Wednesday, April 29, 2015

NEW RELATIVITY THEORIES AND OTHER THINGS

now in the 1-1/H the hopetenuse the time is really the one and the time is squared becuse inside a radical then integrated is time minus hypotenuse thus the same behavior in capacitance or very similiar anyway now take the kozak equation m*m is e to the (2*m*m*v*v/(c*c)) the two is becuase I am talking of two objects going toward each other also v must be integrated I'll get to that anyway then dv*dv is [c*c*ln(m*m)]/(2*m*m) then intregal of dv*dv dm*dm is c*c*sqr[ln(m*m)]/4 then intregal of dv*dv dm*dm is just v*v becuase the d(m*v) is in terms of mass and in terms of v which ever order so then I derived in terms of v then the m*v deal hooked up the m so all you got is the v's as in go dv/(dm*dv) then the dm is dv/dv then one then your integration to v now this can be done because one side is m and other side is dv*dm or (m*v) where v is integrated already so go in terms of dm but then go square for both sides one side do other side do and hence we have [c*(ln(m*m))] is 2v then m*m is e to the (2v/c) and so m is e to the (v/c) now v is Va plus Vb plus X so e to the [(Va plus Vb plus X)/(c)] then mass multiplies because if you increase a velocity by x and it is twice the mass imagine now you are accelerating two objects then four well then mass will multiply by e to the velocity difference or e to the X then then X is eliminated and it stays as Va plus Vb see mass did all the work so to keep energy from going haywire and creating itself velocity must give up the X also why not velocity give up to mass instead well energy is m*c*c for internal non kinetic energy so mass must get all the accomedations also remember in the mass is e to the v/c then if the velocity is way below light speed then only part of the X get's attacked but at light speed 100 percent get's attacked here's why the X/c exponent says for a velocity X pay attention to X/c not X!!! so that is why one object closer faster then other obect toward approaching third object third oject coming toward them sees the difference differently now in the atom the engolfing particles axis in all three x,y,z dimension angle degrees each degree can be anything for each particle also in the mass is e to the v everyone must be f(v) then f(f(v)) then f(f(f(f(v)))) where f(v) is e to the v etc. and v must be increasing as the asymtote in the case f(v) then f(f(v)) then f(f(f(f(v)))) f(v) is e to the v and v is liniar then the asymtote is liniar c per time and so if v is one to one liniar you can make overall v say parabolic by g(v) is parabolic then that is the asymtote and in energy creation and distruction the distruction goes 1/E and creation goes E because the A in the A factor theories is 1/function is 1/g(v) in distruction then in creation go function then g(v) and this is all 1/[m*g(v)*g(v)] in distruction below light speed and above it is m*g(v)*g(v) where g(v) can be c or any function and E is function now at c the asymtote is one neither created or destroyed in m*g(v)*g(v) divided by m*g(v)*g(v) and this is for any v and any g(v) so f(f(f(g(g(g(v)))))) BUT THIS WILL APPROACH AN ASYMTOTE THAT IS INCREASING PARBOLIC THEN BY V TO THE FOURTH THEN SIXTH THEN EIGHT ETC. SO FOR A PARABOLIC JUST GO f(f(f(g(v)))) NOW i TRIED TO CORRECT THE ERRORS IN THIS POST OR LETTER AND THIS INFORMATION IS SUPPOSE TO HELP JUST COMDINED THIS INFORMATION WITH PAST INFORMATION AND WEIGH IT OUT BUT THERE IS POSSIBLY SOME ERRORS IN THIS LETTER OR POST SO IF SOME OR ALL OF THIS STUFF CONTRADICTS PAST INFORMATION DO NOT LISTEN TO IT!!!!!!!!!!!! now say Y is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then velocity would be v/Y then acceleration is a*(Y to the 1.5) then go m/Y times a/Y is f*Y f is force m is mass a is acceleration then m*a/(Y*Y) is f*Y then to match up the treatment divide by Y*Y in force as was m*a then f/Y now kozak of x/Y is x*x is e to the (x*x*v*v/(c*c)) now remember if going e to the x*x*v*v then c is the unit not one so the little v is turned into a multiple of the speed of light of f(v) is really f(c*L)!!! also remember acceleration get's huge so time required to reach a given velocity is remarkably small so the whole thing is in a flash!!! now in the z is (x+y)/(1+(x*y)) the x+y in the kozak theory is always c then c is a unit so go 1/(1+(x*y)) then that is kozaked to z is e to the -(x*y*z) then v is x*y then tan(v) is z then dzdz/(1+z*z) is dzdv then then ln(1+z*z) is zv then 1+z*z is zv then tangent squared is sqr(tan(v)) then plus one is sqr(sec(v)) then invert and square root to get to the other z is cos(x*y) the invert is because one exponent is negative also when converting from conventional to angular like in a trigonometry function the inside of the function always go times 2*pi also e to the m*m*v*v is m*m really means that v is at c not one so created energy now remember the lobes are really one particle tracing the whole thing so count the lobe with the tracer also since particles go slower bacause the lobe is tracing length of sine wave then instead of c go c1 for electron c2 for proton etc. as in some other velocity variable NOW SOME OF THIS CAN BE SERIOUS ERRORS IF THEY CONTRADICT THE PAST DO NOT LISTEN IF THEY JUST CORRECT IT THEN LISTEN TO IT!!! now in the m*m is e to the m*m*v*v/(c*c) then ln(m*m) is v*v/(c*c-v*v) then 1/ln(m*m) is (c*c-v*v)/(v*v) then 1/((m*m)*ln(m*m)) is [sqr(c*c-v*v)]/(v*v) is 1/((m*m)*ln(m*m)) then go dmdm/dv will take the square out then in terms of v for f(v) and for h(m) d(m*m) then ln(ln(m*m))/2 is -(1/v) then 2*ln(ln(m)) is -(1/v) then there was a two in the dmdm/dv as in 2*m*dm/dv then the two is out the dm/dv is now also there is c*c/(v*v) then -c*c/v then the v is really units of c to put in v as c then a constant intregal effect because it is logical to say that at light speed the c-v goes to zero then c-(c*c/v) which is sqr(ln(m)) so when v is at infinite mass is e to the (e to the c-(c*c/v) now note something when v is at infinite mass is at e to the (e to the (c)) which is huge but finite!!! but only at the kozak maneuvers as in only when the maneuvers are such that m*m is e to the (m*m*v*v/(c*c) now in the m*m is e to the m*m*v*v/(c*c) go v*v/(c*c-v*v) is ln(m*m) then ln(c*c/(c*c-v*v)) is v*v/(c*c-v*v) then (c*c-v*v)/(c*c) is e to the -(v*v/(c*c-v*v)) then at v is light speed then e to the -infinite is zero and (c*c-v*v)/(c*c) is zero then at rest everything goes light speed!!! now one more thing in u/(1+u*u) is v by kozak theory then ln(1+u*u) is v*v then sqrt(-1 plus e to the v*v) also u can be negative for sqrt(1 minus e to the -v*v) this tells the velocity outside as opposed to inside in kozak maneuvers now mass finite at velocity is infinite thus the universe must be finite because inly a finite amount of mass is interacting if an infinite amount then the energy is infinite (k*q*q/r) and G(m*m)/r) if an infinite amount of those or an infinite number of each or both the boundaries of energy would be large see it is far from a particle then the kinetic turns to potential then that potential can turn right back!!! so finite number of fields and function mass to conclude finite universe!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now for the basic kozak equation go toward the origin then v becomes -v then dv/dx is -1 then sqr(m*x)/2 is positive then minus of minus c*c*sqrt(c*c-x*x)/c see v must be toward the origin where the asymtote is also the universe mass is going to stay constant even when at infinite as already proven even when universe is at infinite but the space is a form of mass just silent mass so the energy is a constant but at one time it was e to the c now it is e to the e to the c then when the next bang then probaably e to the (e to the c) etc. so maybe it will become infinite the bangs may get closer together in time!!! now when the waves move in paths of sine waves around particle that is moving the frequency when increasing will slow it down tangentially if amplitude does not decrease and by 1/x because light speed waves now higher frequency means slower particle tangentially but wave length smaller and amplitude smaller then faster particle tangentially in proportion now the amplitude is NOT the mass it is how big the particle swells or shrinks and the amplitude is huge constant times swelling or shrinking now is the mass smaller when particle shrinks the answer is NO the waves keep going light speed the radius is smaller then oh no the radius is smaller so mass is rc wait a minute well no worries the cylinders must move alot faster to get the waves to behave light speed at a smaller distance and ofcourse the waves shrink and the particle shrinks but when waves are light speed at smaller radius the cylinders move faster and they are closer now when mass creeps in then time also does so the frequency will act weird because of the time and this makes everything agree now about the basic kozak equation the intregal of cv/sqrt(c*c-v*v) dmv is intregal of m*v dmv then just for m*v go dv/dx x is -v then -[c*c*sqrt(c*c-v*v)]/c to intregal of -c*c/m is -[sqr(m*x)]/2 then c*c*ln(m) is [sqr(m*x)]/2 then both minuses cancel leaving c*c*ln(m) is m*m*x*x but that is really m*m*v*v then eventually m*m is e to the {[sqr(m*x)]/(c*c)} see this had to be done because it does NOT make sence to say integrated mass is decreasing when velocity is increasing as in look at the sqrt(c*c-v*v) a circle of radius c see you have to drag velocity x axis the other way or it will not add up also the mass of the universe is constant otherwise light speed would vary and space would be like the ether we all thought was conducting light but each bang creates more energy before it was 1/infinite then one then one times infinite also when mass is accelerating the acceleration is 1/m actual mass in that situation then momentum is liniar and energy is parabolic only in the kozak conditions now mass is finite and constant (counting space as flat undisturbed mass) then how is the mass and space increasing with expansion well it is NOT but simply redistributing or spreading out so both theories are correct when mass and space is just apreading dark matter and energy everything spreading now for mass is rc it is really rc/K where K is a huge constant so now mcc is rc times (c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) then m is r times (1/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) or r times (1/sqrt(c*c-c*dr*c*dr)) then r/(c) times (1/sqrt(1-dr*dr)) is m then c/r times sqrt(1-dr*dr) 1/m then c*c/(r*r) is 1-dr*dr is 1/(m*m) then 1- sqr(r*r/(m*m*c*c)) is drdr then r*r is -1 + e to the [1/(m*c*c)] then 1+r*r is e to the 1/(m*c*c) then ln(1+r*r) is 1/(m*c*c) then 1/(c*c*ln(1+r*r)) is m now the mass can be thought of as Km then (1/K)/(c*c*ln(1+r*r)) is actual m now the perpendicular can be treated seperate as in m*v*v/r is F then Fr/v*v then m is now (Fr/K)/(c*c**v*v*ln(1+r*r)) now how does acceleration work well go m*m is e to the sqr(m*v) then ln(m*m)/(m*m) is sqr(v) then sqr(ln(m*m))/2 is intregal sqr(v) d(m*m) then go 1/d(sqr(mv)) to get sqr(ln(m*m))/2 is sqr(dv)/d(sqr(mv)) see intregal for both v's is really a double intregal but mv is the derivative base for the whole equation see you cannot just pull a dx to get an intregal because you will get a cosntant ans you cannot integrate in terms of a constant!! also you cannot just pull any d function to get an automatic intregal it must be the right variable anyway then take the 2 out because you can taking the behavior of one of the bodies not both and so sqr(dv)/(d(sqr(dmv)) is c*c*sqr(ln(m)) then c*ln(m) is dv/(dmv) then dv/(dmv) is really dv/(dFt) then a /[(dF/dx)] is c*ln(m) then c*(df/dx)*ln(m) is acceleration now in the mass down to 1/infinity level of e to the t minus one then acceleration is 1/(e to the t) no one because acceleration jumps up to one when the force is applied because infinte mass is zero then then intregal is 1-(1/(e to the t)) then momentum is (z is e to the t) is [sqr(z-1)]/(z) then distance is t+z then what if I make the e into a 4 then [sqr(z-1)]/(z) is t but if t is 1/2 that is true and it is only true if energy is conserved at light speed which is related to the energy constant in the unviverse and affected by it also now why for will invert 1/2 to two step one is two units of s/infinite step two is four!!! this is all assuming that force and everything is one unit and and you are using whatever units now in energy the 1/2 of a second comes out -1/2 not to worry energy is lost by the body doing the action now one thing in light speed the time is faser effect because the unit is c not one also the end result is also multiplied by c for the same reason then if you do this it will come out as 1/(2c) so when a photon is accelerating it takes constant times 1/(2c) seconds!!! also below light speed is energy creation well the object giving the energy is gaining and photon is loosing and this happens everywhere at nucleus to electron orbital jump ahywhere where this needs to happen NOW THERE MAYBE ERRORS THROUGHOUT THIS WHOLE BLOG AS WELL AS THIS POST SO CORRECT THEM TO MAKE THIS ALL WORK now mv is the right variable because I integrated it initially using mv also the farther radius is mass times mass/(r*r) then a cancel to one and m*v*v/r then the increase mass and increase r is one thus m is r*c then c because c is the unit also to the electron the length shrinks thus a third the circle for example is one whole circle that is one third circumferance that is why the images of three in the circle equally spaced now remember the speed of a particle along its center is not light speed but less but in light speed then again twice 2mcc/2r again to one so r*c also K + r*c/L also charge to mass is C + m/B these are constants B and L are huge and K and C are good sized thus the equations are true but with all the constants also light has mass see hf is energy then hf/(c*c) is mass also if force is constant go F instead of df/dx for anything else go df/dx also go c*lnm is v then (c/m) dm is dv then (c/m) dmdm is dvdm then clnm is mv then v is [clnm]/m then the canceling of dmv makes c*sqr(lnm)/2 is v but energy is mvv is m*v*c*sqr(lnm)/2 but it is (1/2)*m*v*v the (1/2)'s cancel thus c*sqr(lnm) is v then d is F times d is m*v*v then m*v*c*sqr(lnm) all divided by force where force can be anything again it is F for constant and df/dx for everything else anyway that is distance NOW THESE THEORIES ARE MATHEMATICALLY SOUND BUT THEY MAY NOT PARALLEL THE EXPERIMENTS UNTIL CRAZY CONDITIONS BUT ALOT OF WORK COMES FROM WITHIN THE MIND FIRST!!! now in the equations for making relative intregals or derivatives then when factoring in or out a da then derive or integrate but if wanting to keep the equation the same only factor the da in or out (NOT necessarily respectively) and a means anything also all constants assumed to be positive except in certain cases also remember to factor in or out the correct variable!!! now what really happened in acceleration c*c*(df/dx)*lnm is I went dmdm for both sides then for one side I went sqr(dm/dmv) then in terms of sqr(mv)to get 1/(dvdv) then I went intregal in terms of (dv*dv) then I took one sqr(mv) out and the 1/dvdv to get a second then went from there to integrate in terms of dvdv/(dmvdmv) thus the eqaution is right then orcourse sqrt to dv/(dmv) is sqrt root of other side and since everything is under a d then you can do that with an intregal now in this acceleration the mass can be very small for a very big acceleration but you must go the kozak proccess of acceleration and it is possible it works for conventional acceleration processes as well but I there is an error like this remember to correct it and play it by ear and for any errors correct it!!! now in any conversion from sine wave to conventional expression especially by kozak functions only take into account the graph to the first maximum and first minimum after the origin to the right also in z is f(y,z) for example if wanting to change z in terms of modifying the kozak function then on z side if wanting to change f(y,z) then on f(y,z) side also in cosin(x-y) then in cosine x go z is cos(x) then dz/sqrt(1-z*z) is dxdx then (which means sqr(dx)) then dzdz/(1-z*z) is x*x then integrate both in terms of dzdz (in past equations it was not necessary to do this step because it was already there on that side and the function variable appeared on both sides preventing a constant) so -ln(1-z*z) is x*x*z*z then 1-z*z is e to the (-x*x*z*z) then kozak that to z*z is 1/(1+x*x) to x*x/(1+x*x) and do the same for partial derivative by y to get y*y/(1+y*y) then one subtracts as in cos(x)cos(y) minus sin(x)cos(y) plus cos(x)sin(y) minus sin(x)sin(y) then kozaked is also the terms result in the kozaked following [sqrt(x*x/(1+x*x))] plus [sqrt(y*y/(1+y*y))] (square root each fraction as already done first then add then square) but the plus is a minus because x-y not x plus y then the result is [2*sqr(x*y)]/(1+xy) then [xy is really x*y] the constants of cos(x)cos(x) all the terms will all have A*A then cos(x-y) is really where x is kx and y is wt then k is 2pi/L L is wavelength then w is 2pif f is frequency than they are equal but in typical waves the x-y is zero because you will go [x*x/(nj*nj+x*x)] plus [y*y/(nk*nk+y*y)] well the angles nj and nk are inverted are the invert of what the opponent is doing then they cancel but then you have A*B*C times [N*sqr(x*y*z)/(1+(xyz)] and more and this gives you the curve length (NOT the height)!!!!!!!!!! now the waves will be sine because they start at zero also when the function is zero if wanting a cosine just do the same exact thing because the square takes out the negative also remember some of these things can have glitches in them be sure to detech them and correct them also in the mass of photons the mass is harder to manipulate thus the energy exchange between kinetic and potential is less if more energy and the velocity squares for energy thus the area under a wave square more because more ampltude and more wavelength do the ones with the big mouth are the ones with little back up the ones with suttle mouths are the ones with huge back up!!!!!!!!!!!! thus nature has a way of counteracting now like I said I think I knocked out the glitches but be sure to correct any more now these xyz each can be any function each and different from each other and different period!!! also remember in the mass and acceleration heads when the 'a' is positive then it is 1/(coth(f(x))) because in the function the proof in the past and (1/2)*ln[(1-x)/(1+x)] but when negative the (1/2)*ln[(1+x)/(1-x)] then coth(f(x)) see how this works but this piece of information maybe lethal to past information with possible glitches between them so if it is then ignore this if not this is a helper information now I may have switched the signs around etc. all kinds of glitches so try sorting them out!!! now in the 1-z*z then z is zi or z square root of (-1) then when processed you loose the i's and take the positive in the xyz equations also in the coth(f(x)) equations the first fraction for coth is negatified on putpose otherwise you would be -(e to the x) so it works out now you cannot go x*x/(1+x*x) for length because the i would be there and any cross between two get's rid of the i's also remember any glitches I will try to correct but I cannot get them all now this equation can be for molecules instead of just single atoms and a complex nucleus etc. now the x's y's and z's have and canceled to one by the ni's nj's and nk's but this does NOT mean x y and z are ones!!!also in the ni's the i's that are with the n's are NOT the sqrt(-1) like I was just talking about so take out any additional glitches and I will keep trying also now the xyz function the none of these can be liniar and they must all be different from each other because if liniar the process will be zero times a constant and if two are the same again the process would be zero and if one all alone the i's will get you and the i's will get you in other cases as well also use all ideas in all inventions and use all ideas everywhere and the direct signal system is not for the function machine signal of function or invert of function use the curved waves as in sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx or whatever the waves are I could be off a little also in the coth fractions the x goes to zero then back to one and remember this could mess it up then just ignore but it could help thus glitches confrontations all this be sure to correct

Tuesday, January 20, 2015

LIGHT THEORIES AND OTHER THINGS

now the reason for c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is the pythagorean theorum of spiral vector adding to get light speed now for 1/d in passive magnets they go sin(1/d)*sin(1/d) the wavelength decreases and amplitude decrease for a square increase in frequency and because less circle room and amplitude will decrease with wavelength in these cases then sin(d*d/d)*sin(d*d/d) then sin(d)*sin(d) now if passive plates go 1/(d*d) then the effect is more to get sin(d*d*d/d*d)*sin(d*d*d/d*d) to get sin(d)*sin(d) then if going 4 then sin(2d)*sin(2d) then go 1/cx now why is stuff going light speed to zero velocity that is because of time space cappacitance theorum now for light the velocity back and forth lobes the traveling velocity of the photon and the added vector velocity all are the same light speed to zero and to each other then it goes c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then the total effect is c*arcsin(v/c) c is one unit then arcsin(v) then invert the function because you are getting the variable v thus a sine wave and if one the slope is pi/2 by arcsin(v) then now light triangle system at an instant hypotenuse and both legs all going light speed with respect to each other and to zero velocity now remove light on the sides and the light in the middle scatters becuase in relativity the triangle relativity has to reajust requiring light to move away now in laser the photon one is ahead of photon two causing speed to be light speed difference in the sine waves also when legs increase as in frequncy decrease and amplitude increase the whole thing is decrease because light speed and time capacitance amplitude twice frequency half energy half because of again time space capacitance now they pass through because the light speed requirement is they do not hit each other requireing zero velocity relative for that to happen now in the amplitude that in other words increases when frquency decreases as 1/x x is liniar now light slows down in a medium because atoms resist it and curve it like an atractive charge bending and slowing down the other charged particles but it speeds up again for relativity reasons now in a blackhole does light slow down then come back in free space like a ball bouncing or the light is at zero velocity well ofcourse not see the matter must be such that the light slows down by the atoms and total internal reflection so if the matter is like that something is keeping it from caving in well things want to go light speed so the particles and everything are light speed but in orbit around the blackhole also what is the deal with gravity in a blackhole how about all the fields are acting on it also the touch theory says that the barriers will break with extreme push and when past it the barrier cannot help it anymore to it caves in also why doesn't light attract with it's elecromagnetic properties well in relativity if that happened light would not always go light speed and it wants light speed now one more thing in the absolute zero when I proved v had to be c I was proving that it is light speed to absolute zero and then also light speed with respect to each other by rope theories and space capacitance and the vary theory that proves light speed to absolute zero also proves light speed with respect to each other now if really far away the angle says it is zero so virtually no relativity effect now why do waves or lobes travel same speed angularly but particles and cylinders travel same speed tangentially well the lobes or waves are determined by the behavior of cylinders or particles whereas the particles or cylinders themselves have there own behavior so the lobes or waves are not independent tangentially but the angular rate still determines the relative for everything and tangential rate still determines the relative for everything now in U/r as energy the mass would be rc how??? well go (R-r)/(R*r) then R is one then (1-r)/(r) then dr/(r) then intregal of v/k to r/k since r is also a constant but 1/k is c!!! so then rc then if at an angle then horizontal has x and vertical has y and sqrt(x*x plus y*y) is c also if repel then (r-1)/(r) etc. now in the light the mass is x/infinity because the light is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or c/zero then finite energy then cx and when v is less then c it has no energy!!! but in the kozak it will be m*m is e to the [(m*m*v*v)/(c*c)] then m*m is e to the (m*m) is for light and m*m is e to the (0.25m*m) is v is a half light speed so light infact has mass but v is always c now how is mass of light constant well m*m is e to the (m*m) then m must be infinity but mass is 1/infinity then times infinity to get cx then it has mass finite below above or at light speed!!! but it does not want to loose or gain mass to cheat energy so it stays at light speed regardless of force so force is more like to frequency and amplitude but other things go below well they have x mass to begin with!!! see light is x/infinity mass to begin with to prevent infinite energy!!! now in a powerhead all things including simple or trick rectifiers point clockwise or counterclockwise now for m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) the intregal is M is arcsin(v) with c as the unit then M is total mass under the tracer of the cylinder which is constant then arcsin(M) is one anything else would be messing with energy so M is sin(v) is one then derive to get dM/dv is cos(v) to get zero then the direction is pi/2 angle then the intregal is also the intregal along the middle axis which is one since v T and M are one T is along the middle axis in the central then that is why you get a cylinder and MR*R is one for moment of inertia I for (0.5)(I)(w*w) then energy is constant then one or energy is being messed with so hence a hollow cylinder also in mass when moving at light speed it is fine but higher or lower then at lower the m*v*v/r is 1/(r*r) is m*v*v*r is one then r*v is m them m*m*v is one m*m is ofcourse by c*c/(c*c-v*v) but c*c*v/(c*c-v*v) is m*m*v then intregal is 2*c*c(-ln(c*c-v*v)) is e to the -M/(4*c*c) is directly proportional to v so then v switch because it is really m*v*v then v increases M exponentially also the is two negatives to cancel each negative so take absolute value M is e to the v/(4*c*c) also then M is m squared but it is really m when inverting the function to get m is e to the v/(4*c*c) then 2c becomes the unit c is unit but this is in angle that is repectively 1/2 between particle and center then m is e to the v thus the exponential now when I say you can mess with energy I mean the conditions half to be right to create energy now in the regular power converter the nth branch has an insulated derivative switch that is simple rectified that signals itself and all the other branches by branching signal currents before the pulsers one signal one branch one signal branch but the energy is returned to the nth by the main currents of the branches this should enhence energy creation also the nth branch has n pulsers the n-1 has n-1 pulsers etc. and at nth the derivative system is after the pulsers also the nth branch is the only branch with the derivative system and it branches to all the currents before the pulsers now in the I is K(e to the (-t/(rc))) then I is K(e to the (-tv/(rq))) then Ir is v then v is rK(e to the (-tv/(rq))) then with just v is (e to the (-tv/(rq))) go rq/(rq+t) is v then multiplying each time the rK so (rK)*rq/(rq+t) is v but this is only if q is constant and r is constant and t and v is varied so it is a weird situation now for inductance go I is K(e to the -(tL)/(r)) and over here B and r are constant and everything else varies then I is K(e to the -(tL)/(r)) then I is K(e to the -(tB)/(rI)) then v is rK(e to the -(tB)/(rI)) then go v is rK(e to the -(tB)/(v)) then v is rK(e to the --(tB)/(v)) because when I increase it gets smaller then v is rK(e to the (tB)/(v)) then 1/v is (1/rK)(e to the -(tB)/(v)) then (1/B)/((1/B)+(t)) is 1/v then 1/rK(1+Bt) is then 1/v is (1/rK)/(1+Bt) then rK(1+Bt) is v then for capacitors energy is (1/2)qv or (1/2)rqq/(rq+t) and inductance energy is (1/2)LII or (1/2)*(B/I)*I*I then (LII is L*I*I and this is for anything multiplied) then go (1/2)*B*I but I is K(1+Bt) then (1/2)*BK(1+Bt) so my wavestarter system can manipulate this so only small amounts of energy are lost!!! also m*m is e to the (m*m*v*v) where c is the unit then that means m is 1/(1-v*v) then that means M (intregal of m) is arcsin(v) then sin(M) is v then if m is m is e to the ((1/2)m*m*v*v) then m is e to the M*v*v then (all multiplied together same exponent for anything) but go dM*(dm/dv) (it is an implicit differentation and integration) the dv comes out to the other side so dM is e to the M*v*v is really sin(M) is v (or dM is e to the M*v is really sin(M) is sqrt(v)) then cos(M) is sqrt(1-v*v) then sec(M) is m!!! and again dm/dv for implicit then e to the M is really sec(M) plus tan(M) but e to the (pi/2) is finite and sec(M) plus tan(M) is two times 1/zero or two infinity!!! but only under these special conditions see to create energy you need violent and unusual conditions especially infinite energy!!! now in the enrgy of capacitor and inductance clearly one is inversely relation to time and the other direct proportion when this happens you have 1/a plus b is 1 then a is 1/(1-b) then a is A*A and b is B*B then A is 1/sqrt(B*B) integrate is Ax is arcsin(B) then finally sin(Ax) is B or sin(x/B) is 1/A see this is a deal where the wavestarter system can manipulate for less energy in normal conditions and created energy in weird conditions and infinite energy in wacko conditions!!! and then one the wavestarter has the control it can go to the last mathematical proof!!! (the wavestarter system is really the wavestarter and the sine wave machine and other stuff too) remember extreme conditions!!! now in the variables bA is B and A is area and b is magnetism and B is magnetic flux and r is resistance v is volts I is current L is inductance M is either m or m*m or intregal of m or integal of m*m or whatever and m is mass then and v can also be velocity etc. now the mu knot and k are constants factor those in and get the real answer and when F(x) is g(x) then plug in then plus that result in then plus THAT result in etc. also the powerhead can make gamma rays concentrated with only a battery!!! now in the optics A+B is 2C then tan(A) is h/(d1-a) is m then dm/(1+m*m) is dv (v is A) then d(m*m)/(1+m*m) is dvdm then ln(1+m*m) is mv then e to the mv is 1+m*m then m would be e to the mv/2 then kozaked is m is 2/(2-v) then subtract one because of 1+m*m then v/(2-v) then m is h/(d1-a) then add one then (h+d1-a)/(d1-a) is 2/(2-v) then 2*(d1-a)/(h+d1-a) is 2-v then 2-[2*(d1-a)/(h+d1-a)] is v is h/(h+d1-a) is A then B is h/(h+d2-a) and C is h/(h+R-a) then h/(h+d1-a) plus h/(h+d2-a) is 2*h/(h+R-a) then 1/(h+d1-a) plus 1/(h+d2-a) is 2/(h+R-a) then that is the exact see h-a would virtually be zero to get 1/d1 plus 1/d2 is 2/R just like in the book!!! now also if it is at any situation where h and q are equal then still 1/d1 plus 1/d2 is 2/R or close still it will work but for any situation you can use the kozak version also if the lense is infinite in radius and the light is straight from infinite far away then use the kozak version for any situation use the kozak version and you will get it!!! now in sine wave pulser or powerstepper you do not have to use the freeze but you can also in liniar you should use the freeze and the freeze for powerstepper goes from beginning to end of powerstepper as in before first simple or trick rectifier to after last trick or simple recitifer and same for pulser and in powerstepper I want the parallel circuit with no insulation to the unit current to signals that are identical and multi-layer and all powersteppers identical now for pulsers use insulation and only two layer signals and such that the wave is the same power and whatever current and voltage also and all pulsers identical also when the powerstepers suck the wave it drains the cuurent but the amplitude is always greater on the other side because of the simple or trick rectifers properties but energy properties creates the drain so the freeze is designed to operate the powerstepper for the appropriate energy now in m*m is e to the [(m*m*v*v)/(c*c)] then if it is m*m is e to the 4*m*m*x*x (go m*m is f(m*m) then f(f(m*m)) then f(f(f(f(m*m)))) then f(f(f(f(f(f(f(f(m*m)))))))), etc.) then the slope of velocity increase is 2cL then if e to the (4*4*x*x*x*x*m*m) then 2c is the rate of increase increasing and the velocity graph is 2c*2c*L*L where L is one to one liniar see if that happens the parabola or liniar does not die off at the last moment!!! and x is L thus accelerate past light speed!!! but even if v is less then c still slope small but past light speed!!! now the light speed multiplies the rate of increase and the increase and everything automatically also if going F(c*L) then go e to the m*m*F(x)*F(x) and c is a unit now 2c*2c*L*L and all these graphs are asymtotes meeaning they are approached and reached at infinity if function build the same rate the phenomina does asytymtote approached at infinity if build faster then past the asymtotes at finite and if build slower then never aproaches asymtote even at infinity and function build is function of function then function of function of function etc. as in function build for the phenomina is f(x) then ff(x) then ffff(x) then ffffffff(x) etc. but notice the x is only a one to one not a c to one!!! now in the asymtotes the particles usually follow the c one but others can be followed like 2ccLL etc. so now light speed relative constant can be changed and if one parabola is flatter than the other the relative changes liniarly also when the barriers are not involved then the from barrier equation the q*q is m*m/(2k*c*c*c) with no e to the V multiplied also the barriers are constants since the mass will only go by quantity mass as one because it is originally a constant also mass is m/m0 or actual mass divided by mass at rest also when multiplying by a non existing number the whole thing not exist in the barriers now for sister fields the 1/r instrad of 1/(r*r) so still barriers now in q*q is