function or functions now the square of sine to square root was d(sqrt(mv))*(sine) to get 1*1 then square root to 1 then make it interms of mv again to get mv*sine then go from there now a non intregal is where you go F*T and you keep it at that now the e^(F(mv)) the 1/m is dv*e^(F'(mv)) then go d(m*m) where 1/dv is understood then 2m*dm times 1/m or 2dm is all dmv*(F'(mv)) then m is (F(mv))/2 is m then for e the non intregal subdoor function is 1/2 now for tan(mv) as F(mv) then m is tan(mv) then dm/(1+m*m) is dmv then d(m*m)/(1+m*m) is dmdmdv then v is ln(1+m*m) because of relative integration for each side a while ago and using d(m*m) as the standard not dm then sqrt[(e^v)-1] is m then go 1/2 to get {sqrt[(e^v)-1]}/2 so that is a subdoor release function where the equation is solve by a non intregal door function now go e^tan(mv) is m with no door function then 1/m is dv*sec*(mv)*sec(mv) then 1/(sqrt(m) is sec(mv) then dmv is (1/(1/(m^1.5)))/[(1/(m^.5))*sqrt((1/m)-1)] then a little algebra and integration substitution and dmv is 1/sqrt(1-z*z) where z is sqrt(m) then sqrt(m) is sin(v) then m is sin(v)*sin(v) then with e^(cot(mv)) then add and you get one!!! now one is e^(tan(v)) plus e^(cot(v)) then e^(x-(1/x)) is zero then x-(1/x) is ln(0) then x must be ln(0) then this proves that when the velocity is ln(0) then the mass starts going to zero then at infinity it is one also the radio that can single out frequencies and amplitude combinations of many light rays and may I add that the polarizer can also use the currents on different axises and only accept light say at a forty five degree angle for one ray and 55 degrees for another etc. and these can be used for sound waves the president's brain waves etc. as in the president's only can control whatever missile etc. also there are all kinds of functions subdoors doors etc. now in 1/m is dv*sec(mv)*sec(mv) then dmdm/m is dm*[sec(mv)*sec(mv)] then dmdm/(m*m) is dmdv*sqr[sec(mv)*sec(mv)] then is dmdm/m is dmdv*[sec(mv)*sec(mv)] then dm/sqrt(m) is dm*sec(mv) then dm is understood then take it from there now in sec(v*v)*sec(v*v) would be cosh(cos(cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)))) or whatever but whatever means you will have to look earlier in this post or maybe an earlier post to see what whatever is I think it is m*m*v*v/2 but I'm not sure now m and sec(v*v) then go sec(v*v)*sec(v*v) is mv then sec(v*v)*tan(v*v) is m*v*v/2 then integrate to sec(v*v) which is m then sec(v*v)*sec(v*v) which is mv again and the twos in the (1/2)'s of the processes cancel effects this all means F*D F*T and mass are all perpendicular on the x,y,z coordinates now m is sec(v*v) for reasons earlier in the post and posts when I solved a kozak equation to get it, see that kozak equation, and then integrate by v for both and mass is treated like an instantaneous constant also in the d(arccosh(arccos(x)))/d(arccos(x)) and d(arccos(x))/dx then I went d(arccos(x))/d(d(arccos(x))) for upper and lower of larger and smaller fraction to get the earlier equation now sec(v*v) because sin(m*m*v*v/2) is m then dm/sqrt(1-m*m) is mv(dv) then go (dm/dv)/sqrt(1-m*m) is mv then dv is understood then (dmdm)/sqrt(1-m*m) is mdmdv or dvdmdm then sqrt(1-m*m) is v then 1 is m*m plus v*v then the derivative is 1 then m and v must be perpendicular in the derivative then dot product or m*v is perpendicular to dot product or mv*(v/2) and m etc. also the 1/2 effect works a little late and so allows one 1/2 now the kinetic energy is different from total energy see in F*D in the kozak equations are larger velocity but small distances by small times also there may be errors in this stuff but I think you'll get it also for prime numbers go 9-0 16-1 25-4 36-9 49-16 etc. and go 25-0 36-1 64-4 81-9 100-16 etc. and the starters are 9 16 25 49 etc or 3*3 5*5 7*7 etc. these will eliminate all the possible non-prime numbers also remember when going cosh(cos(cosh(cos(x)))) you go sec(v*v)*sec(v*v) etc. so these energy momentum and mass things can help make it possible to go past light speed see if the energy required is low and the momentum is high and if mass is low you can rip past light speed like paper towels!!!

Wednesday, April 29, 2015


now in the 1-1/H the hopetenuse the time is really the one and the time is squared becuse inside a radical then integrated is time minus hypotenuse thus the same behavior in capacitance or very similiar anyway now take the kozak equation m*m is e to the (2*m*m*v*v/(c*c)) the two is becuase I am talking of two objects going toward each other also v must be integrated I'll get to that anyway then dv*dv is [c*c*ln(m*m)]/(2*m*m) then intregal of dv*dv dm*dm is c*c*sqr[ln(m*m)]/4 then intregal of dv*dv dm*dm is just v*v becuase the d(m*v) is in terms of mass and in terms of v which ever order so then I derived in terms of v then the m*v deal hooked up the m so all you got is the v's as in go dv/(dm*dv) then the dm is dv/dv then one then your integration to v now this can be done because one side is m and other side is dv*dm or (m*v) where v is integrated already so go in terms of dm but then go square for both sides one side do other side do and hence we have [c*(ln(m*m))] is 2v then m*m is e to the (2v/c) and so m is e to the (v/c) now v is Va plus Vb plus X so e to the [(Va plus Vb plus X)/(c)] then mass multiplies because if you increase a velocity by x and it is twice the mass imagine now you are accelerating two objects then four well then mass will multiply by e to the velocity difference or e to the X then then X is eliminated and it stays as Va plus Vb see mass did all the work so to keep energy from going haywire and creating itself velocity must give up the X also why not velocity give up to mass instead well energy is m*c*c for internal non kinetic energy so mass must get all the accomedations also remember in the mass is e to the v/c then if the velocity is way below light speed then only part of the X get's attacked but at light speed 100 percent get's attacked here's why the X/c exponent says for a velocity X pay attention to X/c not X!!! so that is why one object closer