Thursday, December 18, 2014

new ways to use inventions

now for lositic circuits by you can use timer derivative system a sine wave to arcsin(x) and even derive simple rectify and integrate and for sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx again derive simple rectify and integrate now for power head with light use trick simple rectifiers now to get huge amplitude no insulation on the current to unit current to keep frequency the same now for light absorber go simple rectifer square root arcsine then derive then simple rectify and in the simple rectifier derivative simple rectify the derivatives use ressisters where neccessary and for blocks use copper now for x*x/(d*d) or x/d then x is sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx and for disk make the A(f(cx) minus (f(x)) or the A is really A times f(cx) or f(cx*cx) do whatever also listen to all things I have ever said now in the early stage of all accelerators and thrusters make the no ever increasers or ever decreasers and the function machine has a counter twin that is the other side of the branch that was for the backwards or forwards reversing machine and backwards means the signal in the middle is 1/(f(v) or whatever where as the forward is the invert of that then the backwards goes FFFF(x) then FFF(x) then FF(x) then F(x) then x etc. or whatever and the forward is x the F(x) then FF(x) then FFF(x) then FFFF(x) etc. or whatever now it can be x F(x) FF(x) FFFF(x) FFFFFFFF(x) or whatever and the invert orcourse or whatever now no ever increasers or ever decreasers for early stage for and go forward and backwards and forward and backwards etc. then for later stage go ever increasers and just forwards and in another stage go ever decreasers and backwards and make sure in the decreaser in back anf forth or just back everybody does everything completely backwards now in the magnetic thruster a later stage is like the early stage now for magnetic thrusters the end magnets forward increases and back decreases when going toward front and the end magnets forward decreases and back increases when going away from back now apply this to everrything and every accelerator and thruster also in multiple stages you can have the non ever increasing and non ever decreasing stage but remember the magnets will have already ever increased or ever decreased and the function machines follow the ever increasers and ever decreasers or neither or both back and forth and you can do both taking turns if you want now for ever increaser derive sinple rectify and integrate for ever decreaser the intregate is going down instead of up for the current intregrated also you can switch so that now for magnetic thrusters the end magnets forward increases and back decreases when going away from front and the end magnets forward decreases and back increases when going toward back and then switch back and technically they are both increasing in ever increasing and decreasing when ever decreasing etc. but one increases more or decreases less or whatever when less etc. and in certain stages they can increasing and decreasing and niether etc. also in all accelerators all stages all magnets and plates same with exceptions and do to plates what is done to magnets etc. and switches can always be timers now the function machine every function stepper will have a counter destepper also for e to the tan(tan(x)) the force must be y is e to the tan(tan(x)) then z is e to the tan(tan(y)) etc. but the kozak way keeps the function up and say the function is x*x then it is e to the ln(x*x) etc. now one more thing use these things how you want and use inventions to any other inventions etc. now to follow the decreasers and increasers the decreaser derivative signals the negative branch or 1/F(x) of the function unit of function machine and the increaser derivative signals the positive branch or F(x) of the function unit of function machine and and when back and forth two waves to two waves one to one half to half anything etc. now for neither it uses the derivative of the sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx wave and this is also the standard x in all functions and function machines but cx keeps taking the final and making it the beginning now for special timer system it copies the relay and signal system and everything with exceptions one of the exceptions is the slow down or speed up do to non charge mass and if non charge mass decreasing then decrease it and if increase then increase it the way I show you a while ago also now the direct signal system this is not for function machine but this for straight currents and all other stuff with exceptions also outward from center or backward is decrease and inward toward center or forward is increase and for magnetic thruster and any other accelerator now the signals from the derivatives only signal the branch ends see the recycles are the speed fo F(x) to FF(x) to FFF(x) to FFFF(x) now why not FFFF(x) then FFFFFFFF(x) because the electricity does not generate that much energy unless commanded to by circuits but the whole thing is basically one big recycle unit so just the branch ends now in light go e to the c kozak seconds but what is c well it is the kozak base but the kozak second is rediculously small now I heard yesterday from the Big Bang Theory show that the universe is one big hologram well it is and it isn't see all we are is dented space which is really how a hollogram works but we are real the only reason is seem like a hologram is nothing goes above or below light speed like in The Island with an illusion pulled over us if one thing goes above or below the hologram bursts because now the illusion is broken so as long as everything behaves then we are a hologram if we brake light speed we are in another hologram so if something can switch to another hologram then is the hologram really what we are!!! see I think the show Stir of Echoes is the most accurate everything is under control until you punch a door in the space time dimensions then the waves are going what they feel like going and you cannot control it anymore!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! moreover the person in control is an angry teenager in the zero dimension!