m*m/(2*k*c*c*c) then q*q/(r*r) or dE dr is m*m/((2*k*c*c*c)) then m*v*v/(r*r) is m*m/(2*k*c*c*c) then K*v*v/(r*r) is m where K is 2*k*c*c*c then m*v is K*v*v*v/(r*r) then c*c(lnm) is K*v*v*v*v/(4*r*r) then m is e to the ((m*v*v)/(4*c*c*r*r)) then m is 4*c*c*r*r/(4*c*c*r*r minus v*v) then v approaches 2cr then to take back the dr get c*r*r is v then also the perpendicular to radius is sqrt(c*c*r*r*r*r minus v*v) then when that v is c*r*r then it orbits thus when the v is this the particle does not fall out of orbit!!! infact it needs force to fall out of orbit and it will still resume orbit!!!! also the K*v*v*v*v/4 is by dvdm where I went rederive to by dm then it will say oh no the derivative keeps equaling the function in the m thus m is an exponential e to the x and then that function is its derivative then e to the (e to the x) now remember this is by change of charge so it is like a freak of nature but as you can see this happens rarely since the fraction is tiny even for huge speeds and in gravity the mass is large but the speeds are tiny but not in a blackhole!!! now in the light absorber or light converter same thing the square root is to make the current smoother as in sqrt((1+cos(x))/2) since the sine simple rectified will create ends that are too sharp also remember the use constants to correct any inaccuracies of the equations add subtract multiply divide and ofcourse in light converter remember go arcsin(x) or arccos(x) so actually the field changes will create possibilities past light speed and you can use the same methods in the function machine now for time when getting closer to asymtotes the time will decrease but in the circle the radius is being stretched then the time decreases less for same in asymtotes like 2*c*c*L*L but decreases more for asymtotes like 1/(c*L) for same multiple of how close to asymtote now how do you get a is g-kv*v well go a is g - k*v*v/(g-k*v*v) then a is acceleration v is velocity t is time everyone else is constant int is intregal and go dt/dv then go v is gt - int(-1 + g/(g-k*v*v)) then go gt is int(g/(g-k*v*v) then g/k is m then gt is int(m/(m-v*v)) then catenary is int(m/(m-v*v)) is 2/(sqrt(m)) times ln[(m+v)/(m-v)] then e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))] is -1 plus 2m/(m-v) then m minus 2m/{1 + e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))*t]} then if time is infinite the velocity is m then actually the velocity is mg/k for a is g - (k/m)*v*v now for distance go m minus 2m[1 minus {e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))*t]/{1 + e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))*t]} then go mt minus [2/(g(sqrt(m))] times ln{1 + e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))*t]} plus [2/(g(sqrt(m))]*(ln2) also the c/(v*v*v) is 1/((1/c) plus (1/c) ...) then c is 1/((1/c(v*v*v)) plus (1/c(v*v*v)) ...) is c then 1/ln(c*v*v*v) is then go v*v*v/(c*v*v*v*ln(c*v*v*v)) is one then v*v*v*ln(ln(c*v*v*v)) is c*v*v*v then go ln(ln(c*v*v*v)) is c then e to the (e to the c) is c*v*v*v then q/v is c then q*v*v is e to the (e to the (q/v)) then go 1/(1-(1/v))) squared the e to the e double function and the single q cuased the double square then v*v/(sqr(v-1) but q*v*v so 1/(sqr(v-1)) then integrate for the total charge per capacitor per capacitor to get that all pleased you need three intregals thus -(v-1) plus (v-1)*ln(v-1) thus -(v-a) plus (v-a)*ln(v-a) for the capacitance quantity is a!!! now in the universe all relativity adds to light speed!!! now in the m in ln[(m+v)/(m-v)] i really mean ln[(sqrt(m)+v)/(sqrt(m)-v)] and work it from there so then the approached asymtote speed is sqrt(mg/k) also say it is [mg/k]/[(mg/k)- (v to the n)] then the kozak process says dt/dv is e to the {[(dt/dv)*(v to the n)/(mg/k)] minus one} no in the kozak process you did some integrating to get the minus one then dt/dv is 1/a then 1-a*ln(a) is (v to the n)/(mg/k) thus go v to the n is (1-a*ln(a))*(mg/k) then the kozak equation kicks to infinity where it is 1-(dv*ln(dv) then dv is one because it is in terms of v then -1*ln(1) stays as and aproaches zero then v to the n is 1*mg/k or mg/k then v aproaches nth root of (mg/k) now also you can put signal system with the power supply or not that is an option feel free to change anything to get it to work!!! now really you end up with dv minus dv(lndv) and that approaches one now sec(v) is m and arcsec(m) is v then dm/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) is dv then dmdmdmdm/(m*m*(m*m-1)) is dmdmdvdv then dcdc/(c(c-1)) is dcdvdv (c is m*m) then 2c*dc/(c(c-1)) is 2dc/(c-1) (remember d is derivative) anyway 2dc/(c-1) is dcdvdv/2 then c*v*v/2 is ln(c-1) then e to the c*v*v is (c-1)*(c-1) then remember if sqr it is square if sqrt it is square root anyway then c is 1/(1-v*v) then tuen c to m to get sqr(1/(1-v*v)) then c-1 becomes m-1 then from (m-1)*(m-1) to m-1 then 1/(1-v*v) plus 1 then integrate by v snce they are both m and so both equal thus v plus arctanh(v) equals ln[(sec(v) plus tan(v)] or really ln[m plus sqrt(m*m-1)] respectively then raise e to both of them to get [(1+v)/(1-v)] times e to the v is m plus sqrt(m*m-1) so the big nasty equation [(1+v)/(1-v)] times e to the v is m plus sqrt(m*m-1) can be solved by simple kozak manuevers as in x is sec(y) and x is 1/(1-z*z) or you can switch the z's and y's around and it only takes three dimensions to solve any of them!!! now some times a real messed up equation can solve many dimensions or many dimensions can solve a real messed up equation!!! now in the fields the mass decreases as into the increasing fields for reasons I already said and increases out of them then when mass decreases the velocity must stay the same to keep energy thus time increases because energy is supposedly m*v*v also the angular speed does the same thing except it takes angle into account now with circle negative and mass acting negative then the effect is still the same so when mass decreases by r then velocity increases time by square root then when 1/(r*r) then velocity does time by liniar then time acts according to circle capapcitance theory now for angular the angle increases by 1/r and only one 1/r for angular effect thus same thing also for sister fields it is 1/r times angular and that's it for both tangential and angular so everybody cooperates!!! now why does slow down time occur for repel as well well the circle is negative and the field is negative thus negative times negative to a positive again now in the particle accelerator or anything if slanting the disks make sure to slant so that the center is high and thick anf the outer is low and thin now in the kozak graph v plus arctanh(v) equals ln[sqrt(m*m-1) plus m] or anything like this field free to change any axis and any variable only if going [(1+v)/(1-v)]times (e to the v) is say P then P is the liniar etc. also when using any invention on any invention a manditory example is you can use the light converter on the place where the batteries were used and only start with a little number of particles used at once also in the disks you can decrease repel toward center and increase repel toward back as radically as you want and same with onther magnets and plates as well and for plates you want (x*x)/(d*d) and for magnets you want x/d then x is what you do and d is what is happening otherwise also you can use intregal derivative or neither on plates which ever one works for very end process now the space capacitance theory also cooperates with the theory a while back I had where the the space is more thick in fluid and slows down the cylinders to make everything more slower also in the kzak hologram if the one cylinder slows down the others or really the one in many places at once slows down as in what happens to the one happens to the others happens to the other of those particles etc. to infinity because all of them are really the one in many places at once or infinite many places at once!!! one more thing why did I go from 1/(1-v*v) plus one to just 1/(1-v*v) well that has to do with the sqrt(m*m-1) or m-1 in sec(v) process and the just m in 1/(1-v*v) process etc. now L is really BA/I but A was assumed to be one for a short cut also Br is I/r times r or I or v/r also the N for number of wrappings is assumed one for short cut (r is resistance R is distance or radius v is volts V is velocity) now in the v is sin(vt) then dv/sqrt(1-v*v) is dvdt then d(v*v)/(1-v*v) is d(v*v)d(t*t) then -ln(1-v*v) is sqr(v*t) then v*v is 1-[e to the -sqr(v*t)] then v is 1-[e to the -(v*t)] if sqrt(v) is sin(-sqrt(v*t)) then go sqrt(v) is sin(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q))) if adding this in you will get v is 1-[e to the -((v*t)/(r*q))] which is v is 1-[e to the -(t/(r*c))] also a similiar proof is where v is 1-[e to the -(L*t/r)] then L is B/I then v is 1-[e to the -(B*t/(I*r))] then sqrt(1/v) is sin(sqrt(B*t/(v)) then sqrt[-((v*t)/(r*q))/((B*t/(v))] then later you will have to take out the negative since one cannot squareroot a negative so sqrt[-((v*v*t)/(r*q))/((B*t/)] and kozak both and sqrt both arcsines of v and 1/v to get to get (dv/(1-v))/[d(1/v)/(1-(1/v))] which in a little algebra and kozak tricks is v dv where dv is one so v and negatives cancel then v is sqrt[-((v*v*t)/(r*q))/((B*t)] then one is sqrt[-((t)/(r*q))/((B*t)] but qV is B radius one for short cut but R*R in a square is one to assume as a square for a short cut then so I is B sqrt[-((t)/(r*q))/((B*t)] then q/v is c then sqrt[-((t)/(r*c*v))/((I*t)] then 1/sqrt(r*c) is v!!! now L is (B/(v/r)) is then v/r is B/L then r/v is L/B then r is vL/B then 1/sqrt(c*(vL/B)) is v!!! so B is I then 1/sqrt(c*(vL/I)) then v is 1/sqrt(c*r*L) then r is one to take short cut then I is 1/sqrt(L*c) now that means sqrt(v) is sin(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q))) and sqrt(1/v) is sin(sqrt(B*t/(v)) are both true then sin((sqrt(B*t/(v))times cos(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q)))) all plus the following cos((sqrt(B*t/(v))times sin(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q)))) is v(1/v) plus (1/v)v is 1+1 must be such that (heres where you cancel the negative) 1-1 is zero then sin(((v*t)/(r*q)) minus (((B*t/(v)) is zero then ((v*t)/(r*q)) minus ((B*t/(v)) is arcsin(zero) is zero then ((v*t)/(r*q)) is ((B*t/(v)) this will say that B*q is I*I*r then is let's take one more short cut then B is I and qV is I since V is one now and so BL is power then since the short cuts L is dB/dt then B dB/dt of the other coil then (1/2)*A*B*B is the energy of the current in super conducting and the power at normal conducting now the short cuts are only the ones where you can set it to one the behavior of the remaining is up to them then reset the units and you will still get away with short cuts but refactor at the end as in A becomes what you want it to be now one other thing in the accelerator makes charges plates positive or negative for each one in x*x/(d*d) etc. for magnets also and some things can very like the charge plates do NOT have to be duplicates of the magnets corresponding to thenm or any same with magnets to plates and active to passive magnets and plates DO WHAT YOU NEED TO DO TO CORRECT ANYTHING!!!!!!!!!!!!!! also in cos(sqrt(B*t/(v)) is --(1/v) and cos(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q)))) is --v because of the negative 1/(1-v*v)'s now in superconductor BA dB/dt is zero because I*I*r r is zero so the whole thing is zero then intregal is a constant but with r not zero then BA dB/dt is not zero then if it is a constant then the intregal is a constant times t then the constant is energy per time then or (1/2)*A*B*B then if all that changes it follows the whatever functions assuming each derivative instant is a srtaight line and each intregal instant is a rectangle now for intregals say y is e to the sin(t) and x is sin(t) then d(e to the x)/dt is sqrt(1-x*x) times [e to the x] then [1/sqrt(1-x*x)] times d(e to the x)/dt is [e to the x] then d(e to the x)/dt times d(arcsin(x))/dx is [e to the x] then (dx/dt)*d(e to the x)/dt times d(arcsin(x))/dx is (dx/dt)*[e to the x] then (dx/dt)*d(e to the x)/dt times d(arcsin(x))/dx is (dx/dt)*[e to the x] then d(e to the x)/dt times d(arcsin(x))/dt is (dx/dt)*[e to the x] then (e to the x) times (arcsin(x)) is [e to the x] then integrate (e to the x) times (arcsin(x))/dt but first arcsin(x) is arcsin(sin(t)) is t then integrate t times [e to the x] to get t times intregal(e to the sin(t)) plus intregal of intregal(e to the sin(t)) then sine goes up when t goes down so a negative then t times intregal(e to the sin(t)) is -intregal(e to the sin(t)) plus intregal of intregal(e to the sin(t)) then derive to get t times cos(t)*(e to the sin(t)) plus two times (e to the sin(t)) is intregal(e to the sin(t)) now because there is sqrt(1-x*x) and you cannot take sqrt(negative) then the interval of zero to pi/2 is all you can do or any interval inside that and the same is true for this next equation but to get past pi/2 the t divides by N and you go from there that convert t/N to z etc. all ture for this following equation also now the following one is a little easier see dx/dt is sqrt(1-x*x) then d(x*x)/d(t*t) is 1-x*x then that is x*x-1 since the negative of the sine wave to horizontal axis then d(x*x)/d(t*t) is cos(t)*cos(t) is [e to the (t*t)] minus 1 then then integrate by t to get (1/2)*(2cos(t)*cos(t)-1)+1/2 or (1/2)*(sin(t)*cos(t) plus t/2 then that is intregal[e to the (t*t)] minus the t that is already integrated then go (1/2)*(sin(t)*cos(t) plus 3t/2 is intregal of e to the (t*t) dt now for the magnets you can use this new knowledge of (1/2)*A*B*B to mess with plates and magnets active and passive now in the pendulum go 1+{[cos(a)]*[1+ln[1+cos(f)]]} now for the new intregals for N is 1 you can only go zero to pi/2 not shorter not longer not different because the mirror effect says the total intregal is the same but in portions it is not now for 1/N go zero to N*(pi/2) also remember to lidten to everything I have ever typed and will type even if they are errors because they can be helpful!!! now note in I=[1/sqrt(L*c)] because of all the short cuts the angle of sin(wt) then w is actually 1/sqrt(L*c) also remember you can change anything and everything in anything and everything to make things work!!! now one other thing the intregals intersect at (-pi/2),zero, and pi/2 that is why it only works at intervals whose both ends involve two of the three!!! now the reason for the negative is not sine but area where when x decreases x increases and vice versa now (e to the x)*arcsin(x) is not e to the x but (e to the x)*arcsin(x) all over dt is e to the x now also how did I get from intregal(e to the sin(t)) all the way to (cos(t))*(e to the x) well I derived twice because I divided both sides by dt to leave a division of dt*dt for the (e to the sin(t)) now why not t well t had a dx and that was used up also for e to the tan(t) do the same thing to get t*(sec(t))*(e to the tan(t)) plus 2*(e to the tan(t)) is intregal of (e to the tan(t)) or intregal(e to the tan(t) I may have gotten the t and x mixed up but correct the errors now notice there is one sec(t) well that's because for the e to the (tan(t)) it is a little different see sqr[1/(1+x*x)]*d(e to the 2x)/sqr(dt) is e to the 2x then go arctan(x) {sqr[1/(1+x*x)]/sqr(dx)}*d(e to the 2x)/sqr(dt) is (e to the 2x)/sqr(dx) then go sqr(arctan(x)) times (e to the 2x)/(dt) is e to the 2x then t*t*sec(t)*sec(t)*(e to the 2x) then t*sec(t)*(e to the x) then the same thing t*sec(t)*(e to the x) plus 2*(e to the x) is intregal(e to the tan(t))dt x is tan(t) and in the other one x is sin(t) thus tangent works a little different!!! now for m*m is e to the 4*m*m then e to the 4*m*m is F(m) then go FF(m) then go FFFF(m) etc. that is energy creation!!! now I messed up a little see the is no negative so t*cos(t)*(e to the sin(t)) is intregal of (e to the sin(t)) or intregal(e to the sin(t)) then t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) is intregal of (e to the tan(t)) but add constants for each integration as in K*t plus t*cos(t)*(e to the sin(t)) by 1/((dx)*(dt)) then for t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) plus C*ln(cos(t)) plus K*t for 1/((dx)*(dx)*(dt)) then you do not need the pi/2 zero and -pi/2 limits but the K's and C's vary!!! now in dimensions the liniar asymtote means everything is going faster and faster I think we are on the sin(t) dimension were time increases liniarly and motion is sin(t) frequency and amplitude and how fast t is moving are all this dimension possibly but possible we are on c etc. so time as well as motion listen to these things and they can be different for each!!! now the parts are squared then one dt divide more than e to the tan(t) then t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) is p then intregal of [e to the 2*tan(t)] then divide both by dt*dt then derive p to get dt*dt*dt*dt then square root to get t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) then multiply both sides by dt*dt then intregal of intregal of (e to the tan(t)) is intregal of t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) now e to the tan(t) was really e to the 2*tan(t) at first anyway then t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) is intregal of (e to the tan(t)) now when I say t*sec(t)*(e to the 2*tan(t))I really mean t*t*sec(t)*sec(t)*(e to the 2*tan(t)) now for mass