faster then other obect toward approaching third object third oject coming toward them sees the difference differently now in the atom the engolfing particles axis in all three x,y,z dimension angle degrees each degree can be anything for each particle also in the mass is e to the v everyone must be f(v) then f(f(v)) then f(f(f(f(v)))) where f(v) is e to the v etc. and v must be increasing as the asymtote in the case f(v) then f(f(v)) then f(f(f(f(v)))) f(v) is e to the v and v is liniar then the asymtote is liniar c per time and so if v is one to one liniar you can make overall v say parabolic by g(v) is parabolic then that is the asymtote and in energy creation and distruction the distruction goes 1/E and creation goes E because the A in the A factor theories is 1/function is 1/g(v) in distruction then in creation go function then g(v) and this is all 1/[m*g(v)*g(v)] in distruction below light speed and above it is m*g(v)*g(v) where g(v) can be c or any function and E is function now at c the asymtote is one neither created or destroyed in m*g(v)*g(v) divided by m*g(v)*g(v) and this is for any v and any g(v) so f(f(f(g(g(g(v)))))) BUT THIS WILL APPROACH AN ASYMTOTE THAT IS INCREASING PARBOLIC THEN BY V TO THE FOURTH THEN SIXTH THEN EIGHT ETC. SO FOR A PARABOLIC JUST GO f(f(f(g(v)))) NOW i TRIED TO CORRECT THE ERRORS IN THIS POST OR LETTER AND THIS INFORMATION IS SUPPOSE TO HELP JUST COMDINED THIS INFORMATION WITH PAST INFORMATION AND WEIGH IT OUT BUT THERE IS POSSIBLY SOME ERRORS IN THIS LETTER OR POST SO IF SOME OR ALL OF THIS STUFF CONTRADICTS PAST INFORMATION DO NOT LISTEN TO IT!!!!!!!!!!!! now say Y is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then velocity would be v/Y then acceleration is a*(Y to the 1.5) then go m/Y times a/Y is f*Y f is force m is mass a is acceleration then m*a/(Y*Y) is f*Y then to match up the treatment divide by Y*Y in force as was m*a then f/Y now kozak of x/Y is x*x is e to the (x*x*v*v/(c*c)) now remember if going e to the x*x*v*v then c is the unit not one so the little v is turned into a multiple of the speed of light of f(v) is really f(c*L)!!! also remember acceleration get's huge so time required to reach a given velocity is remarkably small so the whole thing is in a flash!!! now in the z is (x+y)/(1+(x*y)) the x+y in the kozak theory is always c then c is a unit so go 1/(1+(x*y)) then that is kozaked to z is e to the -(x*y*z) then v is x*y then tan(v) is z then dzdz/(1+z*z) is dzdv then then ln(1+z*z) is zv then 1+z*z is zv then tangent squared is sqr(tan(v)) then plus one is sqr(sec(v)) then invert and square root to get to the other z is cos(x*y) the invert is because one exponent is negative also when converting from conventional to angular like in a trigonometry function the inside of the function always go times 2*pi also e to the m*m*v*v is m*m really means that v is at c not one so created energy now remember the lobes are really one particle tracing the whole thing so count the lobe with the tracer also since particles go slower bacause the lobe is tracing length of sine wave then instead of c go c1 for electron c2 for proton etc. as in some other velocity variable NOW SOME OF THIS CAN BE SERIOUS ERRORS IF THEY CONTRADICT THE PAST DO NOT LISTEN IF THEY JUST CORRECT IT THEN LISTEN TO IT!!! now in the m*m is e to the m*m*v*v/(c*c) then ln(m*m) is v*v/(c*c-v*v) then 1/ln(m*m) is (c*c-v*v)/(v*v) then 1/((m*m)*ln(m*m)) is [sqr(c*c-v*v)]/(v*v) is 1/((m*m)*ln(m*m)) then go dmdm/dv will take the square out then in terms of v for f(v) and for h(m) d(m*m) then ln(ln(m*m))/2 is -(1/v) then 2*ln(ln(m)) is -(1/v) then there was a two in the dmdm/dv as in 2*m*dm/dv then the two is out the dm/dv is now also there is c*c/(v*v) then -c*c/v then the v is really units of c to put in v as c then a constant intregal effect because it is logical to say that at light speed the c-v goes to zero then c-(c*c/v) which is sqr(ln(m)) so when v is at infinite mass is e to the (e to the c-(c*c/v) now note something when v is at infinite mass is at e to the (e to the (c)) which is huge but finite!!! but only at the kozak maneuvers as in only when the maneuvers are such that m*m is e to the (m*m*v*v/(c*c) now in the m*m is e to the m*m*v*v/(c*c) go v*v/(c*c-v*v) is ln(m*m) then ln(c*c/(c*c-v*v)) is v*v/(c*c-v*v) then (c*c-v*v)/(c*c) is e to the -(v*v/(c*c-v*v)) then at v is light speed then e to the -infinite is zero and (c*c-v*v)/(c*c) is zero then at rest everything goes light speed!!! now one more thing in u/(1+u*u) is v by kozak theory then ln(1+u*u) is v*v then sqrt(-1 plus e to the v*v) also u can be negative for sqrt(1 minus e to the -v*v) this tells the velocity outside as opposed to inside in kozak maneuvers now mass finite at velocity is infinite thus the universe must be finite because inly a finite amount of mass is interacting if an infinite amount then the energy is infinite (k*q*q/r) and G(m*m)/r) if an infinite amount of those or an infinite number of each or both the boundaries of energy would be large see it is far from a particle then the kinetic turns to potential then that potential can turn right back!!! so finite number of fields and function mass to conclude finite universe!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now for the basic kozak equation go toward the origin then v becomes -v then dv/dx is -1 then sqr(m*x)/2 is positive then minus of minus c*c*sqrt(c*c-x*x)/c see v must be toward the origin where the asymtote is also the universe mass is going to stay constant even when at infinite as already proven even when universe is at infinite but the space is a form of mass just silent mass so the energy is a constant but at one time it was e to the c now it is e to the e to the c then when the next bang then probaably e to the (e to the c) etc. so maybe it will become infinite the bangs may get closer together in time!!! now when the waves move in paths of sine waves around particle that is moving the frequency when increasing will slow it down tangentially if amplitude does not decrease and by 1/x because light speed waves now higher frequency means slower particle