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! remember the proof that the hitting light speed will make the c zero and the new light speed c and when one passes on that is what happens the soul is released and it can do what it wants because the capacitance of space does NOT effect it!!!!!!!!!!!!!! therefore it climbs to where all other dimensions are zero hence the zero dimension now there has to be a God because there is zero dimension and there are beings in all dimensions then the zero dimension there are native beings from there namely God the Ark Angels etc. and God goes as far as he wants making him all powerful now in the after life how can Samantha be in Jakes room and on the side walk and in the lawn all at once well when in zero dimension two waves can be right across each other because the rope is no mass and no control what happens is the rope is like jelly then a wave can bulge in many places like air bulging a balloon thus many places at once now remember the capacitance of space and all this and our very lives are not in our control!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Thursday, November 13, 2014

the field barrier of relativity itself!!! and other things

now in the 'a' factor past it is well the mass is inverted and the sign is changed because so go 1/(x*x) is e to the -(1/(x*x)) then kozak that is (1/v)/sqrt(1+(1/(v*v))) then it is 1/sqrt(v*v+1) then 1/x so sqrt(v*v+1) then the unit is c so c*c in the radical so v is really v/c so (sqrt(v*v+c*c))/c now in the barrier x*x (x is really m) then x*x is e to the [(x*x*v*v)/(c*c)] then ln(x*x) is x*x*v*v/(c*c) but past 'a' factor is 1/(x*x) is e to the [(z*z*w*w)/(c*c)] z is 1/x and v is velocity like always is 1/w then ln[1/(x*x)] is [(z*z*w*w)/(c*c)] then in the first if x is larger then one then velocity must be smaller then c the unit but in the second if mass is smaller then one then velocity is larger then c but the unit is larger maybe infinite but there is a field barrier in the 'a' factor!!! also below m is one but above it is (sqrt(v*v+c*c))/c because of the negative of the ln function but why one because that is the last thing it was before negative also the one is the initial mass but in the barrier you must pass a fractional quantity of light speed before mass crosses over one or a certain value and these values depend on mass and force now ddm/dv is 0.5*sin(m*v) well dmddm/dv is 0.5*dm*(sin(m*v)) and so dmdm/dv is -cos(m*v) then dmdmdm/dv is -dm*sin(m*v) then m*m*m is sin(m*v) then d(m*m*m)/sqrt(1-(m*m*m*m*m*m)) is dm*dv then d(m*m)/sqrt(1-m*m*m*m*m*m) is dv then d(m*m*m*m)/sqrt(1-m*m*m*m*m*m) is 2*mdmdv then go (1/m)*[d(m*m*m)/sqrt(1-m*m*m*m*m*m)] is 2*dv then square them all then (1/(m*m)*[d(m*m*m*m*m*m)/(1-m*m*m*m*m*m)] then go 3*d(z*z)/(1-z*z) times dm/(d(m*m*m)) is 4*dvdv then 1/(dmdm) times 3*d(z*z)/(1-z*z) times (dm*dm*dm)/(dz*dz*dz) is 4*dvdv (d is derivative in these cases) but two dz's out but one dz in then 3*d(z)/(1-z*z) is 4*dvdv then integrate to get (3/4)*(arctanh(m*m*m)) is v*v so cuberoot(tanh((4/3)*(v*v))) now remember the barrier in relativity is determined by the mass and force thus the relativity makes the fields but moreover you can make a barrier field doing this and fields are relativity!!! now in the differential equations they are for a combination of function machine and integration repeated which is for reading runaway functions and runaway intregals for going into other dimensions and through time by intregals adding up to make more dimensions required and the function multiply to get past asymtotes that hold us into the confined dimensions also remember you can go past 'a' factor under over or at light speed now the way you make runaway intregals is in the function machine some of the pieces have double or triple or whatever intregals at the end or runaway derivatives one plus whatever number of derivatives at end now the runaway derivatves are for going lower in dimensions instead of more and functions the get less instead of runaway for destroying energy but upper creates energy now mass is F(m*v) why m*v well m*v is dE/dv E is energy the object is to find energy at a distance by finding rate of energy in velocity because we are dealing in velocity anyway now in the P is pressure and V is volume and T is temperature in the adiabetic system P times V to the y is constant and T times V to the (y-1) is constant then lnV is ylnV minus (y-1)*(lnV) then replace and get lnV is (y/(y-1))*(lnT) and ((y-1)/y)*(lnP) then this equation is for when two vary and you have to find the third also arccos(cos(x)) B is cos(x) then 1/(sqrt(1-B*B)) and dB/dx or -sin(x) then they go with arccos(B) and ddB/dx respectively in an intregal by parts then x times -sin(x) minus (-xsin(x) plus -cos(x)) is cos(x) then there is a ddC/dB to connect to B with the same function as in to be the same as B with just the sign changed then multiply the intregals to get sin(x)/(cos(x)) then 1/(B*B*B) then go dB/dx to get it in terms of x then 1/(B*B) then that is sqr(sec(x)) then intregal is tan(x) then you have [(1+sin(x)) times tan(x)] then to the x because sine into cosine in derivatives and then keep derived to make 1/sqrt(1-B*B) to get 1/sin(x) or csc(x) (and when I say 1/sqrt(x) i really mean 1/(sqrt(x))etc. is csc(csc(csc(z)))now now z is 2pi(x) plus pi/2 and y is just 2pi(x)one more thing all to the x as in FFFF(x)/FFF(x) times FFF(x)/(FF(x) etc. then F(x) to the x then the IIIIffff(x) I is intregal to equal FFFF(x) etc. I said all this before now similiar proofs yield [(1-cos(x))*(cot(x))] to the x is sec(sec(sec(x)))) now with the F's etc I am choosing arbitrary amounts in reality it is capable of infinite and goes as long as you want similiar proofs yield [(-1+sinh(x))*(tanh(x))] to the x is sinh(sinh(sinh(x))) etc. now the mass is e to the (n+a)L then force is e to the zL then L is 1/(function(l)) now notice that when force exponent goes to zero then mass exponent goes to zero only when you are going [[ffff etc. f](l)] f is function(l) then function of l becomes function of (function(l)) etc. otherwise when force exponent goes to infinity then you have