is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) where c is one then mass is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) then kozaked is m*m*v*v/(c*c) is 2*ln(m) or 2*ln(force/acceleration) then acceleration is c per second then 2*ln{[(k*q*q)/(r*r)]/(c)} is m*m because v is c then m*m/2 is ln{[(k*q*q)/(r*r)]/(c)} then c is average v or v/2 then m*m is ln{[(k*q*q)/(r*r)]/(c)} or m*m is ln{[(k*q*q)/(r*r)]} then mess with the units and as you can see you need big untis to make this happen and it only happens in relativity!!! now remember in magnetism the same thing but ln{[(sqr(qv)]/[(r)]} is m*m then this is for relativity based quantum mechanics!!! now in the sqr(v) v is velocity vv is vertical velocity vh is horizontal velocity then the v in qv is really vv and q is charge then go ln{[(sqr(q(vv))]/[(r)]} is ln{[(sqr(q))*(sqr(c*c-(vh*vh)))]/[(r)]} then also why do the particles go below light speed well the spiral makes cycloid waves so on the length of the wave they are traveling light speed but wobble of cylinder then again infinite frequency and no amplitude and infinite speed no wavelength to be finite effect also protons why go slower well waves larger by wave length and amplitude thus the proton goes slower then the electron and wavelength is NOT the same as lenth of wave length of wave is lenth of curve!!! wavelenth is how streched along the axis!!! now charge same but with two r's and perpendicular!!! for magnetism now why do axis travel slower well the angular relativity gets them and the equator is the unit and the lobes are all the same size in the same axis belt but not same size in different parts of axis and any kind of sin(x) is really sin(2*pi*x) or just sin(x) etc. and lobes not necessarily radius size or related to it and lobe width is independent now in waves how fast is particle going well sqrt(sqr(vh+vhcos(f)) plus sqr(vh*sin(f))) is 2*cos(f) vh is horizontal velocity then v is c and c is unit then the x is what we find so go by y then 2*sin(f) because the wheel is one up the sin(f) axis then sin(f)/(cos(f)) then p for compliment angle then or just double compliment and invert to get (cos(p))/(sin(p)) times c is velocity horizontal also p is vh/r so the particle is changing velocity all the time!!! now the equator is one unit since the max is always one by c*arcsin(x/c) or intregal of c/sqrt(c*c-x*x) also M*[11b*b plus 5a*a]/40 is moment of inertia for the eliptical egg solid also for parabola it is M*[4*x*x plus 3*y*y]/12 for two of them with flat faces joining perfectly and for hollow egg it is M*[2ab)]/3 this can be usfull in the future!!! now the proprotion to radius from axis and lobe length is always the same for same particle and when I say radius I either mean from axis or from center now a particle makes a large particle by center moving along large wave but in small particle (hologram wise identical to large particle) the speed along the wave should be light speed but in tiny particle the speed along the same wave should be light speed but that would make large particle moving way past light speed or would it then to the tiny particle waves around center is light speed and to the small particle waves around center is light speed also the angular relative speed will come into play then sqrt[sqr(vertical) plus sqr(angular*radius)] is absolute light speed but (angular*radius) is light speed to center but distance vertical changes radius!!! so if it has to go light speed to center and wave the radius changes so both are satisfied at all times and this is how it works for tiny small infinitly small large and the only infinitly small is the complete one cylinder simple one and this is why for a given particle one size will do for lobes equator everything also remember the waves are tracing becuase the smaller particle making the waves but phase shifting so then waves must go light speed!!! now waves only go light speed at the equator but at axises the radius is smaller now the reason for time lapse is because the particles are phase shift equals the angle and why 2*angle well opposite ends verses center now tangential of smaller particle not necessarily angular times radius because of tangential velocity and now why does the particle at one end attract the itself at the other end well the time lapse theory same becuase of time being messed with by relativity thus the lobes but why all the cylinders well in the infinitly fast there time lapes at infinity then finite cylinders everywhere but then it can go to three or four equal divsions etc. and this is also why it can trace lobes or waves same thing but for mass particle the infinitly small particle is going infinity squared thus infinite amount of cylinders or particles now particles change vh constantly but not v in the length that is always speed of light or c now the number of lobes in all belts the same otherwise the forces would not be happy now at a point in the game it stops and the electron can not get any bigger because you would have an infinitly large electron also when I talk of speed somtimes I mean tangential somtimes angular also the waves are such that the inner parts are smaller toward the center and the outer parts are larger because of tangential but remember the smaller and larger radius is happy with that so everthing goes light speed or in tangentical and vertical seperate below light speed constant and notice when frequency higher then so isn't energy as in c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then c*sin(v*c) then f is c*arcsin(v/c) then f is (v/r) then derive then c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is mass is energy but it increases by a square because of the r then frequeny is energy squared but hold on the amplitude shrinks well amplitude is in there also but not inside the sign so it is simply a direct proportion to frequency appears liniar so if one can mess with the amplitude and only increase frequency there may be a profit of energy now there is a slide to the wheel I did not take into account and the slide is inversely proportional to the sin(p) because top is slide zero and bottom is slide c now the sqrt[c*c*csc(p)*csc(p) minus c*c*cot(p)*cot(p)] (the csc(p) is also negative proportion then take absolute value) anyway is c but times 1/2 for radius and times r/(r+r1) r1 is radius of revolver and radius being traced is r now this is for unit wave for other frequencies it applies also and for amplitude equator not change size but strenth now particles move constant if I tld you otherwise I told you wrong the above proves it and all this because particle wants to go constant velocity now in particles the phase shift is constant change liniar with equal to angle for reasons previous now for light the phase shift is liniar up and down size of angle also also the sine wave and sine lobe is the lobes and waves I have been talking about now for nucleus the protons can be where say lithium atom the protons or nuetrons can be in one time lapse by going 2/3 or in electrons 1/3 and the protons are nuclear particles are next to each other by the touch and barrier theories and nuclear particles are next to each other by smaller particles doing this but slightly under each other only slightly because of mass with electrons small mass significantly under each other and take all my theories into acoount backwards phase shft etc. for dealing with atom or particles or anything also in light why back and forth well in light the opposite spin of the under one is such that the phase is sin(x+ phase) phase liniar up and down by the two spinning opposite where angle increases lniiarly then decreases liniar also lobes can reverse phase time lapse can reverse etc. now [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] to the (2 to the v) why if the first one then new mass times the rest if newer mass the next two then four then eigth etc. always mass is m*c*c for these reasons now if c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) only then multiply to mass and reset velocity value to get again new mass for m*c*c also remember below 'a' is destroy by m*c*c on 'a' is neither create or destroy and above 'a' is create by m*c*c also above light speed or any asymtote is not necessarily create energy but it can be as in everything goes light speed and all 'a's must be light speed for this reason!!! now the energy created or destroyed would be m*A*A where A is the asymtote in terms of c and the velocity along the sine wave may or may not always be c but the angular relativity effect by radius gets it also length of sine wave well y is sin(x)*sin(x) then dy/dx is sin(2x) then (dx*dx)/dy is (1/2)*(1/(1-sqr(dy/dx))) or cos(2x) then dx/dy is (dx)*(cos(2x)) then go sqrt(1+y)/(1-2y) then go flip the derivative to get dy and dx to switch roles then intregal of (1-2y)/sqrt(1+y) is length of sine wave curve is 2*{pi/2 plus 6*(sqrt(1+y)) minus (4/3)*[(1+y) to the (3/2)]} also in (c/2)*(r/(r+r1)) for speed of particle r1 is radius of revolution and r is radius of revolver (or equator or wheel) now when I say length I mean length of sine curve when I say wavelength or wave length I mean length of x along wave but sometimes I get the two confused now the particle speed is always constant unless outer force now in [v*(e to the 3v)]/B the intregal is [(1/3)v*(e to the 3v) minus (1/9)*(e to the 3v) plus (B+(2/9))]/B because this is the total charge made then e to the 3v is close to one then (v-(2/9)+(2/9)+B)/B then one plus v/B and B is huge now in the space capacitance when at the circle at the hal way point the particle is at two different space zones same time occupence but when at top at y point at circle at light speed then two different space zones same occupence and the space zones are opposite circle or in thirds etc. or thirds different times zones and space zones at a point in between in the circle etc. so half the circle for two parts in opposite ends of orbit etc. third way three etc. now correction if distance of circle is c*sqrt(5) which is c*L then go 2c/(2cL) and c/(cL) then one is twice and other is half and the circle radius squared is 5 etc. or really radius is 1/(cL) thus if x is 2/L and y is one/L then two places one time but if y is 2/L and x is one/L then two time places one location and go 1/K for all other factors but remember it must go a multiple of c as in 2c/L and c*one/L for velocity now I am talking of the circle in the particle path and of the circle in the space capacitance theory also in an ellipse or any other distortion the angles are still the same in this space capacitance phenomina because radius effect cancels velocity effect to a one and velocity meaning sqrt(sqr(vertical)plus(sqr(horizontal)) as in the absolute velocity!!! now for the (0.5)*(I)*(w*w) is E (I is moment of inertia of mass times radius squared) then w is [E*E/(I*I)]*(t-1+K*(e to the -t)) then K is zero and t-1 is where when t is one then initial time is zero then just say t is initially zero then (0.5)*(1/I)*t is 1/E then 2I/t is E then the mass is r*r*c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then kozaked is sqr(E*t) is r*r*e to the (sqr(E*t*v/c)) E is energy t is time v is velocity c is light speed r is radius also if you need a constiuously different capacitor go 1/ln(x) is c then then go x to the (-t/r) r is resistance x is liniar variance capacitor t is time c is capacitance so now it is possible to make all kinds of variance capacitors where x is F(v) v is liniar variance now light goes light speed because the tiny to larger particle hologram system there is two of them one at the opposite end of the larger particle of the other then one motion cancels the other in both perpendicular axises then they must settle for the center going light speed also the ever increasers and decreasers or the non increasers and non decreasers and the ones without any of this in accelerators use them in a way to get the thing to work how you want and the electron can go any speed below light speed but the freqency and amplitude of the sine wave is such that the length is still at light speed same for any particle see when freqency decreases and amplitude increases the electron must go that much slower for length that much more increases and as frequency approach zero and amplitude approach infinity you go light speed so electron goes light speed same for any particle with different constants of energy now freqency is constant divided by amplitude constant depending on particle and the particle is slower and slower because mass increase amplitude and the frequency must decrease but energy decreases because when you give it energy it works against the stress of more energy now at light speed the frequency is zero so the length is a flat line also all this slow down and then go the other way and then speed up the opposite way backwards etc. that is what time does!!! now in actual physics with removed mass particle relativity the frequency increases with energy for velocity but amplitude decreases decreasing the length so to stay at light speed the electron must go faster and combine this with the mass relativity effect on particle now in the function machine remember 1/dx in signal for to get rid of function and dx in signal to build the function and the negative currents to signal the signals for 1/dx get rid of functions and the positive currents to signal the signals for dx build functions and the cx is for negative of positive as well as cx and the derivatives can be frozen also for the signal of signal and you can freeze any derivative or anything also to get rid of every third function do 1/dx for every third etc. and dx is derivatives in general as well as invert of any derivative is 1/dx put it all together and make it work and any idea for any invention now when it comes to particle spin and revolution and tiny particle and larger etc. everything goes clockwise or counterclockwise and when assuming a radius it reorients to this and this is how polarizing is done and the energy goes out say 45 degrees of pi/4 radians then 1/sqrt(2) and the rest of the energy is in the particle since it cannot move in certain directions it absorbs and reradiates in the polar direction less energy and the number of them is also absorbed that way see in the canceling direction the movements are opposite and canceling and the number decreases because some electrons or particles do not radiate instead they go that much faster because of energy absorbtion anyway that goes to 1/sqrt(2) all squared!!! now in atoms the ellectrons and protons can engolf and turn opposite or differently from each other but the attractions and repulsions balance!!! now in light the waves move back and forth sine wave velocity and the waves move counterclocwise is positive clockwise is negative or vice versa and positive means photon aborbs energy negative is give off energy and it goes past light speed and below in a sine wave fashion and above the waves are reversed and below the waves go positive again and the particles give energy to space and suck it back to make waves in space that do not travel outward but in and out of photon to effect other photons now when the waves are not hitting photon positively in direction A the photon stops moving fast in direction A thus wave crests attract photon then the photons change direction and speed and the distace is d then energy is 1/d and force is 1/(d*d) then the net factor is 1/d thus photons move close then far apart but far apart more then if monochromatic then 1/d is only one!!! thus a laser!!! and if polarized the amplitude changes to relationships between photons now in in a beem the fringes are so that they concentrate or spread or both and space wave in all directions and ofcourse all of space is at the mrcy of each photon!!! so that is why light particles behave as waves also!!! and if polarized that can also cuase an energy difference also in phase or out of phase or 1/d will change constantly also this all happens in three dimensions now for any other particle the waves are one behavior but for photons the waves behavior is unique!!! now in space the particles really not make waves but fold space then reabsorb and the diameter of the fold disk is directly proportional to the wavelength of the speed increase and decrease times c and the time of the waves going negative and positive time is what happens and the disks move light speed in front of particles and behind and all around also in electrons and other particles it also happens just differently because of different lobe behavior so the particle never quite reaches light speed unless under kozak methods also say m is sin(Nv) then dm/sqrt(1-m*m) is Ndv then d(m*m)/(1-m*m) is (N*N)*d(v*v) then d(m*m*m*m)/(1-m*m) is (N*N)*d(m*m*v*v) then d(z*z)/(1-z) goes -(1-z)+(1-z)*(ln(1-z)) is (N*N)*(m*m*v*v) then (N*N)*d(m*m*v*v)/d(1-m*m) is -1/(1-m*m) then (N*N)*d(m*m*v*v) is -d(1-m*m)/(1-m*m) then ln(1-m*m) is -N*N*m*m*v*v then 1-m*m is e to the -sqr(N*m*v) then kozaked is 1-(1/sqrt(1+N*N*v*v)) then when the time is zero or an integer multiple or 2*pi then m is zero but m is the wave amplitude assumed to be one for the case of the given wave but this is 1-1/H where time*time plus 1 is square of H but this is the circle space capacitance theory!!! but plus the one for light speed and inside plus the one for hypotenuse effect but light is obeying the relative theory as though it were just another particle!!!!!!!!