tangentially but wave length smaller and amplitude smaller then faster particle tangentially in proportion now the amplitude is NOT the mass it is how big the particle swells or shrinks and the amplitude is huge constant times swelling or shrinking now is the mass smaller when particle shrinks the answer is NO the waves keep going light speed the radius is smaller then oh no the radius is smaller so mass is rc wait a minute well no worries the cylinders must move alot faster to get the waves to behave light speed at a smaller distance and ofcourse the waves shrink and the particle shrinks but when waves are light speed at smaller radius the cylinders move faster and they are closer now when mass creeps in then time also does so the frequency will act weird because of the time and this makes everything agree now about the basic kozak equation the intregal of cv/sqrt(c*c-v*v) dmv is intregal of m*v dmv then just for m*v go dv/dx x is -v then -[c*c*sqrt(c*c-v*v)]/c to intregal of -c*c/m is -[sqr(m*x)]/2 then c*c*ln(m) is [sqr(m*x)]/2 then both minuses cancel leaving c*c*ln(m) is m*m*x*x but that is really m*m*v*v then eventually m*m is e to the {[sqr(m*x)]/(c*c)} see this had to be done because it does NOT make sence to say integrated mass is decreasing when velocity is increasing as in look at the sqrt(c*c-v*v) a circle of radius c see you have to drag velocity x axis the other way or it will not add up also the mass of the universe is constant otherwise light speed would vary and space would be like the ether we all thought was conducting light but each bang creates more energy before it was 1/infinite then one then one times infinite also when mass is accelerating the acceleration is 1/m actual mass in that situation then momentum is liniar and energy is parabolic only in the kozak conditions now mass is finite and constant (counting space as flat undisturbed mass) then how is the mass and space increasing with expansion well it is NOT but simply redistributing or spreading out so both theories are correct when mass and space is just apreading dark matter and energy everything spreading now for mass is rc it is really rc/K where K is a huge constant so now mcc is rc times (c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) then m is r times (1/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) or r times (1/sqrt(c*c-c*dr*c*dr)) then r/(c) times (1/sqrt(1-dr*dr)) is m then c/r times sqrt(1-dr*dr) 1/m then c*c/(r*r) is 1-dr*dr is 1/(m*m) then 1- sqr(r*r/(m*m*c*c)) is drdr then r*r is -1 + e to the [1/(m*c*c)] then 1+r*r is e to the 1/(m*c*c) then ln(1+r*r) is 1/(m*c*c) then 1/(c*c*ln(1+r*r)) is m now the mass can be thought of as Km then (1/K)/(c*c*ln(1+r*r)) is actual m now the perpendicular can be treated seperate as in m*v*v/r is F then Fr/v*v then m is now (Fr/K)/(c*c**v*v*ln(1+r*r)) now how does acceleration work well go m*m is e to the sqr(m*v) then ln(m*m)/(m*m) is sqr(v) then sqr(ln(m*m))/2 is intregal sqr(v) d(m*m) then go 1/d(sqr(mv)) to get sqr(ln(m*m))/2 is sqr(dv)/d(sqr(mv)) see intregal for both v's is really a double intregal but mv is the derivative base for the whole equation see you cannot just pull a dx to get an intregal because you will get a cosntant ans you cannot integrate in terms of a constant!! also you cannot just pull any d function to get an automatic intregal it must be the right variable anyway then take the 2 out because you can taking the behavior of one of the bodies not both and so sqr(dv)/(d(sqr(dmv)) is c*c*sqr(ln(m)) then c*ln(m) is dv/(dmv) then dv/(dmv) is really dv/(dFt) then a /[(dF/dx)] is c*ln(m) then c*(df/dx)*ln(m) is acceleration now in the mass down to 1/infinity level of e to the t minus one then acceleration is 1/(e to the t) no one because acceleration jumps up to one when the force is applied because infinte mass is zero then then intregal is 1-(1/(e to the t)) then momentum is (z is e to the t) is [sqr(z-1)]/(z) then distance is t+z then what if I make the e into a 4 then [sqr(z-1)]/(z) is t but if t is 1/2 that is true and it is only true if energy is conserved at light speed which is related to the energy constant in the unviverse and affected by it also now why for will invert 1/2 to two step one is two units of s/infinite step two is four!!! this is all assuming that force and everything is one unit and and you are using whatever units now in energy the 1/2 of a second comes out -1/2 not to worry energy is lost by the body doing the action now one thing in light speed the time is faser effect because the unit is c not one also the end result is also multiplied by c for the same reason then if you do this it will come out as 1/(2c) so when a photon is accelerating it takes constant times 1/(2c) seconds!!! also below light speed is energy creation well the object giving the energy is gaining and photon is loosing and this happens everywhere at nucleus to electron orbital jump ahywhere where this needs to happen NOW THERE MAYBE ERRORS THROUGHOUT THIS WHOLE BLOG AS WELL AS THIS POST SO CORRECT THEM TO MAKE THIS ALL WORK now mv is the right variable because I integrated it initially using mv also the farther radius is mass times mass/(r*r) then a cancel to one and m*v*v/r then the increase mass and increase r is one thus m is r*c then c because c is the unit also to the electron the length shrinks thus a third the circle for example is one whole circle that is one third circumferance that is why the images of three in the circle equally spaced now remember the speed of a particle along its center is not light speed but less but in light speed then again twice 2mcc/2r again to one so r*c also K + r*c/L also charge to mass is C + m/B these are constants B and L are huge and K and C are good sized thus the equations are true but with all the constants also light has mass see hf is energy then hf/(c*c) is mass also if force is constant go F instead of df/dx for anything else go df/dx also go c*lnm is v then (c/m) dm is dv then (c/m) dmdm is dvdm then clnm is mv then v is [clnm]/m then the canceling of dmv makes c*sqr(lnm)/2 is v but energy is mvv is m*v*c*sqr(lnm)/2 but it is (1/2)*m*v*v the (1/2)'s cancel thus c*sqr(lnm) is v then d is F times d is m*v*v then m*v*c*sqr(lnm) all divided by force where force can be anything again it is F for constant and df/dx for everything else anyway that is distance NOW THESE THEORIES ARE MATHEMATICALLY SOUND BUT THEY MAY NOT PARALLEL THE EXPERIMENTS UNTIL CRAZY CONDITIONS BUT ALOT OF WORK COMES FROM WITHIN THE MIND FIRST!!! now in the equations for making relative intregals or derivatives then when factoring in or out a da then derive or integrate but if wanting to keep the equation the same only factor the da in or out (NOT necessarily respectively) and a means anything also all constants assumed to be positive except in certain cases also remember to factor in or out the correct variable!!! now what really happened in acceleration c*c*(df/dx)*lnm is I went dmdm for both sides then for one side I went sqr(dm/dmv) then in terms of sqr(mv)to get 1/(dvdv) then I went intregal in terms of (dv*dv) then I took one sqr(mv) out and the 1/dvdv to get a second then went from there to integrate in terms of dvdv/(dmvdmv) thus the eqaution is right then orcourse sqrt to dv/(dmv) is sqrt root of other side and since everything is under a d then you can do that with an intregal now in this acceleration the mass can be very small for a very big acceleration but you must go the kozak proccess of acceleration and it is possible it works for conventional acceleration processes as well but I there is an error like this remember to correct it and play it by ear and for any errors correct it!!! now in any conversion from sine wave to conventional expression especially by kozak functions only take into account the graph to the first maximum and first minimum after the origin to the right also in z is f(y,z) for example if wanting to change z in terms of modifying the kozak function then on z side if wanting to change f(y,z) then on f(y,z) side also in cosin(x-y) then in cosine x go z is cos(x) then dz/sqrt(1-z*z) is dxdx then (which means sqr(dx)) then dzdz/(1-z*z) is x*x then integrate both in terms of dzdz (in past equations it was not necessary to do this step because it was already there on that side and the function variable appeared on both sides preventing a constant) so -ln(1-z*z) is x*x*z*z then 1-z*z is e to the (-x*x*z*z) then kozak that to z*z is 1/(1+x*x) to x*x/(1+x*x) and do the same for partial derivative by y to get y*y/(1+y*y) then one subtracts as in cos(x)cos(y) minus sin(x)cos(y) plus cos(x)sin(y) minus sin(x)sin(y) then kozaked is also the terms result in the kozaked following [sqrt(x*x/(1+x*x))] plus [sqrt(y*y/(1+y*y))] (square root each fraction as already done first then add then square) but the plus is a minus because x-y not x plus y then the result is [2*sqr(x*y)]/(1+xy) then [xy is really x*y] the constants of cos(x)cos(x) all the terms will all have A*A then cos(x-y) is really where x is kx and y is wt then k is 2pi/L L is wavelength then w is 2pif f is frequency than they are equal but in typical waves the x-y is zero because you will go [x*x/(nj*nj+x*x)] plus [y*y/(nk*nk+y*y)] well the angles nj and nk are inverted are the invert of what the opponent is doing then they cancel but then you have A*B*C times [N*sqr(x*y*z)/(1+(xyz)] and more and this gives you the curve length (NOT the height)!!!!!!!!!! now the waves will be sine because they start at zero also when the function is zero if wanting a cosine just do the same exact thing because the square takes out the negative also remember some of these things can have glitches in them be sure to detech them and correct them also in the mass of photons the mass is harder to manipulate thus the energy exchange between kinetic and potential is less if more energy and the velocity squares for energy thus the area under a wave square more because more ampltude and more wavelength do the ones with the big mouth are the ones with little back up the ones with suttle mouths are the ones with huge back up!!!!!!!!!!!! thus nature has a way of counteracting now like I said I think I knocked out the glitches but be sure to correct any more now these xyz each can be any function each and different from each other and different period!!! also remember in the mass and acceleration heads when the 'a' is positive then it is 1/(coth(f(x))) because in the function the proof in the past and (1/2)*ln[(1-x)/(1+x)] but when negative the (1/2)*ln[(1+x)/(1-x)] then coth(f(x)) see how this works but this piece of information maybe lethal to past information with possible glitches between them so if it is then ignore this if not this is a helper information now I may have switched the signs around etc. all kinds of glitches so try sorting them out!!! now in the 1-z*z then z is zi or z square root of (-1) then when processed you loose the i's and take the positive in the xyz equations also in the coth(f(x)) equations the first fraction for coth is negatified on putpose otherwise you would be -(e to the x) so it works out now you cannot go x*x/(1+x*x) for length because the i would be there and any cross between two get's rid of the i's also remember any glitches I will try to correct but I cannot get them all now this equation can be for molecules instead of just single atoms and a complex nucleus etc. now the x's y's and z's have and canceled to one by the ni's nj's and nk's but this does NOT mean x y and z are ones!!!also in the ni's the i's that are with the n's are NOT the sqrt(-1) like I was just talking about so take out any additional glitches and I will keep trying also now the xyz function the none of these can be liniar and they must all be different from each other because if liniar the process will be zero times a constant and if two are the same again the process would be zero and if one all alone the i's will get you and the i's will get you in other cases as well also use all ideas in all inventions and use all ideas everywhere and the direct signal system is not for the function machine signal of function or invert of function use the curved waves as in sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx or whatever