mass is infinity exponent so that saves a lot of energy!!! also the x factorial continuous is e to the x then the total multiplication is e to the (-x plus ln(x)) then it is (x to the x)/(e to the x) and the derivative is [(x to the x)lnx]/(e to the x) thus the derivative and intregal of a factorial!!! also remember the relative and absolute speed are the same because absolute is just relative to a stationary!!! also why does ffff(x) save energy well if 'a' is not copying m then that's why!!! but if 'a' copies m then that's why!!! now in the ellipses the long ones are below energy level but larger distance!!! now in all the straight currents of all magnets and plates except the central magnet and plate for direct signal system go one or two straight currents two parallel circuits and one positive signal other negative signal also you can just simple rectifiy the current to the signal now on central magnet and plate there are two or four straight currents one signaled negative one positive and for each plate and magnet the straights are identical for that mgnet or plate if more than one also plate for each of all magnets with outer cenral and inner push magnet now in the rocket math dmdv is mdv plus vdm then mdv is vexdm then dv is -vex plus v (vex of exhaust) then the differential says v is vex plus e to the T then dm increases velocity and m decreases it (dm is rate of decrease of mass due to exhaust) then dm/m or really I always mean dm/(m) is then lnm(vex plus e to the T) is all v then d is (-m+mlnm)*(vex plus e to the T) is all distance and acceleration is (dm/m)*(vex plus e to the T) then force is (vex plus e to the T)*(dm) also in the mass acceleration mass and acceleration are conventional in light speed if not using the kozak process or the function of function of function etc. now when I say the direct signal system I mean the derivative of the direct signal system that goes to the straight currents and vex is any function of time now force is zL then e to the zL then e to the (e to the zL) etc. and mass is (n+a)L then e to the (n+a)L then e to the (e to the (n+a)L) etc. only force does it faster then mass to pass the 'a' factor now mass is coth(force)at first then 'a' copies mass and not the other way around and 'a' is not anything but what mass is and force does not really reverse but the mass makes the end result reverse also when motion is zero the infinity kicks in on coth(f) but infinity times zero becomes zero but when the motion is finite then to infinity now L is sqrt((1/v)*(1/v)) because when mass squarerooted everthing else did also and 1/v because the radical cannot be a negative also can you see that when L goes to zero coth(f) is at infinity but you must do the kozak trick to do it also remember to go function(l) minus function(c) to get zero now 1/(function(l)) where function(l) starts as one and goes to infinity for L now for force go function(l) minus function(c) to zero then start as zero and goes to infinity but the ccth(f) is really coth(function(l) minus function(c)) since L is suppose to be the invert of what 'a' is handling as f or (coth(f)) also L has no function(c) with it because L cannot be infinity at zero!!! but force is because time speed is infinitely small!!! now go for the circles opposite (x+r)*(x+r) plus (y+r)*(y+r) is d*d then r*r+2xr+2yr+2r*r is r*r then 2xr+2yr is 2(r*r) then rx+ry is r*r then x+y=r then in a circle x*x+y*y is R*R then r*r + r*rsin(2(feta)) is R*R (2xy is sine(2feta)) then the math goes 1/(1+sin(feta)) because the angle is two times per circle then m*c*c/r now the signs amay not be not quite right so then the mass must go 1+sine(feta) then mass decreases to one away then to whatever unit times one when close thus mass increases when moving toward repeling charge and it follows the circle!!! but if it is same way then the sine(feta) will negatify and the mass will decrease to one close and increase to whatever away see attract is what I just said and repel is what I said before that!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now huge corrections biuld means x then e to the x then e to the (e to the x) etc. unbuild is e to the (e to the x) then e to the x then x or it could be higher now when 'a' is negative the function(l) reverses and the f in coth(f) reverses and in the f I mean it unbuilds and does everything opposite as the end result and the build and the and the end result is whatever the x is in e to the (e to the x) etc. and that would be (n+a)L in mass or z(function (l) plus function(c)) in force etc. now acceleration also builds and force mass and acceleration never stop building and they definitely never unbuild unless you are slowing down now when 'a' is positive acceleration subtracts and mass adds but when 'a' is negative acceleration subtracts to a positive and mass subtracts to a positive now the kozak function makes 'a' copy mass and L go 1/(function(l) and the z is really a constant value now mass is coth(f) with a build behind it see AT FIRST mass is coth(f) then the build makes it huge but 'a' is always coth(f) because it is in front of the build and the f is from the mass NOT the force build out runs mass so really the 'a' copies mass also the build of mass is F(V) then FF(V) then FFFF(V) etc. it doubles each time now the force build will cause it to build even faster then go FF(V) then FFFFFFFF(V) then 64 of them etc. like my function machine does in the accelerator now in the circles moving opposite what I ment recently is circles circling the same but opposite flow between them and same means recently opposite but same flow between them now remember the 'a' factor depends on what you make it but the c is always the speed of light also I think I want done to central magnet plate what is done to central magnet and push plate what is done to push magnet plate or the central magnet plate what is done to signal plate and the push magnet plate what is done to the relay plate you decide now remember a charge plate is intregal of current but a magnet is not now remember the 'a' does not really copy mass the f in the coth(f) copies mass since both start out as coth(f) then 'a' stays as coth(f) because of the intial