Thursday, December 18, 2014

new ways to use inventions

now for lositic circuits by you can use timer derivative system a sine wave to arcsin(x) and even derive simple rectify and integrate and for sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx again derive simple rectify and integrate now for power head with light use trick simple rectifiers now to get huge amplitude no insulation on the current to unit current to keep frequency the same now for light absorber go simple rectifer square root arcsine then derive then simple rectify and in the simple rectifier derivative simple rectify the derivatives use ressisters where neccessary and for blocks use copper now for x*x/(d*d) or x/d then x is sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx and for disk make the A(f(cx) minus (f(x)) or the A is really A times f(cx) or f(cx*cx) do whatever also listen to all things I have ever said now in the early stage of all accelerators and thrusters make the no ever increasers or ever decreasers and the function machine has a counter twin that is the other side of the branch that was for the backwards or forwards reversing machine and backwards means the signal in the middle is 1/(f(v) or whatever where as the forward is the invert of that then the backwards goes FFFF(x) then FFF(x) then FF(x) then F(x) then x etc. or whatever and the forward is x the F(x) then FF(x) then FFF(x) then FFFF(x) etc. or whatever now it can be x F(x) FF(x) FFFF(x) FFFFFFFF(x) or whatever and the invert orcourse or whatever now no ever increasers or ever decreasers for early stage for and go forward and backwards and forward and backwards etc. then for later stage go ever increasers and just forwards and in another stage go ever decreasers and backwards and make sure in the decreaser in back anf forth or just back everybody does everything completely backwards now in the magnetic thruster a later stage is like the early stage now for magnetic thrusters the end magnets forward increases and back decreases when going toward front and the end magnets forward decreases and back increases when going away from back now apply this to everrything and every accelerator and thruster also in multiple stages you can have the non ever increasing and non ever decreasing stage but remember the magnets will have already ever increased or ever decreased and the function machines follow the ever increasers and ever decreasers or neither or both back and forth and you can do both taking turns if you want now for ever increaser derive sinple rectify and integrate for ever decreaser the intregate is going down instead of up for the current intregrated also you can switch so that now for magnetic thrusters the end magnets forward increases and back decreases when going away from front and the end magnets forward decreases and back increases when going toward back and then switch back and technically they are both increasing in ever increasing and decreasing when ever decreasing etc. but one increases more or decreases less or whatever when less etc. and in certain stages they can increasing and decreasing and niether etc. also in all accelerators all stages all magnets and plates same with exceptions and do to plates what is done to magnets etc. and switches can always be timers now the function machine every function stepper will have a counter destepper also for e to the tan(tan(x)) the force must be y is e to the tan(tan(x)) then z is e to the tan(tan(y)) etc. but the kozak way keeps the function up and say the function is x*x then it is e to the ln(x*x) etc. now one more thing use these things how you want and use inventions to any other inventions etc. now to follow the decreasers and increasers the decreaser derivative signals the negative branch or 1/F(x) of the function unit of function machine and the increaser derivative signals the positive branch or F(x) of the function unit of function machine and and when back and forth two waves to two waves one to one half to half anything etc. now for neither it uses the derivative of the sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx wave and this is also the standard x in all functions and function machines but cx keeps taking the final and making it the beginning now for special timer system it copies the relay and signal system and everything with exceptions one of the exceptions is the slow down or speed up do to non charge mass and if non charge mass decreasing then decrease it and if increase then increase it the way I show you a while ago also now the direct signal system this is not for function machine but this for straight currents and all other stuff with exceptions also outward from center or backward is decrease and inward toward center or forward is increase and for magnetic thruster and any other accelerator now the signals from the derivatives only signal the branch ends see the recycles are the speed fo F(x) to FF(x) to FFF(x) to FFFF(x) now why not FFFF(x) then FFFFFFFF(x) because the electricity does not generate that much energy unless commanded to by circuits but the whole thing is basically one big recycle unit so just the branch ends now in light go e to the c kozak seconds but what is c well it is the kozak base but the kozak second is rediculously small now I heard yesterday from the Big Bang Theory show that the universe is one big hologram well it is and it isn't see all we are is dented space which is really how a hollogram works but we are real the only reason is seem like a hologram is nothing goes above or below light speed like in The Island with an illusion pulled over us if one thing goes above or below the hologram bursts because now the illusion is broken so as long as everything behaves then we are a hologram if we brake light speed we are in another hologram so if something can switch to another hologram then is the hologram really what we are!!! see I think the show Stir of Echoes is the most accurate everything is under control until you punch a door in the space time dimensions then the waves are going what they feel like going and you cannot control it anymore!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! moreover the person in control is an angry teenager in the zero dimension!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! remember the proof that the hitting light speed will make the c zero and the new light speed c and when one passes on that is what happens the soul is released and it can do what it wants because the capacitance of space does NOT effect it!!!!!!!!!!!!!! therefore it climbs to where all other dimensions are zero hence the zero dimension now there has to be a God because there is zero dimension and there are beings in all dimensions then the zero dimension there are native beings from there namely God the Ark Angels etc. and God goes as far as he wants making him all powerful now in the after life how can Samantha be in Jakes room and on the side walk and in the lawn all at once well when in zero dimension two waves can be right across each other because the rope is no mass and no control what happens is the rope is like jelly then a wave can bulge in many places like air bulging a balloon thus many places at once now remember the capacitance of space and all this and our very lives are not in our control!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now in regular integration the supply comes from a parallel circuit and also another parallel circuit in series with the first comes and goes into the integrater by feeding it what I mean is it adds to the main current of the integrater outside the dual signal of the integrater also you know about the turning 1/2 back to one have two in series and then in parallel add and same with supply now supply is in between or inside the dual signal of integrater in a parallel circuit now one thing when I said x = sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx I told you wrong but remember you can take all errors and everything into account also remember you can go pass light speed now the spiral will reverse motion now with integrators the supply can come from anywhere as in in the missile guidance have seperate electricity for supply and branch equally the supply source and for supply you can branch it freeze it (always freeze it) and split to make a negative integrator and a positive integrator by swopping one of the branches etc. etc. and remember to keep the voltage the same in most situations not all also the universe a seperate rotating hyperbola is a parallel universe if it is in the same quadrant and the parallels are either beside or around or inside also the supply for missile guidance comes from the energy from the engines now in the force the 'a' factor does not normally change the mass if it does that is a demass system now in the freezers if you have to use a freezer then everything is used on everything now in the electron the big elcetron is created when the revolving electron is tracing it as in the rovlver is small and the engolfer to the nuclues is large then the large lobes are the waves traced by the small electron then the waves and large lobes and small lobes all go light speed and large lobes follow waves as in large lobes are the waves so the small moves in a circle that moves in a circle over the large poles but the poles of large and small point only in one direction all the time now in the waves the chain links are moving as 'h' velocity then waves move sqrt(v*v-h*h) but the object outside is moving positive 2*sqrt(v*v-h*h) but the wave is moving the other way at again sqrt(v*v-h*h) thus two different velocities same speed and sqrt(v*v-h*h) is light speed and if the waves curl then the links circle like an ocean wave then always light speed for the links and always light speed for wave and always light speed for object now if going negative then sqrt(v*v-h*h) would be below light speed for object but then the links would be moving slower to sqrt(v*v-s*s) to again light speed and object velocity also brings it back to light speed now in the circle then no matter what angle it is light speed and the s or h the waves are shaped to counteract the effects of s and h since s and h are not liniar see if twice the liniar then the wave responds thus counteracting the effects now v is just a velocity randomly picked now in the climbing to higher dimensions the heighest is the lowest in a circle but dimension zero is at the center of the circle also remember the large electrons and small electrons can be distorted elliptically or however then in this sense the universe acts like a hologram with pixels (or particles) changing with time and this applys to all particles I call this the kozak hologram system also one more thing the poles and equator is at light speed releative to the graph axis or graph cylinder if talking or large electron by angle now the cylinders are moving zero but not when taking into account the wobble and ofcourse the waves are moving light speed see if twive the radius then twice the velocity then one more light speed then moving tangentaly as one light speed faster if 1.5 readius then faster yet because closer also with protons and electrons the cuberoot(sqr(1836)) area and the cuberoot(1836) number but velocity wise always light speed because the proton os generally larger creating a whole new situation so this is all light speed now in light aceleration use the electrons to accelerate the light at first it won't then brake barrier to past light speed but another dimension now it is hard to believe that we are NOT the most powerful beings in the universe and it is hard to believe that there is a being that powerful with that kind of love but he is there I mean there is no way all this happened by accident as in why is light speed the limit and why is all velocitywith respect to the other light speed well I tried like heck explaining it but who did it!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now in the sqrt(v*v-h*h) in transverse waves the link is perpendicular while object is parallel or the link in longitudenal waves sqrt(v*v-s*s) link is parallel and object is parallel and in ocean curl it does not matter the situation is going to be the same thus all relative motion light speed!!!!!!!!! now keep everything identical function machines everything is all identical with exceptions as in the signal system does not have the power converters or power steps or amps steps or anything involving pulsers or power steppers or coils also you can try doing a freeze after power stepper or pulser with the unit current listening to the current before the coils and ofcourse use trick or simple rectifiers everywhere on the power stepper or pulser like I said a while ago also the function pieces are identical and the counterparts ae almost identical etc. now in the barrier the m*v*v/r where v is always c then m increases with r by rc then in the barrier it goes down with temperature because mass and charge are directly proportional as proven see when mass follows circle a large mass following circle is more force thus more field then temperature and radius of circling of particles is also directly proportional now for these reasons the barrier also follows the large lobes now in the arcsinh(ln(x)) go dy=dx/(sqrt(1+x*x)) then intregal is sqrt(1+x*x) then intregal is 1/dy then invert function but then I forgot to reswitch the x and y now this m is rc thing only works in centrafugal relations if not in the orbit the mass does NOT increase away from the atom by a heck load!!! also in the function machine the pieces and counterpieces are identical with exceptions now when I say barrier follows lobes I mean it takes their shape exactly now for recycles in relay use freeze circuits and be sure to make freeze circuits do more then what recycles want also in all straight currents as in all special timer signal relay etc. everything with straight currents use freeze circuits also in any recycles have the trick or simple inside recycles and at the very end in the recycle now for the m*m is e to the m*m is light speed and m*m is e to the 4m*m is twice light speed etc. and x is f(x) then x is f(x) is ff(x) annd then x is f(x) is ff(x) is ffff(x) etc. and function machine does this also in dx/sqrt(1+x*x) multiply by another dx to get the derivative relatively then integrate and it is the invert and the 1/2 and 2 cancel so now you just need to say tan(tan(x)) and e to the tan(tan(x)) also you can use freeze circuits anywhere if you want also in the waves around a center remember the inner lobes are smaller and slower and the outer lobes are larger and faster and also how can a barrier be distorted or manipulated if the formula says it cannot well for distort it only cares about the average and for temperature the q*q changes and so the temperature is directly proportional to the radius and the charge and the mass also remember the speed of light perspective can be angular as well as liniar now for everything I have ever said in this entire website listen to everything now apply everything to everything now wneh connecting a relay out branch to a straight current or special timer straight current or any straight current you can use a parallel wire then the straight current is a parallel circuit but do NOT do this!!! make the connection a direct connection with NO parallel circuit this way all energy of the particles goes back to the particles and you are making changes that make the relay radical and remeber signal systems relay systems special timer systems etc. all these systems identical with exceptions and they have the same connections with exceptions also all systems in general are identical with exceptions and have the same conections with exceptions now in the pendulum in 1-cos(a)timessin(f) go (1-cos(a))times(sin(f)) and in the [c*c*sqrt(c*c-v*v)]/c go negative [c*c*sqrt(c*c-v*v)]/c but then sqrt(c*c-v*v) goes from c to zero not from zero to c so another negative to make a positive now in the m*v*v/r in the push for example you want mass and that's it as in no function machine the only time to use function machine is in the part I call expo in the straight and straight special timer currents