the waves are I could be off a little also in the coth fractions the x goes to zero then back to one and remember this could mess it up then just ignore but it could help thus glitches confrontations all this be sure to correct now if you just go [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] to the (2 to the v) then that is just a function and mass is right on the force when v goes faster but if [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] is a derivative as in d(ffff(x))/d(fff(x)) (which is really dz/dx where z equaled ffff(x) and now becomes f(x) and x becomes liniar) then (dfff(x))/(dff(x)) etc. then the derivative of force is out riding derivative of mass by a whole bunch of infinite's at infinite if v is faster but for this derivative situation you must go m*m equals e to the (m*m*v*v/(c*c)) also if the initial force is a huge K then mass is responding faster then mass get's a larger head start thus it works also in all cases e to the x*x is really e to the (x*x) so any other errors take out!!! now u is velocity and when going from dt is dt0*sqrt(1-u*u) to t is t0*(1+u*u)/sqrt(1-u*u) you integrate dt then the other way you go derivative of (intregal(t)) so in t you go t/(1+u*u) is t0/sqrt(1-u*u) then integrate (because in the following kozak equation to make constant liniar or liniar to parabolic etc. you integrate) to get t is arcsin(u)/(arctan(u)) where u is one at light speed then pi/2/(pi/4) or two so if increasing to light speed liniarly approaching then when crossing light speed the second is then in 2 as in the actual time is 2 seconds for every one now in 2u/(1+u*u) is v then kozaked is v*v is 2u(e to the -(v*v*u*u)) then integrate is -(1/(v*v))*(e to the -(v*v*u*u)) now this can integrate like this becuase set v to a constant it can be isolated as in v is function(v) then change the constant then thin the rectangles then mass is varied then you can do the intregal of the big equation and you do not have to do the intregal for mass the variance is already the intregal also go integrate the main equation on both sides in terms of u for both then [-(1/(v*v))*(e to the -(v*v*u*u))] is ln(1+u*u) then 1+u*u is e to the [-(1/(v*v))*(e to the -(v*v*u*u))] then when u is infinity and v is 2u/(1+u*u) then then this huge thing reduces to 1 then 1+u*u is one then u*u is zero then u is zero so when going an infinite number of c's you are back at zero!!! this means then universe is finite distance and finite mass see if u could go to infinite then you would go 1/sqrt(1-u*u) where 1 is infinite squared instead of c squared and that would be a different story!!! now in the t/(1-u*u) is t0/sqrt(1-u*u) the dt0/sqrt(1-u*u) is the standard so we make it the standard then 1-{2/[1+(e to the (2Karcsin(u))]} then if u is one that means light speed then that is the second!!! then if in between then punch it through this formula I got it by (1/2)*ln((1+u)/(1-u)) is arcsin(u) by integrating t0/sqrt(1-u*u) and t/(1-u*u) now the constant thing so make time the constant at a point see remember everything is relatively light speed!!! K is (t/t0)*(1/sqrt(1-u*u)) and 1/sqrt(1-x*x) is really 1/(sqrt(1-x*x)) so at light speed t/t0 is one!!! thus everything is light speed!!! also dmv is dmdv now dv/dmv is c*c*lnm then (1/m)*(dv/dv) is c*c*(lnm)*(lnm) is 1/dmdm then c*lnm is 1/dm then up a dm to c*lnm is v now all constants and negatives cancel conviently now for the equation before go d[ln[(1+u)/(1-u)]] is (t/t0)*2*arcsine(u)/sqrt(1-u*u) then go (t/t0)*sqr[du/d(arcsine(u)] for the former side and so intregal of d[ln[(1+u)/(1-u)]] is (t/t0)*sqr(darcsine(u)) then the manner that this is done creates [ln[(1+u)/(1-u)]]*d(1-u*u) is (t/t0)*sqr(darcsine(u)) then derive (d(1-u*u)/(1-u*u))/[2u/sqr(1-u*u)] is t/t0 then then (2u(1-u*u))/[2u/sqr(1-u*u)] is t/t0 then 1-u*u is t/t0 then the constants and negatives cancel conviently to get (u*u-1)/2 then dt/dt0 is m/m0 is u also p is mv now 0.5sqr(mcc) plus 0.5sqr(pc) is sqr(E) then sqrt0.5(sqr(mcc) plus 0.5sqr(pc))/0.5mcc is E/E0 (E is energy) now when canceling variables (2*c*c+2*v*v)/(c*c) then it turns out 4-sqr(E/E0) is 2*(c*c-v*v)/c but that is 2*m0/m but when going liniar to light appearently E needs only to be 2E0 to get it there and similiar proofs will say multiply the two when liniar is lower and divide when liniar is higher why well the area under the line is smaller with a quick trip then with a long trip!!! also now when particles move they move in circles or circular functions to stay light speed with respect to each other so in circle not deviate as in not collapse not explode also go arcsine(x) is sin(0) then sin(sin(0)) then dx/(sqrt(1-x*x)) is cos(0)d0 then dxdx/(1-x*x) is cos(0)*cos(0)d0d0 and now the x is only sin(0) the derivative multiplying made the first function not necessary and this only happens when the variables are seperate the whole time then -ln(1-x*x)/(1-x*x) is d0d0 then -sqr(ln(1-x*x)) is d0d0 then 1-x*x is e to the -d0d0 and do is feta then f and so cos(f) ends up equaling (1/2)*(e to the [(i*f)]) then the wave duplicates it's area to (1/2)*(e to the [(i*f)]) is cos(f) and you can go cos(icos0) and manipulate the constants and all constants cancel to all negatives cancel everything is convient thus cos(0) plus isin(0) is e to the i0 (i is sqrt(-1)) also remember the factors that all go into the particle when doing relativity!!! now in force is ma then f to the n is ma to the n then if mass is [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] to the n then acceleration is [-c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] to the n but the negative is corrected by the inverse relation in f/m is acceleration then all build the same but force is hand controled so force can outrun or tail the other two in rate of build only also so this simply proved builds are identical and force may be a little faster or slower also when trying to answer a question use the theories already given in this blog to answer them now use the power head in particle accelerator and container explosive use all ideas everywhere!!! now in the sphere of the cylinder the angle