equations also remember the f does the exact opposite past 'a' factor because the mirror image has reversed also you can have a plate corresponding to the active disk plates as well and you can slant the disks to wider on the central part also in accelerating light you might want to have both the electron accelerator and the light accelerator combined because you cannot actually mess with pure light without touching it so the electrons are moving under force and the light is being forced at the same time so you are breaking relativity to accelerate light but it will decelerate when leaving the apparatus now if this stuff ever get's invented the proton or electron accelerator is (the proton one is heavier magnets kozak-Sm-17 and the light one is kozak-Db-15 now for anything with light use electrons with it and combined what to do with electrons with what to do with light also for light devices use electrons since they are lighter but for Sm-17's use protons or electrons also in the powerheads the waves will increase squareroot in amplitude and squareroot in frequency to get it to do what you what regulate the signals for amplitude and the unit current insulation from main current for frequency now for signal the current is sqrt[sine*sine plus cosine*cosine] now for light saber make the electrons ocsilate in stand still and use the magnetic fields the way I said but in a circle surrounding the closest end of the electron cylinder cloud and the electrons can always come from the wires and make magnetic field for the light saber as a rim with innner magnet conflicting with outer magnet also in the function machine you can use a 1000 to a 1000 the way I said where the secondary branches where each branch is to a unit on the primary the way I said in the past or you can you can use 20 fours the primary then the secondary third fourth etc. you can do whatever you want now the f reverses but so doesn't the function(l) so f and function(l) reverse and that's it!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now in the 'a' and mass the 'a' is coth(f) and the mass is L*coth(f) then e to the L*coth(f) then e to the (e to the L*coth(f)) etc. then ofcourse 'a' turns negative etc. now if it is x then e to the x then e to the (e to the x) etc. then x is the head now f copies the head of force and only the head of force do to the behavior of the kozak equation and all this do to the behavior of the kozak equations now in gravity and antigravity remember the negative and positive gravity circle each other and one engolfs the other and vice versa so the repeling and attraction syncronize to just attraction now the 'a' does not copy mass it is only coth(f) and after 'a' factor f only unbuilds if the function(l) is building and to get 'a' factor lower build the force faster now for function machine the exponents build faster as in recycle the end to the beginning for the whole thing and all other parts and use recycles over other recycles but keep it the uniform now for two particles revolving opposite brushing and same way the two go opposite to slow down but the want to go faster to light speed absolute well they do because of vertical also plays and ofcourse the cylinders play too to get a repeling and similiarly the same brushing opposite revolving to attract again the vetical plays also to get attract also the spins play too thus attract and repel thus relativity causes the mass inertia forces and velocities and acceleration now remember the heads are only copied because the kozak equations keep the heads themselves from building now aL or -aL is head of mass and acceleration and function(c) plus or minus function(l) is head of force and when i say mass or acceleration adds or subtracts in the context of a i mean -(-aL) or -(aL) or plus (-aL) or plus (aL) now force mass and acceleration always keep building in positive direction as in x the e to the x the e to the (e to the x) etc. where x is whatever the head is also the force mass and acceleration build at the same exact rate since one is the invert or direct proportion of the other now the time it takes to go from 1*infinite or aL to 0*1 or aL equals the time of reverse 0*1 back to 1*infinite and the fast force builds the faster this process now the mass was coth(f) until it built then the coth(f) is 'a' or the original mass remember 'a' is negative in past the 'a' factor so you create infinite energy using finite energy!!!!!! now the time does not flow smoothly but in discrete amounts but the intervals are so small it seems smooth now with the muons the intervals are exactly the size of half revolution since the moun will force itself in equal only like this then the muon is one interval back in time and remember that's time the speed effects how big is the half circle and this is all responsible for the discrete energy levels in the atom the nucleus and is responsible for everything this whole blog ever talked about in an atom say three timer references all repel the same to stretch out also 1/((f*f) f is a finite number for time interval now in the tan(infinity) is one then the (tangent plus tangent)/(1-(tangent*tangent)) where one tangent not necessaritly equal to the other but two different tangents involved then use the formula to get 2 infinite is the pi/2 angle and for every infinity added is an added pi/4 angle at zero it is zero then infinity pi/4 etc. this then says at infinity you are at one then infinity then one then infinity and two more of these two cycles back to zero again!!! then the curve starts at zero then at one by infinity it starts going to infinity just for one unit because infinity times infinite by pi/2 is infinity squared then this is a hyperbola then the go like this d(sec(x)*sec(x) minus one)/dx is the sec(x) then the head of the derivative is still tangent this proves that in the universe the derivative leads to the same thing to mean the circling hyperbolas hollow and they circle to expand to maximum size in the quadrants and eight quadrants eight hollow circling hyperbolas but the unverse is not quite to infinity yet but it will reach there and when it does it goes into a second phase as in say 1/(1-f) then f will soon be one