only and this is for signal system for relay system use the function machine on the whole current and do all this to special timer system too and all things identical with exceptions also for plates you may want to use derivatives or intregals maybe derivatives now the passive plates are signal and relay plates and the actives are central disk and push plates make plates behave like magnets now in the pendulum go (1-cos(a))*ln(sinf) plus cos(a)*ln(1+cos(f)) from intregal of [cos(f)-cos(a)]/sin(f) then in (1-cos(a))*ln(sinf) both are variables and in the l'hopital rule so derive seperate and also f is either 'a' or pi/2 then you get cos(a) minus zero and 'a'-change is f so cos(a) then cos(a) plus cos(a)*ln(1+cos(f)) is cos(a)*(1+ln(1+cos(f))) then add negative one because the amount starts as negative one at the bottom not at zero then -1+cos(a)*(1+ln(1+cos(f))) turns into 1-cos(a)*(1+ln(1+cos(f))) becuase absolute value of time then if the angle is 'a' and you measure at the bottom the time is 1-cos(a)*(1+ln(1+cos(f))) then it goes 1-cos(a)*(1+ln(1+cos(zero))) or 1-cos(a) and if at pi/2 then 1-1 or zero etc. now for the kozak equations I royally messed up the functions are either increase runaway as in e to the x or bouncing runaway as in tan(x) you cannot get the same values because it matters what the x is and what the y was at first or what both of them were at first if both run away then if niether ar constrainted then both run away now in the ese equations they can find values for runways or anything with x is F(x) now for F(x) and 1/(F(x)) the function machine attempted to go F(x) but the derivative circuit makes it go F'(x)/dx and same 1/(F(x)) to dx/(F'(x)) if not make sure it is like that now there is a center of mass where go intregal of mv dmv is MV then go c*c*ln(m) is MV and then c*c*ln(m) is zero and since m and M are the same then m must be one then intregal of zero is v*c then c*c(-m+m*ln(m)) is c*c see it has two choices in integration go c or zero why zero means no mass!!! then (-1) is 1 then absolute value is one is one then it goes to c because c is the unit now this is all why things want to assume shapes of spheres and ellipses and hyperbolas and parabolas now remember in all particles the directions are all parallel also in cylinders when cylinders move light speed or c*infinite the lobes must move light speed as in if a liniar wave is moving then when the cylinder is moving down then at light speed the one to one slope wave would move light speed as in one*one plus one*one the first part is cylinder and the second is wave (hypothetically) now if wave ditorts the the influence from cylinder counter distorts now ofcourse in a particle finite number of lobes (or waves) and the length is radius and uniform throughout particle but the width is finite and uniform throughout particle but different from length and different particle different radius length and width and by width I mean width at surface of particle also everything I have said applies to going opposite perpendicular same etc. possibilities now intregal of MV dv is v*c where M is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)also when I say wave height or length same difference is radius of particle I mean radius of small particle to large wave amplitude now time and other theories the large to small then small to tiny etc. all the way down to one cylinder like a hologram and the single cyliner per field or property changes woble of angle by frozen image rotating through the axis then the axis itself wobbles all c*infinite or c speed now the behavior of the cylinder makes a sphere and the behavior determines the property or field now infinite behavior makes the quark look finite in size so time says same cylinder can appear inmany places at once etc. so the infinitely small sphere is solid but the holograms traced are hollow because the smallness is infinite now go intregal of m*m*v*v/2 dm is -c*c(-m+mlnm) then dm*dm/dm is 2mdm/dm is 2m then you are deriving the intregal to get 2*m*m*m*v*v/2 is -c*c(-m+mlnm) then m*m*v*v is c*c then m is one them v*v is c*c then v is c now the wobble change or any change in a cylinder can accelerate and decelerate or do that to aceleration itself and deceleration itself now why well this is just an ocsillating proprety caused by a simple rotation effect but it has to be some kind of sine or cosine wave kind of like a ball and a spring and the axis itself can do all this too etc. and all these behaviors determne the property of the quark gravity mass nuclear electro magnetism etc. now in m*c*c/r smaller r is more acceleration which means less mass must be present also in the ln[(3kqq)/(r*r)] the qq is parabolic when mass is liniar increase then the qq is parabolic so when the parabola is below zero then the mass is dominant because the parabola does not exist where mass is then freeze but when when increasing the mass and parabola exist then the liquid then when parabola passes line then gas because you have mass trying to make it sluggish but the charge is causing energy like situation or really relative propreties now 3*m*m/2*c is ln[3(kqq)/(r*r)] then go e to the 3*m*m/2*c is [3(kqq)/(r*r)] then [3(kA*A*m*m)/(r*r)] is e to the 3*m*m/2*c then [6(kA*A*m)/(r*r)] is 6*m/(2c)*e to the 3*m*m/2*c then r is m/c then [6(kA*A*m*c*c)/(m*m)] is 6*m/(2c)*[e to the 3*m*m/2*c] then [(kA*A*c*c)] is (m*m)/(2c)*[e to the 3*m*m/2*c] then go [(kA*A*c*c)] is (M)/(2c)*[e to the 3*M/2*c] then M/2c is V then V*(e to the 3*V) is [(kA*A*c*c)] then (V*(e to the 3*V))/(k*c*c) is D or A*A so as you can see the charge forces changing is small to the relativity but it is there and goes to zeroat zero so it is definitely there!!!!! so as you can see the charge changes to the mass and gravity same and nuclear same and sister fields with the same thing except r only to the one which means the approach becomes only one mass so square root and one c difference so everthing same otherwise!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now in m*c*c/r and force/(r*r) the force is four times when the acceleration is only twice thus then mass times acceleration*c*c/(r*r) then mass*c*c/r then mass is proportional to r and c for the unit also in the c*cln(m) is m*m*v*v/2 then devide by mass and integrate then c*c*sqr(ln(m)) is integral of m*v dm then [sqrt(mv)]/c is ln(m) then e to the [sqrt(mv)]/c is m then m*m is e to the [m*m*v*v/(c*c)] now (m*m*v*v)/(c*c) v is c then m*m greator then [sqrt(m)] see in a blackhole if past like speed it would push the stuff out of the blackhole then the blackhole would explode then no more blackhole now in the dot product be intregal m*v d(m*m*v) then dm/dv is c/(v*v) then v is c so intregal (1/c) times m*v d(m*v*v) then that is c*c*sqr(ln(m)) m is one unit then L dE is zero L is momentum and E is energy then rcv*F*r is zero then derive both by r cv*F is zero then v*F is zero then in these cases * meaning dot product then cosine is zero then perpendicular thus a circle for relativity now derivative of circle is -x/y and for ellipse -g*g*(x/y) or -((b*b)/(a*a))times(x/y) thus the constant for v*F thus still zero thus it can go in ellipses also maybe a backhole really does blow apart and we just did not see it yet!!! now in the e to the ((pi/2) to the (2 to the v)) the function goes e to the x in m is e to the (m/c) then when both build same then m is 1/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then intregal is arcsin(v) then v is one to zero get pi/2 then two to the v because F(x) then FF(x) then FFFF(x) then FFFFFFFF(x) then it starts all over so v is e again and inside arcsine one is really one unit one e also m*m is e to the m*m*v*v/(c*c) then m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or really c/[sqrt(c*c-v*v)] then m*m is c*c/(c*c-v*v) then m is e to the m*v*v/(c*c) then m is c*c/(c*c-v*v) then m is e to the m*v/c then m is c/(c-v) then e is m*m to the m*v/c then m is e to the m*v/(2c) then m is c/(2c-v) etc. so if in the past I told you different I told you only different not wrong see if m*m is e to the m*v/c or e to the m is e to the m*m*v/c I square rooted then squared again but the 2 factor then all equations are the same except put in that 2!!! also a blackhole is made of a single particle tracing a larger single particle and the exlplosion is cause by the when it reaches the zero speed and then the particles pinch past light speed then the whole thing I said then an explosion and zero speed is where the particle does not want to change it's angle at all as in remember the spiral and the angle change any angle change I do not care what manner anyway the only problem is it has to get past the asymtote and the time lapses are tiny but not infinitely small so it will get past the asymtote in finite time and we will see a blackhole blow up and spit so matter into another dimension

Thursday, November 13, 2014

the field barrier of relativity itself!!! and other things

now in the 'a' factor past it is well the mass is inverted and the sign is changed because so go 1/(x*x) is e to the -(1/(x*x)) then kozak that is (1/v)/sqrt(1+(1/(v*v))) then it is 1/sqrt(v*v+1) then 1/x so sqrt(v*v+1) then the unit is c so c*c in the radical so v is really v/c so (sqrt(v*v+c*c))/c now in the barrier x*x (x is really m) then x*x is e to the [(x*x*v*v)/(c*c)] then ln(x*x) is x*x*v*v/(c*c) but past 'a' factor is 1/(x*x) is e to the [(z*z*w*w)/(c*c)] z is 1/x and v is velocity like always is 1/w then ln[1/(x*x)] is [(z*z*w*w)/(c*c)] then in the first if x is larger then one then velocity must be smaller then c the unit but in the second if mass is smaller then one then velocity is larger then c but the unit is larger maybe infinite but there is a field barrier in the 'a' factor!!! also below m is one but above it is (sqrt(v*v+c*c))/c because of the negative of the ln function but why one because that is the last thing it was before negative also the one is the initial mass but in the barrier you must pass a fractional quantity of light speed before mass crosses over one or a certain value and these values depend on mass and force now ddm/dv is 0.5*sin(m*v) well dmddm/dv is 0.5*dm*(sin(m*v)) and so dmdm/dv is -cos(m*v) then dmdmdm/dv is -dm*sin(m*v) then m*m*m is sin(m*v) then d(m*m*m)/sqrt(1-(m*m*m*m*m*m)) is dm*dv then d(m*m)/sqrt(1-m*m*m*m*m*m) is dv then d(m*m*m*m)/sqrt(1-m*m*m*m*m*m) is 2*mdmdv then go (1/m)*[d(m*m*m)/sqrt(1-m*m*m*m*m*m)] is 2*dv then square them all then (1/(m*m)*[d(m*m*m*m*m*m)/(1-m*m*m*m*m*m)] then go 3*d(z*z)/(1-z*z) times dm/(d(m*m*m)) is 4*dvdv then 1/(dmdm) times 3*d(z*z)/(1-z*z) times (dm*dm*dm)/(dz*dz*dz) is 4*dvdv (d is derivative in these cases) but two dz's out but one dz in then 3*d(z)/(1-z*z) is 4*dvdv then integrate to get (3/4)*(arctanh(m*m*m)) is v*v so cuberoot(tanh((4/3)*(v*v))) now remember the barrier in relativity is determined by the mass and force thus the relativity makes the fields but moreover you can make a barrier field doing this and fields are relativity!!! now in the differential equations they are for a combination of function machine and integration repeated which is for reading runaway functions and runaway intregals for going into other dimensions and through time by intregals adding up to make more dimensions required and the function multiply to get past asymtotes that hold us into the confined dimensions also remember you can go past 'a' factor under over or at light speed now the way you make runaway intregals is in the function machine some of the pieces have double or triple or whatever intregals at the end or runaway derivatives one plus whatever number of derivatives at end now the runaway derivatves are for going lower in dimensions instead of more and functions the get less instead of runaway for destroying energy but upper creates energy now mass is F(m*v) why m*v well m*v is dE/dv E is energy the object is to find energy at a distance by finding rate of energy in velocity because we are dealing in velocity anyway now in the P is pressure and V is volume and T is temperature in the adiabetic system P times V to the y is constant and T times V to the (y-1) is constant then lnV is ylnV minus (y-1)*(lnV) then replace and get lnV is (y/(y-1))*(lnT) and ((y-1)/y)*(lnP) then this equation is for when two vary and you have to find the third also arccos(cos(x)) B is cos(x) then 1/(sqrt(1-B*B)) and dB/dx or -sin(x) then they go with arccos(B) and ddB/dx respectively in an intregal by parts then x times -sin(x) minus (-xsin(x) plus -cos(x)) is cos(x) then there is a ddC/dB to connect to B with the same function as in to be the same as B with just the sign changed then multiply the intregals to get sin(x)/(cos(x)) then 1/(B*B*B) then go dB/dx to get it in terms of x then 1/(B*B) then that is sqr(sec(x)) then intregal is tan(x) then you have [(1+sin(x)) times tan(x)] then to the x because sine into cosine in derivatives and then keep derived to make 1/sqrt(1-B*B) to get 1/sin(x) or csc(x) (and when I say 1/sqrt(x) i really mean 1/(sqrt(x))etc. is csc(csc(csc(z)))now now z is 2pi(x) plus pi/2 and y is just 2pi(x)one more thing all to the x as in FFFF(x)/FFF(x) times FFF(x)/(FF(x) etc. then F(x) to the x then the IIIIffff(x) I is intregal to equal FFFF(x) etc. I said all this before now similiar proofs yield [(1-cos(x))*(cot(x))] to the x is sec(sec(sec(x)))) now with the F's etc I am choosing arbitrary amounts in reality it is capable of infinite and goes as long as you want similiar proofs yield [(-1+sinh(x))*(tanh(x))] to the x is sinh(sinh(sinh(x))) etc. now the mass is e to the (n+a)L then force is e to the zL then L is 1/(function(l)) now notice that when force exponent goes to zero then mass exponent goes to zero only when you are going [[ffff etc. f](l)] f is function(l) then function of l becomes function of (function(l)) etc. otherwise when force exponent goes to infinity then you have mass is infinity exponent so that saves a lot of energy!!! also the x factorial continuous is e to the x then the total multiplication is e to the (-x plus ln(x)) then it is (x to the x)/(e to the x) and the derivative is [(x to the x)lnx]/(e to the x) thus the derivative and intregal of a factorial!!! also remember the relative and absolute speed are the same because absolute is just relative to a stationary!!! also why does ffff(x) save energy well if 'a' is not copying m then that's why!!! but if 'a' copies m then that's why!!! now in the ellipses the long ones are below energy level but larger distance!!! now in all the straight currents of all magnets and plates except the central magnet and plate for direct signal system go one or two straight currents two parallel circuits and one positive signal other negative signal also you can just simple rectifiy the current to the signal now on central magnet and plate there are two or four straight currents one signaled negative one positive and for each plate and magnet the straights are identical for that mgnet or plate if more than one also plate for each of all magnets with outer cenral and inner push magnet now in the rocket math dmdv is mdv plus vdm then mdv is vexdm then dv is -vex plus v (vex of exhaust) then the differential says v is vex plus e to the T then dm increases velocity and m decreases it (dm is rate of decrease of mass due to exhaust) then dm/m or really I always mean dm/(m) is then lnm(vex plus e to the T) is all v then d is (-m+mlnm)*(vex plus e to the T) is all distance and acceleration is (dm/m)*(vex plus e to the T) then force is (vex plus e to the T)*(dm) also in the mass acceleration mass and acceleration are conventional in light speed if not using the kozak process or the function of function of function etc. now when I say the direct signal system I mean the derivative of the direct signal system that goes to the straight currents and vex is any function of time now force is zL then e to the zL then e to the (e to the zL) etc. and mass is (n+a)L then e to the (n+a)L then e to the (e to the (n+a)L) etc. only force does it faster then mass to pass the 'a' factor now mass is coth(force)at first then 'a' copies mass and not the other way around and 'a' is not anything but what mass is and force does not really reverse but the mass makes the end result reverse also when motion is zero the infinity kicks in on coth(f) but infinity times zero becomes zero but when the motion is finite then to infinity now L is sqrt((1/v)*(1/v)) because when mass squarerooted everthing else did also and 1/v because the radical cannot be a negative also can you see that when L goes to zero coth(f) is at infinity but you must do the kozak trick to do it also remember to go function(l) minus function(c) to get zero now 1/(function(l)) where function(l) starts as one and goes to infinity for L now for force go function(l) minus function(c) to zero then start as zero and goes to infinity but the ccth(f) is really coth(function(l) minus function(c)) since L is suppose to be the invert of what 'a' is handling as f or (coth(f)) also L has no function(c) with it because L cannot be infinity at zero!!! but force is because time speed is infinitely small!!! now go for the circles opposite (x+r)*(x+r) plus (y+r)*(y+r) is d*d then r*r+2xr+2yr+2r*r is r*r then 2xr+2yr is 2(r*r) then rx+ry is r*r then x+y=r then in a circle x*x+y*y is R*R then r*r + r*rsin(2(feta)) is R*R (2xy is sine(2feta)) then the math goes 1/(1+sin(feta)) because the angle is two times per circle then m*c*c/r now the signs amay not be not quite right so then the mass must go 1+sine(feta) then mass decreases to one away then to whatever unit times one when close thus mass increases when moving toward repeling charge and it follows the circle!!! but if it is same way then the sine(feta) will negatify and the mass will decrease to one close and increase to whatever away see attract is what I just said and repel is what I said before that!