of wobble for the same field of any kind of field is always the same and the wobbles change together in the same angle at all times also in the particle if disk at an angle then a is the velocity along the length and b is velocity along the spiral then sqrt(a*a+b*b) is always c the speed of light also if the intregal of z is intregal of sqrt(r*r+(drdr/(d0d0))) then dzdz/(d0d0) is r*r + drdr/(d0d0) then dzdz is r*r*d0*d0 + dr*dr then z*z is [r*r plus intregal of r*r*d0*d0] then z is sqrt[r*r plus intregal of r*r*d0*d0] and so if r is one then (0 is feta) sqrt[r*r plus intregal of r*r*d0*d0] so if r is feta then 1+(0*0-1) or 0 which is accurate!!! the minus one was an integrated constant which is to be expected!!! now HUGE CORRECTION the m*m is e to the [m*m*v*v/(c*c)] then c*c*ln(m*m)/(m*m) is v*v then c*c*sqr(ln(m*m)) is intregal (v*v) d(m*m) is intregal of (v*v)/sqr(dvdm) because the sqr(1/dv) makes it go from intregal to derivative of the v*v or dvdv then the dmdm is all taken out then clnm is dv/(dmdv) (I sqrt everything) and all 2's canceled for one reason or another and this one reason or another is for anything including this then go divide by m on both sides and c*sqr(ln(m)) is (1/m)*(1/dm) but stop right there one side is integrated so the right side gives 1/(dmdm) to cancel two dm's to get intregal of 1 or v then c*sqr(ln(m)) is v so if v is e to the x where x is one to one liniar then c*sqr(ln(m)) is sqr(ln(v)) then sqrt(c) is b then b(ln(m)) is (ln(v)) then v is m to the sqrt(c) if the v in m*m is [e to the {m*m*v*v/(c*c)}] is e to the x and the whole equation builds but not the v*v alone also you do not need to make v have to go c (c is the unit but the division of c*c makes it easier by the unit being a regular unit) also mest at rest is m0 add that to the mix also if starting at zero then do not put m0 in the mix also c*ln(m) is dv/(dmdv) is a/(d(FT)) then c*df/(dx)*ln(m) or c*F*ln(m) then distance is c*sqr(ln(m)) is m*v*v then [m*v*c*sqr(ln(m))]/(F or df/dx) is distance so this should clear it up as in velocity/acceleration is time or (ln(m))/(F or df/(dx)) then time is infinite change if no force!!! and zero change if m is one or really rest mass is one!!! now the distance formula cannot be used for time or else distance traveled would be a key factor in time!!! also v/a is really d(d)/d(a) then then would be dt which is amount that time changes!!! now in the d(0*0) the 20d0 is equal to it so when going do two d0 to get a and then d(0*0) to get b then 2b is a and take this into account also in c*c*(ln(m)) is m*m*v*v/2 the first one is two intregals and the second is one well that is to be expected since in the first it is two variables and in the second it is only one variable now in 1/sqrt(c*c+v*v) (maybe raised to the nth) or anything like this all the e to the x builds are negative as in - e to the (-e to the x) etc. and negatifying it will only get the first build negatifying then positive for next then negative for next etc. and builds happen liniar but the rate is exponential etc. now in the intregal say v and then v/dv then go (1/2)*2v*dv/(dvdv) then (1/2)*1 and then the 1/2 is gone because the intregal is 1/2 the velocity integrated thus when going from v to v/dv then derive and when going opposite from v/dv to v or x to x dx where x is v/dv then integrate so this is now all proven now when the wave of frequency of particle as well as spiral is changed the angle rule of change applies to both as in spiral changes angle of direction same in amplitude to forward velocity also typically go d2x/(dxdx) but if originating from the derivative itself and not the function then just go d2x/dx!!! or really x dx then (1/2)*(dxdx) then 1/2 is gone by area again then dxdx then d(x*x) then integrate once and it integrates twice to x*x/2 but the 1/2 is gone also mass is really the change in angle of direction then if the angle of direction is slower responding then the velocity as in a very freqent spiral and wave then past light speed and energy is going in that much faster into the particle or body also use the v/d and x dx proofs to apply the thing proven anywhere now without fornce light slows down to zero by itself well light has no mass at rest so if it is the angle situation the angle is harder to change with climbing velocities but the angle is equally as hard to change either way but down is less hard either way and up is more hard either way but if it is a straight shot as in no angle then it plays simple as in force keeps energy no force no energy then it goes to zero so light is out of existance when the electron takes it's energy but forms light if giving energy or to another dimension under ours now one more thing in ubove light speed the angle is maxed out and not changing anymore so the behavior is back to square one remove force and it slows down but because of the lack of energy but when slowing down the angle springs right back into action as soon ans the force is removed so now the behavior gets weird as in the mass will increase but decelerate increase then to zero rate increase of decrease etc. then decrease of decrease because mass is now slowing down less and then the body or particle will start at square one with angle of direction or mass beginning and velocity at beginning also the angle of direction resisting change is mass see the mass paritcle has infinite number of cylinders and so has that gyroscopic manipulation on the direction of angle also when I talk of liniar build I mean f then ff then fff then ffff etc. but rate exponential as in f then ff then ffff then ffffffff etc. now in the x dx and v/dv take the liniar increase to add together then go triangle to increase of area then one square and a triangle then two squars and a triangle etc. then go constant one for triangle one and constant two for triangle two and square one etc. then decrease to change of x then make the squares and triangles such that it follows a function thus intregal of function of x for dx now for derivative the slopes then do the same thing to a function as the intregal except you are taking area to y instead of