now the (3v-2)/(2v-1) only works when the numerator and denominator are positive and the thing goes to infinity as in any negative will not be readable by the phenimina for barrier reasons and same for infinity for barrier reasons in hollow how is two dimensions suface areas well we are infinitly small as I earlier proved also in the 1/r the derivative is -(1/(r*r)) then -(1/r) by force times distance then to 1/(r*r) then back to 1/r by force times distance now in the energy creation the universe is still creating energy by expanding and needing more "stuff" as I proved earlier thus energy creation is how we exist and our end will be energy distruction also the formula of e to the ((pi/2) to the (2 to ther e)) where the unit time is determined by that and the unit for distance and etc. to get e to the c of those units for universe cycling time and no two cycles are the same!!!! now why does mass increase with velocity well if larger circle the difference from center angle and angle to other particle is that much smaller so it is as if you but then the speed is that much greater then the angle is the same agsin now it is going faster at larger circle and the angle is the same thus mass would be greater because the force to keep it in is that much greater now in the d(sqr(tan(x)))/dx the is sec(x) then the d(sec(x))/dx is sqr(tan(x))!!! and the equation would say that 2tan(x)sec(x) is one thus tan(x) and al of it is a constant then x/2 is sec(x) then d(x*x/4)/dx is x/2!!! thus the derivative like I said is not variable to three dimensions now in spiral the angle is harder to change and the spiral likes to change the angle the same amount per time thus the mass is greater at larger speeds and the fields are also since behavior of mass and particles is infact the fields but when you are moving with it you are only fighting the circle and the original mass only because circle only then the fields in the ship will stay the same!!!! also I found the cosine(pi/5) it is (1+sqrt(5))/4 now remember mass is rc so the angle rate the same for larger mass!!! remember mass and fields are just the behaior of particles and the mass would increase anyway because the particle is doing a spiral!!! now light is not so at zero it has zero mass but at c it has mass and these phenomina if going infinite are really c*infinite (c is speed of light) so the difference in angle for particle and angle for center is a constant for same circle but the mass but the relative speed is particle point and the absolute is center then the adjustment is the mass then angle is same speed with larger circle to change for mass now in ellipses same rules with some variance in the circles now why tan(x) well it measures the derivative itself!!! so the speed then integrate to get y itself!!!! now in the electron the mass is smaller because there is m*c*c/r but as in the proton is larger but this all makes since but why is the mass 1836 as much in proton but the charge the same well in the charge the proton is 4*pi*r*r times 1/(r*r) like in the electron to make just 4*pi*whatever constant now the mass is smaller since in the electron r is smaller then why is everything else weak in electron to proton but not charge well it is the outer most layer when being crushed by layers the mass gets smaller now why electron same as proton but less massive well DNA the photon that releases electrons is the same type of photon that releases protons also this proves even more that particles are hollow also when energy is at one barrier of photon protons when at another electrons the higher one is farther from the photon now charge the same as in electron same distance from center and proton center is same charge and I already proved why a second ago also mass is minus r if field is repulsive instead of attractive now in the time intervals t is the independent variable then the intervals lay on each other then the centers line up and the full intervals are where the time is experienced but the vacant intervals are where the intervals experience no time it is just space and the vacant intervals also lay on each other centers lined up now in one band the vacants and fulls are checkered and the larger the full interval the more time experienced and the bands are infinitely thin and the bars connect the ends of the vacant and full intervals where they join in a particular place and there are bars for other places where this happens also and the bars are curved to velocity but straight to time itself as in to time itself not even a diagonal but the curves are c/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)) to velocity instantaneously because time is only at a single level at a time then integrate then it is c(arcsin(v/c)) but c is one unit then arcsin(v) then that would be how distorted time by v then go 1-v since time slows down with velocity not speeds but arcsin(v) is an angle to be characteristic of a circle but the vacant intervals are gone when time is at light speed see the time decreases because the intervals are smaller with independent variable t where dt is one so at light speed the intervals go to zero to make time infinite that is why everything freezes at light speed so anyway the time is maximum when the intervals are maximum length (not infinite) and vacant intervals are zero at rest so now when something see something else the speed changes with reference or full interval because the bars bend like a semicircle!!! now the velocity along a full interval and the velocity of the reference point or height must add the velocities as vectors assuming the reference is traveling parallel then that means the height and full interval are perpendicular but the height squared and the velocity squared is for a circle the radius which is constant!!! moreover it is light speed!!!!! now what if the angle changes then the angle in the interval system will also change the same amount so the speeds will add like the vectors want!!!!!! one more thing the other circles are simply the other time intervals see time keeps moving on a single band at a time or it can cross bands to change everything one interval is a tiny amount of time!!!!!!! now the less mass the