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now huge corrections biuld means x then e to the x then e to the (e to the x) etc. unbuild is e to the (e to the x) then e to the x then x or it could be higher now when 'a' is negative the function(l) reverses and the f in coth(f) reverses and in the f I mean it unbuilds and does everything opposite as the end result and the build and the and the end result is whatever the x is in e to the (e to the x) etc. and that would be (n+a)L in mass or z(function (l) plus function(c)) in force etc. now acceleration also builds and force mass and acceleration never stop building and they definitely never unbuild unless you are slowing down now when 'a' is positive acceleration subtracts and mass adds but when 'a' is negative acceleration subtracts to a positive and mass subtracts to a positive now the kozak function makes 'a' copy mass and L go 1/(function(l) and the z is really a constant value now mass is coth(f) with a build behind it see AT FIRST mass is coth(f) then the build makes it huge but 'a' is always coth(f) because it is in front of the build and the f is from the mass NOT the force build out runs mass so really the 'a' copies mass also the build of mass is F(V) then FF(V) then FFFF(V) etc. it doubles each time now the force build will cause it to build even faster then go FF(V) then FFFFFFFF(V) then 64 of them etc. like my function machine does in the accelerator now in the circles moving opposite what I ment recently is circles circling the same but opposite flow between them and same means recently opposite but same flow between them now remember the 'a' factor depends on what you make it but the c is always the speed of light also I think I want done to central magnet plate what is done to central magnet and push plate what is done to push magnet plate or the central magnet plate what is done to signal plate and the push magnet plate what is done to the relay plate you decide now remember a charge plate is intregal of current but a magnet is not now remember the 'a' does not really copy mass the f in the coth(f) copies mass since both start out as coth(f) then 'a' stays as coth(f) because of the intial equations also remember the f does the exact opposite past 'a' factor because the mirror image has reversed also you can have a plate corresponding to the active disk plates as well and you can slant the disks to wider on the central part also in accelerating light you might want to have both the electron accelerator and the light accelerator combined because you cannot actually mess with pure light without touching it so the electrons are moving under force and the light is being forced at the same time so you are breaking relativity to accelerate light but it will decelerate when leaving the apparatus now if this stuff ever get's invented the proton or electron accelerator is (the proton one is heavier magnets kozak-Sm-17 and the light one is kozak-Db-15 now for anything with light use electrons with it and combined what to do with electrons with what to do with light also for light devices use electrons since they are lighter but for Sm-17's use protons or electrons also in the powerheads the waves will increase squareroot in amplitude and squareroot in frequency to get it to do what you what regulate the signals for amplitude and the unit current insulation from main current for frequency now for signal the current is sqrt[sine*sine plus cosine*cosine] now for light saber make the electrons ocsilate in stand still and use the magnetic fields the way I said but in a circle surrounding the closest end of the electron cylinder cloud and the electrons can always come from the wires and make magnetic field for the light saber as a rim with innner magnet conflicting with outer magnet also in the function machine you can use a 1000 to a 1000 the way I said where the secondary branches where each branch is to a unit on the primary the way I said in the past or you can you can use 20 fours the primary then the secondary third fourth etc. you can do whatever you want now the f reverses but so doesn't the function(l) so f and function(l) reverse and that's it!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now in the 'a' and mass the 'a' is coth(f) and the mass is L*coth(f) then e to the L*coth(f) then e to the (e to the L*coth(f)) etc. then ofcourse 'a' turns negative etc. now if it is x then e to the x then e to the (e to the x) etc. then x is the head now f copies the head of force and only the head of force do to the behavior of the kozak equation and all this do to the behavior of the kozak equations now in gravity and antigravity remember the negative and positive gravity circle each other and one engolfs the other and vice versa so the repeling and attraction syncronize to just attraction now the 'a' does not copy mass it is only coth(f) and after 'a' factor f only unbuilds if the function(l) is building and to get 'a' factor lower build the force faster now for function machine the exponents build faster as in recycle the end to the beginning for the whole thing and all other parts and use recycles over other recycles but keep it the uniform now for two particles revolving opposite brushing and same way the two go opposite to slow down but the want to go faster to light speed absolute well they do because of vertical also plays and ofcourse the cylinders play too to get a repeling and similiarly the same brushing opposite revolving to attract again the vetical plays also to get attract also the spins play too thus attract and repel thus relativity causes the mass inertia forces and velocities and acceleration now remember the heads are only copied because the kozak equations keep the heads themselves from building now aL or -aL is head of mass and acceleration and function(c) plus or minus function(l) is head of force and when i say mass or acceleration adds or subtracts in the context of a i mean -(-aL) or -(aL) or plus (-aL) or plus (aL) now force mass and acceleration always keep building in positive direction as in x the e to the x the e to the (e to the x) etc. where x is whatever the head is also the force mass and acceleration build at the same exact rate since one is the invert or direct proportion of the other now the time it takes to go from 1*infinite or aL to 0*1 or aL equals the time of reverse 0*1 back to 1*infinite and the fast force builds the faster this process now the mass was coth(f) until it built then the coth(f) is 'a' or the original mass remember 'a' is negative in past the 'a' factor so you create infinite energy using finite energy!!!!!! now the time does not flow smoothly but in discrete amounts but the intervals are so small it seems smooth now with the muons the intervals are exactly the size of half revolution since the moun will force itself in equal only like this then the muon is one interval back in time and remember that's time the speed effects how big is the half circle and this is all responsible for the discrete energy levels in the atom the nucleus and is responsible for everything this whole blog ever talked about in an atom say three timer references all repel the same to stretch out also 1/((f*f) f is a finite number for time interval now in the tan(infinity) is one then the (tangent plus tangent)/(1-(tangent*tangent)) where one tangent not necessaritly equal to the other but two different tangents involved then use the formula to get 2 infinite is the pi/2 angle and for every infinity added is an added pi/4 angle at zero it is zero then infinity pi/4 etc. this then says at infinity you are at one then infinity then one then infinity and two more of these two cycles back to zero again!!! then the curve starts at zero then at one by infinity it starts going to infinity just for one unit because infinity times infinite by pi/2 is infinity squared then this is a hyperbola then the go like this d(sec(x)*sec(x) minus one)/dx is the sec(x) then the head of the derivative is still tangent this proves that in the universe the derivative leads to the same thing to mean the circling hyperbolas hollow and they circle to expand to maximum size in the quadrants and eight quadrants eight hollow circling hyperbolas but the unverse is not quite to infinity yet but it will reach there and when it does it goes into a second phase as in say 1/(1-f) then f will soon be one now the (3v-2)/(2v-1) only works when the numerator and denominator are positive and the thing goes to infinity as in any negative will not be readable by the phenimina for barrier reasons and same for infinity for barrier reasons in hollow how is two dimensions suface areas well we are infinitly small as I earlier proved also in the 1/r the derivative is -(1/(r*r)) then -(1/r) by force times distance then to 1/(r*r) then back to 1/r by force times distance now in the energy creation the universe is still creating energy by expanding and needing more "stuff" as I proved earlier thus energy creation is how we exist and our end will be energy distruction also the formula of e to the ((pi/2) to the (2 to ther e)) where the unit time is determined by that and the unit for distance and etc. to get e to the c of those units for universe cycling time and no two cycles are the same!!!! now why does mass increase with velocity well if larger circle the difference from center angle and angle to other particle is that much smaller so it is as if you but then the speed is that much greater then the angle is the same agsin now it is going faster at larger circle and the angle is the same thus mass would be greater because the force to keep it in is that much greater now in the d(sqr(tan(x)))/dx the is sec(x) then the d(sec(x))/dx is sqr(tan(x))!!! and the equation would say that 2tan(x)sec(x) is one thus tan(x) and al of it is a constant then x/2 is sec(x) then d(x*x/4)/dx is x/2!!! thus the derivative like I said is not variable to three dimensions now in spiral the angle is harder to change and the spiral likes to change the angle the same amount per time thus the mass is greater at larger speeds and the fields are also since behavior of mass and particles is infact the fields but when you are moving with it you are only fighting the circle and the original mass only because circle only then the fields in the ship will stay the same!!!! also I found the cosine(pi/5) it is (1+sqrt(5))/4 now remember mass is rc so the angle rate the same for larger mass!!! remember mass and fields are just the behaior of particles and the mass would increase anyway because the particle is doing a spiral!!! now light is not so at zero it has zero mass but at c it has mass and these phenomina if going infinite are really c*infinite (c is speed of light) so the difference in angle for particle and angle for center is a constant for same circle but the mass but the relative speed is particle point and the absolute is center then the adjustment is the mass then angle is same speed with larger circle to change for mass now in ellipses same rules with some variance in the circles now why tan(x) well it measures the derivative itself!!! so the speed then integrate to get y itself!!!! now in the electron the mass is smaller because there is m*c*c/r but as in the proton is larger but this all makes since but why is the mass 1836 as much in proton but the charge the same well in the charge the proton is 4*pi*r*r times 1/(r*r) like in the electron to make just 4*pi*whatever constant now the mass is smaller since in the electron r is smaller then why is everything else weak in electron to proton but not charge well it is the outer most layer when being crushed by layers the mass gets smaller now why electron same as proton but less massive well DNA the photon that releases electrons is the same type of photon that releases protons also this proves even more that particles are hollow also when energy is at one barrier of photon protons when at another electrons the higher one is farther from the photon now charge the same as in electron same distance from center and proton center is same charge and I already proved why a second ago also mass is minus r if field is repulsive instead of attractive now in the time intervals t is the independent variable then the intervals lay on each other then the centers line up and the full intervals are where the time is experienced but the vacant intervals are where the intervals experience no time it is just space and the vacant intervals also lay on each other centers lined up now in one band the vacants and fulls are checkered and the larger the full interval the more time experienced and the bands are infinitely thin and the bars connect the ends of the vacant and full intervals where they join in a particular place and there are bars for other places where this happens also and the bars are curved to velocity but straight to time itself as in to time itself not even a diagonal but the curves are c/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)) to velocity instantaneously because time is only at a single level at a time then integrate then it is c(arcsin(v/c)) but c is one unit then arcsin(v) then that would be how distorted time by v then go 1-v since time slows down with velocity not speeds but arcsin(v) is an angle to be characteristic of a circle but the vacant intervals are gone when time is at light speed see the time decreases because the intervals are smaller with independent variable t where dt is one so at light speed the intervals go to zero to make time infinite that is why everything freezes at light speed so anyway the time is maximum when the intervals are maximum length (not infinite) and vacant intervals are zero at rest so now when something see something else the speed changes with reference or full interval because the bars bend like a semicircle!!! now the velocity along a full interval and the velocity of the reference point or height must add the velocities as vectors assuming the reference is traveling parallel then that means the height and full interval are perpendicular but the height squared and the velocity squared is for a circle the radius which is constant!!! moreover it is light speed!!!!! now what if the angle changes then the angle in the interval system will also change the same amount so the speeds will add like the vectors want!!!!!! one more thing the other circles are simply the other time intervals see time keeps moving on a single band at a time or it can cross bands to change everything one interval is a tiny amount of