y to area etc. thus now the proofs extend from x dx and v/dv to any function!!! now in the particle wave amplitude then amplitude is direectly proportional to mass and in the spiral the moving thing with it is only experiencing the circle and in the waves the thing is only experiencing the amplitude then the mass and fields stay the same in the ship to the things moving with it also the fields stay the same because the mass is the same as in same v*v/r more mass more force and in the moving close to light speed or whatever it is harder to change direction by angle of direction which the rules hold for wave and spiral the same and straight line movement again the angle of direction but only for constant space in changing space the straight line is really a curve or a sine wave for periodic ocsillation for dimensions and this is because there when space changes the angle of direction changes because of mass change becuase mass is really angle of direction!!! now mass in a circle is c/(c*c-v*v) because c/vh horizontal and then multiplied on both sides is vh/c and this is even if the radius is infinite also mass is frequency squared because the particle is spinning that much faster and the acceleration is v*v/c then multiplied is c/(v*v) for both sides then mass must be a square to cancel it assuming radius is constant also in the spiral and wave although perpendicular the whole velocity must be light speed so they do effect each other and for all this apply all this to spiral and wave so twice the energy is twice mass as in m*c*c also the fields are that much larger to be consistant with energy!!! also vh/c is the traveling velocity horizontal and the vertical I just called v but it is really vv and you can switch the two around etc. so proportional to amplitude becuase mass is rc and proportional to frequency squared then direct proportion to traveling velocity as in general direction is traveling velocity!!! also assuming the radius is one as well!!! THE FOLLOWING IS ONLY OPTIONS!!! now remember the initial current to induced current is inner coil to outer coil and delay time is 1/trillionth of a second and the wave time is 1/300th of a second for all pulsers and power steppers and for capacitor one way with diodes and resisters is wave and other way with diodes is delay time and you can use a capacitor for each inner coil and solve for t like in the derivative circuit and you can do like in the derivative circuit for capacitors and the capaictor signals the larger currents also you can use right before inner coil and right after outer coil or other points like I said in the past etc. and for freezers same things and the beginning is unit current and end is large current also go dt then signal and insulate off of beginning current and signal end current and same for freeze and beginning is sourse before first simple or trick rectifier of powerstepper or pulser and end is after last and all this is ONLY OPTIONS!!! also remember cylinders are one unit of infinite times speed of light to each other and absolute value and close on the circle is relatively faster do to tangent vectors thus same relative speed but to closer ones time must change for all situations as well as this one also remember it is really one doing all the tracing to make the others also if one goes past light speed creation chain reaction and universe explodes blow universe collapses and this explains the whole and all string theories!!! also what about a wave or particle with respect to a cylinder well that never happens cylinders to cylinders and waves and particles to waves and particles also the time is infinite to two adjacent cylinders and to other cylinders again time changes and for waves and particles time changes also in any curve sine circle any curve remember the tangents behave this way and the relative straight speed is 1/infinite but in the straight line the relative straight speed is infinite/infinite or finite by the radius also the created energy or destroyed energy by relative explains all string theories!!! now wait the particle accelerator creates energy won't that blow up the universe??? no because the particle accelerator cannot create energy without increasing absolute value of velocity as well as relative see the absolute will absorb the energy but in relative changing without absolute changing then there is a chain reaction and same with collapsing and particle accelerator can decelerate as well as accelerate also 'a' factor is similiar in properties to light speed also past light speed or the 'a' factor in certain ways will mess with dimensions as well!!! also as well time!!! which is really just another dimension!!! now when I said d(sec(x)*sec(x) minus one)/dx is sec(x) I really ment d(sqrt(sec(x)*sec(x) minus one))/dx is sec(x)*sec(x) then note sec(x)*sec(x) is derivatvie of tan(x) etc. now when the 'a' factor is below light speed creation or distruction of energy is counteracted when above creation or distruction permenant and when at light speed creation is distruction and distruction is crration and time is messed with!!! now light is in discrete increments of frequency on the spectrum of actual possible light and particles same thing in frequency and velocity and mass for light and particles because the energy levels in an atom with definite radius and mass is discrete then make radius small and mass small then same thing with the similar energies mass velocities and frequencies etc. then make radius infinite and mass 1/infinite then same thing with just similar stuff!!! now the frequency and amplitude are limited because the energy levels are how high is limited and how low and how high because of escaping the field permanently and this all involves frequency amplitude mass velocity mass energy etc.!!! now in light for velocity in energy levels it only has two velocities c and zero also the max and min levels and number of levels and each factor (like velocity etc.)are controlled by barrier constants and wave numbers and other things I have ever mentioned!!! now the f in coth(f) is NOT force it is a liniar one to one variable