larger the effect of capacitance of space the longer the interval as in space capacitance is resistance to velocity but mass counteracts it keeping velocity constant now the sqrt(c*c-v*v) is interval then interval is i then sqrt(c*c-i*i) is v this means one forms the other and ther other forms one as in mutual creation!!! now mass ofcourse is the invert and c is one and mutual light speed multiplication means times c at the beginning and then again at the end or dividing depending on which direction you go then go c/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)) which is time creates mass and mass creates time mutually in a circle one in mass and time you must invert at the beginning and then the end to account for mutual inversion now one other thing in length the distance and time go at it like time and mass only length directly proportional to time because when the interval is smaller then so is the length!!! and the length is a direct proportion because it reflects time intervals directly also when the length passes by the interval is shorter so length must be shorter by ofcourse sqrt(c*c-v*v) and always remember mutual c multiplication or division or inversion where needed only so the relativity is nothing more then space resistance and inertia!!! now inertia is caused by time is caused by inertia so again relativity is inertia!!!!!!!!! so this all explains why absolute and relative to another is always light speed now L is 1/(function(l) and f is function(l) plus or minus function(l) and mass acceleration and force always build exponentially regardless of the heads because of the relationships between the force mass and acceleration also 'a' is coth(f) also remember L and f reverse when 'a' is negative but L and f are always positive in progression and reverse also you can make function(l) do a build that is function(l) function of function(l) etc. then it will reverse when 'a' is negative also go a demassive system is e to the tan(v) then dm/m is sqr(sec(v)) then take out the dm and invert to get sqr(cos(v)) is m then go derivative of sqr(cos(v)) then add to get one so when v is infinity the tan(v) is one and the end result mass is always one and orcourse do the kozak function for tan(v) or really tan(1+v+v*v...) so then the mass stays the same and you accelerate heaven knows how fast!!!!!! now for the kozak functions in anything use a function machine as in you can use more than one function machine now in L/function(l) the function(l) builds or unbuilds and progresses or reverses in the L not the L itself and in f the plus or minus function(c) plus or minus function(l) the whole f builds and or unbuilds and progresses or reverses and for both when I say reverse the build also reverses both meaning the stuff in both 'a' and L so remember listen to everything I have said now 'a' negatifies because 'a' is the direct relation between force and mass and acceleration now if something is moving perpendicular will it be light speed with respect to the other body why yes only it is light speed perpendicular as in the vectors always change to compensate also remember the mass will increase field with respect to other body but not to itself or anything inside!!! now the mass is + to - acceleration is - to - when 'a' is 'a' to -a and when I mean is the head as in mass from aL to -(-aL) and acceleration from -aL to -(-aL) and acceleration does not switch because it is inverted in force/(acceleration) now f is the head of force also acceleration and mass build at the same rate exact because they of the relationship also force can build faster slower or the same or above but remember mass will try to out run force now in force pushing light I ment sqrt(cosine*cosine plus sine*sine) also vectors compensate so that regardless of angle the object will appear as light speed on the full vector at that angle also for force go faster than m*m is [e to the (m*m*v*v/(c*c))] to the (2 to the x) to outrun mass so in mass force and acceleration it is all in the heads!!! also when the vectors turn as well as the object direction compensate means it is as if there never was a turn!!! the turns cancel or compensate keeps up with the turning and it is as if there was never a turn!!! there was no difference in trun that is for sure!!! now the mass at one velocity at infinity system it has to be in the engine accelerator to be effective not the engine itself but the actual output acceleration!!! now in the dm/dv is e to the sin(m*v) the end result is 1-4(1+4v) is but integrate it to get v-2(v+4v*v) and the only way to progress it is by raising it to the v if I said otherwise I told you wrong now there is kozak approximations I want to talk about for intregals of e to the x*x and e to the sin(x) so y is e to the x*x then ln(y) is x*x then dy/y is d(x*x) then 1/y is d(x*x)/d(y) then go d(y)/y to get derivative automatically to cause a relative integral then get ln(y) is (x*x)/y then go y is e to the ((x*x)/(y)) then approximate selecting initial arbitraray numbers now for y is e to the sin(x) go dy/y is cos(x) then go 1/y is sin(x) then go (dy/(y*y))/sqrt(1-(1/(y*y))) is -dx then go (dy/(y))/sqrt((y*y)-1) is -dx then ((dy*dy)/(y))/sqrt((y*y)-1) is -dx then (dy/(y))/sqrt((y*y)-1) is -(dx/dy) then go integrate to get arcsec(y) is -(x/y) then y is sec(-(x/y)) now for tan(tan(x)) is y go dy/(1+y*y) is sec(x)*sec(x) then go (dy*dy)/(1+y*y) is sec(x)*sec(x) then go dy/(sqrt(1+y*y)) is sec(x) then arcsinh(y) is ln[sec(x) plus arctan(y)] then y is sinh{ln[sec(x) plus arctan(y)]} and chose values like if y is zero what is x then zero is ln(sec(x)) then sec(x) is one then x is zero or 2(n)pi n is an integer then tan(lnx) is y well arctan(y) is lnx then dx/x is dy/(1+y*y) then dx/x is (dy*dy)/(1+y*y) then then dx/(x*dy) is dy/(1+y*y) then 2*y*dx/(x*dy) is 2*y*dy/(1+y*y) then 2*(lnx)/(lny) is intregal of dy*dy/(1+y*y) is ln(1+y*y) is then e to the [2*(lnx)/(lny)] is 1+y*y then sqrt[minus one plus [x to the 2/(lny)]] is y and you can use all these approaches to any of these kozak equations now the way to approximate kozak equations is in y is function(x,y) x is fixed and then plug in y into the function get the y on the other side