time!!!!!!! now the less mass the larger the effect of capacitance of space the longer the interval as in space capacitance is resistance to velocity but mass counteracts it keeping velocity constant now the sqrt(c*c-v*v) is interval then interval is i then sqrt(c*c-i*i) is v this means one forms the other and ther other forms one as in mutual creation!!! now mass ofcourse is the invert and c is one and mutual light speed multiplication means times c at the beginning and then again at the end or dividing depending on which direction you go then go c/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)) which is time creates mass and mass creates time mutually in a circle one in mass and time you must invert at the beginning and then the end to account for mutual inversion now one other thing in length the distance and time go at it like time and mass only length directly proportional to time because when the interval is smaller then so is the length!!! and the length is a direct proportion because it reflects time intervals directly also when the length passes by the interval is shorter so length must be shorter by ofcourse sqrt(c*c-v*v) and always remember mutual c multiplication or division or inversion where needed only so the relativity is nothing more then space resistance and inertia!!! now inertia is caused by time is caused by inertia so again relativity is inertia!!!!!!!!! so this all explains why absolute and relative to another is always light speed now L is 1/(function(l) and f is function(l) plus or minus function(l) and mass acceleration and force always build exponentially regardless of the heads because of the relationships between the force mass and acceleration also 'a' is coth(f) also remember L and f reverse when 'a' is negative but L and f are always positive in progression and reverse also you can make function(l) do a build that is function(l) function of function(l) etc. then it will reverse when 'a' is negative also go a demassive system is e to the tan(v) then dm/m is sqr(sec(v)) then take out the dm and invert to get sqr(cos(v)) is m then go derivative of sqr(cos(v)) then add to get one so when v is infinity the tan(v) is one and the end result mass is always one and orcourse do the kozak function for tan(v) or really tan(1+v+v*v...) so then the mass stays the same and you accelerate heaven knows how fast!!!!!! now for the kozak functions in anything use a function machine as in you can use more than one function machine now in L/function(l) the function(l) builds or unbuilds and progresses or reverses in the L not the L itself and in f the plus or minus function(c) plus or minus function(l) the whole f builds and or unbuilds and progresses or reverses and for both when I say reverse the build also reverses both meaning the stuff in both 'a' and L so remember listen to everything I have said now 'a' negatifies because 'a' is the direct relation between force and mass and acceleration now if something is moving perpendicular will it be light speed with respect to the other body why yes only it is light speed perpendicular as in the vectors always change to compensate also remember the mass will increase field with respect to other body but not to itself or anything inside!!! now the mass is + to - acceleration is - to - when 'a' is 'a' to -a and when I mean is the head as in mass from aL to -(-aL) and acceleration from -aL to -(-aL) and acceleration does not switch because it is inverted in force/(acceleration) now f is the head of force also acceleration and mass build at the same rate exact because they of the relationship also force can build faster slower or the same or above but remember mass will try to out run force now in force pushing light I ment sqrt(cosine*cosine plus sine*sine) also vectors compensate so that regardless of angle the object will appear as light speed on the full vector at that angle also for force go faster than m*m is [e to the (m*m*v*v/(c*c))] to the (2 to the x) to outrun mass so in mass force and acceleration it is all in the heads!!! also when the vectors turn as well as the object direction compensate means it is as if there never was a turn!!! the turns cancel or compensate keeps up with the turning and it is as if there was never a turn!!! there was no difference in trun that is for sure!!! now the mass at one velocity at infinity system it has to be in the engine accelerator to be effective not the engine itself but the actual output acceleration!!! now in the dm/dv is e to the sin(m*v) the end result is 1-4(1+4v) is but integrate it to get v-2(v+4v*v) and the only way to progress it is by raising it to the v if I said otherwise I told you wrong now there is kozak approximations I want to talk about for intregals of e to the x*x and e to the sin(x) so y is e to the x*x then ln(y) is x*x then dy/y is d(x*x) then 1/y is d(x*x)/d(y) then go d(y)/y to get derivative automatically to cause a relative integral then get ln(y) is (x*x)/y then go y is e to the ((x*x)/(y)) then approximate selecting initial arbitraray numbers now for y is e to the sin(x) go dy/y is cos(x) then go 1/y is sin(x) then go (dy/(y*y))/sqrt(1-(1/(y*y))) is -dx then go (dy/(y))/sqrt((y*y)-1) is -dx then ((dy*dy)/(y))/sqrt((y*y)-1) is -dx then (dy/(y))/sqrt((y*y)-1) is -(dx/dy) then go integrate to get arcsec(y) is -(x/y) then y is sec(-(x/y)) now for tan(tan(x)) is y go dy/(1+y*y) is sec(x)*sec(x) then go (dy*dy)/(1+y*y) is sec(x)*sec(x) then go dy/(sqrt(1+y*y)) is sec(x) then arcsinh(y) is ln[sec(x) plus arctan(y)] then y is sinh{ln[sec(x) plus arctan(y)]} and chose values like if y is zero what is x then zero is ln(sec(x)) then sec(x) is one then x is zero or 2(n)pi n is an integer then tan(lnx) is y well arctan(y) is lnx then dx/x is dy/(1+y*y) then dx/x is (dy*dy)/(1+y*y) then then dx/(x*dy) is dy/(1+y*y) then 2*y*dx/(x*dy) is 2*y*dy/(1+y*y) then 2*(lnx)/(lny) is intregal of dy*dy/(1+y*y) is ln(1+y*y) is then e to the [2*(lnx)/(lny)] is 1+y*y then sqrt[minus one plus [x to the 2/(lny)]] is y and you can use all these approaches to any of these kozak equations now the way to approximate kozak equations is in y is function(x,y) x is fixed and then plug in y into the function get the y on the other side of the equation and then plug that in and choose the right intial values of y or it will run away x is whatever you want it also in solar panels or light to electricity systems I have put it on the beginning of the power converter or any invention with any other part of any other invention now sometimes like above you can hit the approximation exact like I did above also in the light converter have a simple rectifier with derivative circuits on all four wires and go x*x is a*a plus b*b each wire two wires per axis at opposite ends of the block as the first then the second and third etc. and final*final is x*x plus y*y plus z*z and it absorbs all the light and abstracts a lot of energy now z is 1/4 now goal is to get intregal from 1 to e of arctan(z(ln(x))) well arctan(z(ln(x))) is y turn it around and say arctan(z(ln(y))) is x and go y is e to the 4*tan(x) then lny is 4*tan(x) and when I say dy/y I mean (dy)/(y) for all cases ever anyway dy/y is 4*sec(x)*sec(x) then dy*dy/y is 4*sec(x)*sec(x) then dy/(sqrt(y)) is 2*sec(x) then dy/(2*sqrt(y)) is sec(x) then ln(sec(x) + ln(y)) is sqrt(y) then y is sqr[ln(sec(x) + ln(y))] then reinvert and go x is sqr[ln(sec(y) + ln(x))] then when x is one then ln(sec(y) + ln(x)) is one then ln(1) is zero then sec(y) is e then y is arccos(1/e) then ln(sec(y) + ln(x)) is sqrt(e) then sec(y) plus 1 is e to the sqrt(e) then -1 + [e to the sqrt(e)] is sec(y) then y is arccos(1/{-1 + [e to the sqrt(e)]} then arccos(1/{-1 + [e to the sqrt(e)]} minus arccos(1/e) is the answer now what happens when you want intregal from 1 to 2 of e to the z*tan(x) then do all the same thing but now you are combatting arctan(2*ln(x)) is y then tan(y) is 2*ln(x) then dy*sec(y)*sec(y) is 2*dx/x then dy*dy*sec(y)*sec(y) is 2*dx/x but dx*dx/(x*x) is 2xdx/(x*x) is 2dx/x thus dy*sec(y) is dx/x then go (dx/dy)/x is sec(y) then go ln(x)/y is ln(sec(y) + tan(y)) but tan(y) is 2ln(x) then go ln(x)/y is ln(sec(y) + 2ln(x)) then reinvert to get ln(y)/x is ln(sec(x) + 2ln(y)) then x is 2pi then y is sec(x) + 2ln(y) then y is 1+2ln(y) then e to the [(y-1)/2] is y then y has to be one because e to the [(1-1)/2] is 1 then x is 2 then sqrt(y) is sec(x) + 2ln(y)then then y minus 2ln(y) is sec(2) now a good trick is pick a wise number and then that y is plugged in then that one etc. then take that minus one and you should have it now these are just intregals but a new way of getting them and these methods can get any intregal one more in cos(x*x) is y go y is sqrt(arccos(x)) then y*y is arccos(x) then 2ydy is -dx/sqrt(1-x*x) then 2ydy*dy is -dx/sqrt(1-x*x) then sqr(d(y*y*y)) is dx*dx/(1-x*x) then dy is [dx*dx/(1-x*x)]/(dy to the 5th) then [-ln(1-x*x)]/(y to the 5th) is y so this is a hard one to do now be very carefull when multiplying the dy to get relative intregal make sure it is of the form dy*f'(y) equal dx*g'(x) before doing it where ' means derivative and so does d otherwise you will mess up the x y relationship also the full intervals are the time unit spans like in the muon revolution semicircle and the reason is space time coagilates like matter does when there is attraction and the dt is one to one liniar timing but really it happens to wait then go instantly now these equations can be done in a billion different ways the simplest way is the best as in make sure when doing them the y which becomes the x appears on both sides of the equation and on one side it is aLL alone and you do a recycle plug in where new value y plug in get newer value y or make sure in the end it is possible to make it this way then ofcourse y becomes x (you can have F(y) is G(x,y)) DO NOT SOLVE FOR X OR Y THEY ARE A KOZAK EQUATIONS!!! it is like saying I am going to use a kozak equation and make it non kozak (kozak is recycle) or I am going to cook some food only I am going to use the freezer to do it!!! now how to get e to the tan(z(tan(x))) z is 1/2 p is 2 then arctanp(arctan(ln(x))) is y then dy*zsec(y)*sec(y) is (dx/x)/(1+ln(x)) then dy*dy*sec(y)*sec(y) is 2(dx/x)/(1+sqr(ln(x))) then dy*dy*sec(y)*sec(y) is [sqr(dx/x)]/(1+sqr(ln(x))) then sec(y) is {[(dx/x)]/[sqrt(1+sqr(ln(x)))]}/dy then {arcsinh(lnx)}/y is {ln[(sec(y) plus tan(y)]} then (x*x-1)/(2xy) is {ln[(sec(y) plus tan(y)]} (xy means x*y in any case ever) anyway then tan(y) is parctan(ln(x)) then make the x and y shift roles as before to get (y*y-1)/(2xy) is {ln[(sec(x) plus arctan(ln(y))]} then say y is zero then one is sec(x) plus arctan(zero) then one is cos(x) then x is 2npi n is an integer but really we solved y for when x is 2npi and got one now say y is e to the (y*y(x*x)/(c*c))then c*c*lny is y*y*x*x then sqrt[sqr(c/y)*lny] is x now y*y is c*c/(c*c-x*x) then sqrt[(c*c)-(sqr(c/y))] not the same!!! that is why you do not solve for x or y or any variable in a kozak equation now the idea is to get intregals that would otherwise be impossible to get now remember there are alot of options see in dividing by dy when there is only one dy in the equation you must treat it then like an implicit equation but remember the dx is one the dy is not necessarily one also in the light converter be sure to use a simple or trick rectifier for all axises for each main axis then have the derivatives point against the diode for each wire then add all derivatives and simple rectify the derivatives before adding and ofcourse the main wires go sqrt(sine*sine plus cosine*cosine) one main wire rectify for all the waves at once the computer will not care and ofcourse this is for fusion or anything like all the other inventions I mentioned now in the accelerators when direct signal when switching and flooding between straight currents make sure the negative straight current is doing the exact same thing as the positive straight current and same with all straight currents except if you are talking of a different magnet or plate or a plate instead of a magnet or a magnet instead of a plate or passive to active etc. now flooding means more than enough current to satisfy the switch and then the freezer circuits make it the exact correct current and any invention for any other invention etc. now for every active magnet have an active plate closer to the vacuum or chamber and for every passive magnet have a passive plate closer to the vacuum or chamber now the x is sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx or whatver I said in the past and the active disk system is A*f(cx*cx) minus f(x*x) f is only a multiplying system and A is greater then one and the disk active system is slanted wider toward the center and all active system goes by the same x also remember the machine must think cx is one if going by sin(cx) as in the wavestarter and everything uses cx as the unit now the passive is closer to the vacuum then the active disk system and also slanted the same way and amount also the f(x*x) may be different then the f(cx*cx) also just make sure the particles are same distance from the disks at all times now for all magnets do to plates what is done to corresponding magnets except you may have to go x*x instead of x when it comes to distance factor in plates and for magnets you do have to go just x when it comes to distance factor also for plates you may have to use integrators also for derivatives all derivative circuits identical and there are capacitors parallel and series identical and all capacitors and branches identical and everything identical also the kozak equations representing normal equations are such that say you are giving the object a force of e to the tan(ztan(x)) z is 1/2 then the kozak equation for that tells you how to do it but outrun it which is (y*y-1)/(2xy) is {ln[(sec(x) plus arctan(ln(y))]} and in this one you can have the x as f(v) and do y or go y is f(v) and go x and then you can take out the z and what there will be an annoying constant so what so you can go past light speed and go past 'a' factor (above or below or right on light speed) now to get past 'a' factor below light speed you must recycle y faster on light speed just as fast and above slower now for light speed how far past or how close to depends on the values of y to recycle now if both rate and value agree then time travel now ofcourse passive systems may very from active systems in other ways besides one collects energy and the other uses it so whatever acceleration you are using use the kozak methods and it will stay as that function through light speed and 'a' factor now for derivatives is e to the -(t/(rc)) for capacitors and use the circuitry to solve for t and r is resistance and c is capacitance 1/c is 1/c1 plus 1/c2 etc. when series and c is c1 plus c2 etc. when parallel now resistance is parallel and series also for parallel is 1/r is 1/r1 plus 1/r2 etc. when parallel and r is r1 plus r2 etc. when series now for inductance e to the -(Lt/r) then again solve for t and the inductance equation may not be correct then go with what I said earlier a while ago now the way to penetrate a shield or block is the projectile is past light speed so in another dimension then it reappears on the other side sice it wants to go below light speed invertly as it went over now as far as that kozak equation you can do it to both y or x but for the others you may only be able to do it to just x or just y but still you can do it now if wanting to do it direct with no switches then you can do it that way where the function is not inverted and nothing is switched you can do it any way possible now in powersteppers and pulsers any current after is in no way connected to any current before except through the pulser and power stepper also when making y go faster recycle as in just use a recycle in the function machine part and what you do to the recycle of function machine part is how fast it goes also the fuction machine part can be alone and ofcourse you can us power step and freezer circuit on the recycle and you can use this anywhere now in pulsers and power steppers use simple or trick simple rectifiers and ofcourse pulsers and that's it!!!!!!