and the x in the ln's is NOT the x in coth(x) and the x in coth(f) is the x in coth(x) now builds always take finite time and independent of what heads do as in aL's are the heads in the force mass and acceleration and when switching it goes between coth(f) and tanh(f) then ofcourse f(x) is treated like the x in tanh(x) and coth(x) and in the universe go A is zero B is one c is infinite etc. then the energy levels of the expanding universe like an atom might go higher then Z!!! first stage A next B next C etc. to passed Z!!! so the universe acts like a giant atom with energy levels different and much larger levels!!! now remember the particles' hologram tracers to make all other copy cylinders etc. are the cycloid wave followers now in the d0/dx is d(x)/(1+x*x) then d(x*x)/(1+x*x) is d0 then 0+1 is ln(1+x*x) then x*x is e to the 0 then e to the 0/2 is x then the kozak equation is when integrating and kozaking then the tan(0) becomes exponential in the spiral and parallel wave then feta is 0 and feta changes to tangent from angular to exponential like in kozak equation when integrating but tan(0) is (0 can mean zero or feta) the behavior of spiral and waves!!! now in the v is 2u/(1+u*u) I really ment v*v is 2u/(1+u*u) or where I said v*v I really ment v also the axis of wobble can change angle and when it does the angle of wobble changes in such a way that the syncrony between the two still happens by gyroscopic forces and this is only between two cylinders with the original angle of wobble the same I mean the atom can rotate so that changes axis angle right there and there are plenty of other errors to find!!! now in the mv dmv if treating it as two variables then two intregals if treating as one then one intregal because in one case it is area to volume and in the other line to area and the line equals the area also in the barrier theory if going e to the x and e to he y*y then the process squares the y then square it but if e to the x*x and e to he y*y then the effect is canceled and you just have e to the y now again surf out the errors also the 2u/(1+u*u) the 2u is simply treated like a changing constant and you are really dealing with 1/(1+u*u) when kozaking it also in some cases I may have said m is e to the m*m*v*v/(c*c) I really ment m*m is e to the [m*m*v*v/(c*c)] so surf out the errors now dark energy is the energy of c*infinite fast cylinders and dark matter is the build up of them with no waves and perfect sphere where they attract all the time then dark matter is weaker in actual attract or repel value but constant attraction verses instantenous periodic so dark matter is dangerous!!! now say the cylinder is in three places at once then logically it is going c*infinite fast now spin when relative slows down then more mass remember the compensation mass velocity equation and attract merge encourages spin also the space minus mass of universe constant for past reasons also (2Tt)-1 is velocity and distance is intregal or (2Tt)-t 2 is the nature standard not e like in math so d/v is t the only way this can happen is when t is one so t is constant one to one liniar and find the errors in past present and future now in the 1/r and 1/(r*r) and then negative with x dx -x and -dx of both with F*D where D is r follows the same pattern as sin(0) and cos(0) and negative of both also the missile guidance can be time reaches a certain amount or x,y,z,u,w, etc. reaches a certain amount each or both also the direct signal system signals the straight currents as in which ones and does this by derivatives now v is 2u/(1+u*u) then derivative is (1-u*u)/[sqr(1+u*u)] then du/dv is [sqr(1+u*u)]/(1-u*u) then (1+u*u)/(1-u*u) is (du/dv)[1/(1+u*u)] then intregal is arctan(u) is intregal of (1+u*u)/(1-u*u) dv then dv/du is (1-u*u)/[sqr(1+u*u)] then arctan(u) is intregal of 1/(1+u*u) du then arctan(u) is arctan(u) then u is u then v at all times in mathematics anywhere is 2u/(1+u*u)!!! now du is df/dm then at zero v is zero at 1 v is one thus agreement thus stay at one but the unit is c!!! now if df/dm is negative one that means the force out does mass by a difference equal to the mass to infinite!!! now notice this could be any point where 'a' becomes negative to get more v to create energy also in 'a' is negative past an asymtote then that is another way to create infinite energy but then what happens is infinite energy does not only happen at a point anymore like it did but throughout the whole time between df/dm is zero and df/dm is negative one since all it does is increase!!! also f/m or u must be velocity now energy is m*c*c but in the infinite zone it becomes m*sqr(c*infinite) as in the cylinder effect also remember the cone of the sister fields is infinite long taking out one r to 1(r*r) to 1/r also in the creation zone the energy is greater then m*c*c in the destruction zone the energy is less then m*c*c in conserve it is m*c*c also use all inventions everywhere now in FF(x) is x etc. then the derivative is FdF(x) or dFF(x) then you are doing the whole thing no matter what then IIff(x) every time you integrate you are doing the whole thing likewise and f(x) is dF(x) in (F(x)) to the x (x is 2) is II(csc(csc(x))) etc. then the life particle is the particle that makes one conscious and aware with free will and natural intelligence and even artificial intelligence now the particle goes [(1+sin(2*pi*x))*(tan(2*pi*x))] all to the x then the intregals cause sensory input the infinite from zero causes free will and the function of function causes decision and intelligence and sensory meaning emotions as well as in all cuases all and the particle is x to infinite to zero to infinite to zero to infinite etc. in a sine wave fashion and the cycle is responsible for things also now the infinite in the csc(x) also for decision all together makes life and the more organized the particles are the more the life and all of it is needed!!! so do not hit a wall the wall can feel it by a quantity/infinite amount!!! and for use the infinite is met becuase organized infinitely perfect!!! now if taking away from organzize then a smaller infinite number etc.