of the equation and then plug that in and choose the right intial values of y or it will run away x is whatever you want it also in solar panels or light to electricity systems I have put it on the beginning of the power converter or any invention with any other part of any other invention now sometimes like above you can hit the approximation exact like I did above also in the light converter have a simple rectifier with derivative circuits on all four wires and go x*x is a*a plus b*b each wire two wires per axis at opposite ends of the block as the first then the second and third etc. and final*final is x*x plus y*y plus z*z and it absorbs all the light and abstracts a lot of energy now z is 1/4 now goal is to get intregal from 1 to e of arctan(z(ln(x))) well arctan(z(ln(x))) is y turn it around and say arctan(z(ln(y))) is x and go y is e to the 4*tan(x) then lny is 4*tan(x) and when I say dy/y I mean (dy)/(y) for all cases ever anyway dy/y is 4*sec(x)*sec(x) then dy*dy/y is 4*sec(x)*sec(x) then dy/(sqrt(y)) is 2*sec(x) then dy/(2*sqrt(y)) is sec(x) then ln(sec(x) + ln(y)) is sqrt(y) then y is sqr[ln(sec(x) + ln(y))] then reinvert and go x is sqr[ln(sec(y) + ln(x))] then when x is one then ln(sec(y) + ln(x)) is one then ln(1) is zero then sec(y) is e then y is arccos(1/e) then ln(sec(y) + ln(x)) is sqrt(e) then sec(y) plus 1 is e to the sqrt(e) then -1 + [e to the sqrt(e)] is sec(y) then y is arccos(1/{-1 + [e to the sqrt(e)]} then arccos(1/{-1 + [e to the sqrt(e)]} minus arccos(1/e) is the answer now what happens when you want intregal from 1 to 2 of e to the z*tan(x) then do all the same thing but now you are combatting arctan(2*ln(x)) is y then tan(y) is 2*ln(x) then dy*sec(y)*sec(y) is 2*dx/x then dy*dy*sec(y)*sec(y) is 2*dx/x but dx*dx/(x*x) is 2xdx/(x*x) is 2dx/x thus dy*sec(y) is dx/x then go (dx/dy)/x is sec(y) then go ln(x)/y is ln(sec(y) + tan(y)) but tan(y) is 2ln(x) then go ln(x)/y is ln(sec(y) + 2ln(x)) then reinvert to get ln(y)/x is ln(sec(x) + 2ln(y)) then x is 2pi then y is sec(x) + 2ln(y) then y is 1+2ln(y) then e to the [(y-1)/2] is y then y has to be one because e to the [(1-1)/2] is 1 then x is 2 then sqrt(y) is sec(x) + 2ln(y)then then y minus 2ln(y) is sec(2) now a good trick is pick a wise number and then that y is plugged in then that one etc. then take that minus one and you should have it now these are just intregals but a new way of getting them and these methods can get any intregal one more in cos(x*x) is y go y is sqrt(arccos(x)) then y*y is arccos(x) then 2ydy is -dx/sqrt(1-x*x) then 2ydy*dy is -dx/sqrt(1-x*x) then sqr(d(y*y*y)) is dx*dx/(1-x*x) then dy is [dx*dx/(1-x*x)]/(dy to the 5th) then [-ln(1-x*x)]/(y to the 5th) is y so this is a hard one to do now be very carefull when multiplying the dy to get relative intregal make sure it is of the form dy*f'(y) equal dx*g'(x) before doing it where ' means derivative and so does d otherwise you will mess up the x y relationship also the full intervals are the time unit spans like in the muon revolution semicircle and the reason is space time coagilates like matter does when there is attraction and the dt is one to one liniar timing but really it happens to wait then go instantly now these equations can be done in a billion different ways the simplest way is the best as in make sure when doing them the y which becomes the x appears on both sides of the equation and on one side it is aLL alone and you do a recycle plug in where new value y plug in get newer value y or make sure in the end it is possible to make it this way then ofcourse y becomes x (you can have F(y) is G(x,y)) DO NOT SOLVE FOR X OR Y THEY ARE A KOZAK EQUATIONS!!! it is like saying I am going to use a kozak equation and make it non kozak (kozak is recycle) or I am going to cook some food only I am going to use the freezer to do it!!! now how to get e to the tan(z(tan(x))) z is 1/2 p is 2 then arctanp(arctan(ln(x))) is y then dy*zsec(y)*sec(y) is (dx/x)/(1+ln(x)) then dy*dy*sec(y)*sec(y) is 2(dx/x)/(1+sqr(ln(x))) then dy*dy*sec(y)*sec(y) is [sqr(dx/x)]/(1+sqr(ln(x))) then sec(y) is {[(dx/x)]/[sqrt(1+sqr(ln(x)))]}/dy then {arcsinh(lnx)}/y is {ln[(sec(y) plus tan(y)]} then (x*x-1)/(2xy) is {ln[(sec(y) plus tan(y)]} (xy means x*y in any case ever) anyway then tan(y) is parctan(ln(x)) then make the x and y shift roles as before to get (y*y-1)/(2xy) is {ln[(sec(x) plus arctan(ln(y))]} then say y is zero then one is sec(x) plus arctan(zero) then one is cos(x) then x is 2npi n is an integer but really we solved y for when x is 2npi and got one now say y is e to the (y*y(x*x)/(c*c))then c*c*lny is y*y*x*x then sqrt[sqr(c/y)*lny] is x now y*y is c*c/(c*c-x*x) then sqrt[(c*c)-(sqr(c/y))] not the same!!! that is why you do not solve for x or y or any variable in a kozak equation now the idea is to get intregals that would otherwise be impossible to get now remember there are alot of options see in dividing by dy when there is only one dy in the equation you must treat it then like an implicit equation but remember the dx is one the dy is not necessarily one also in the light converter be sure to use a simple or trick rectifier for all axises for each main axis then have the derivatives point against the diode for each wire then add all derivatives and simple rectify the derivatives before adding and ofcourse the main wires go sqrt(sine*sine plus cosine*cosine) one main wire rectify for all the waves at once the computer will not care and ofcourse this is for fusion or anything like all the other inventions I mentioned now in the accelerators when direct signal when switching and flooding between straight currents make sure the negative straight current is doing the exact same thing as the positive straight current and same with all straight currents except if you are talking of a different magnet or plate or a plate instead of a magnet or a magnet instead of a plate or passive to active etc. now flooding means more than enough current to satisfy the switch and then the freezer circuits make it the exact correct current and any invention for any other invention etc. now for every active magnet have an active plate closer to the vacuum or chamber and for every passive magnet have a passive plate closer to the vacuum or chamber now the x is sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx or whatver I said in the past and the active disk system is A*f(cx*cx) minus f(x*x) f is only a multiplying system and A is greater then one and the disk active system is slanted wider toward the center and all active system goes by the same x also remember the machine must think cx is one if going by sin(cx) as in the wavestarter and everything uses cx as the unit now the passive is closer to the vacuum then the active disk system and also slanted the same way and amount also the f(x*x) may be different then the f(cx*cx) also just make sure the particles are same distance from the disks at all times now for all magnets do to plates what is done to corresponding magnets except you may have to go x*x instead of x when it comes to distance factor in plates and for magnets you do have to go just x when it comes to distance factor also for plates you may have to use integrators also for derivatives all derivative circuits identical and there are capacitors parallel and series identical and all capacitors and branches identical and everything identical also the kozak equations representing normal equations are such that say you are giving the object a force of e to the tan(ztan(x)) z is 1/2 then the kozak equation for that tells you how to do it but outrun it which is (y*y-1)/(2xy) is {ln[(sec(x) plus arctan(ln(y))]} and in this one you can have the x as f(v) and do y or go y is f(v) and go x and then you can take out the z and what there will be an annoying constant so what so you can go past light speed and go past 'a' factor (above or below or right on light speed) now to get past 'a' factor below light speed you must recycle y faster on light speed just as fast and above slower now for light speed how far past or how close to depends on the values of y to recycle now if both rate and value agree then time travel now ofcourse passive systems may very from active systems in other ways besides one collects energy and the other uses it so whatever acceleration you are using use the kozak methods and it will stay as that function through light speed and 'a' factor now for derivatives is e to the -(t/(rc)) for capacitors and use the circuitry to solve for t and r is resistance and c is capacitance 1/c is 1/c1 plus 1/c2 etc. when series and c is c1 plus c2 etc. when parallel now resistance is parallel and series also for parallel is 1/r is 1/r1 plus 1/r2 etc. when parallel and r is r1 plus r2 etc. when series now for inductance e to the -(Lt/r) then again solve for t and the inductance equation may not be correct then go with what I said earlier a while ago now the way to penetrate a shield or block is the projectile is past light speed so in another dimension then it reappears on the other side sice it wants to go below light speed invertly as it went over now as far as that kozak equation you can do it to both y or x but for the others you may only be able to do it to just x or just y but still you can do it now if wanting to do it direct with no switches then you can do it that way where the function is not inverted and nothing is switched you can do it any way possible now in powersteppers and pulsers any current after is in no way connected to any current before except through the pulser and power stepper also when making y go faster recycle as in just use a recycle in the function machine part and what you do to the recycle of function machine part is how fast it goes also the fuction machine part can be alone and ofcourse you can us power step and freezer circuit on the recycle and you can use this anywhere now in pulsers and power steppers use simple or trick simple rectifiers and ofcourse pulsers and that's it!!!!!!

Monday, October 27, 2014

ellipse theories and other theories

all cylinder speeds infinite fast and not the spin the spin is rate of lobes moving caused by behavior of cylinders and it is light speed and behavior of c*infinite cylinders and space causes c moving lobes or really waves and you cannot combine c*infinite with the plane c because all particles would be going infinitely fast as a whole and all particles parallel to each other because cylinder produce like cylinder DNA effect now in light lobes go back and forth then in some forth and in some back mass particle same as in infinite number of particles infinite number of behaviors infinite/infinite speed and number/number as well so everyone light speed all this caused by space now in ellipses same speed twice distance half angle same area vertical makes no sweep area and energy is acceleration times distance because force is acceleration then go distance times force and force is 1/(r*r) then go intregal or times r and the 1/r in acceleration and the 1/r in energy matches now for focus go A axis B axis C from focus to center and d from axis B end to focus then squareroot of (A*A plus (B-d)*(B-d)) is B*B as in c+d is B then A*A-2Bd+d*d is zero then A*A is 2Bd-d*d then when moving B-d to get to a focus you get A*A=B*B then A=B which is a circle thus the ellipse is always one enegy level also a or A is x axis maximum b or B is y axis maximum and also d is derivative for the following bx*bx/(ay*ay) is ady*ady/(bdx*bdx) then (ady)*(ady) plus (bdx)*(bdx) is bx*bx plus ay*ay but (ady)*(ady) plus (bdx)*(bdx) is a constant in a circle!!! then bx*bx plus ay*ay is c*c (speed of light) then kc=ab since x*x/(a*a) all plus y*y/(b*b) is one then the energy level is constant the k is which energy level now because of the spin the lobes (the waves to a rope are the lobes to the cylinders) will make particles able to go different speeds but the spin does not like to change because it wants to retain energy and not take more because otherwise you would be collapsing and blowing up the particle and also all the reasons for the constant and distinct energy levels so the spin tries to keep the speed constant also m*c*c/r is acceleration then m*c*c/r times distance is force times distance is m*c*c is energy now in energy go intregal of (m*v)dv is (1/2)*(m*v*v) then go intregal of c*v/squareroot(c*c-v*v) all to dv then it goes -c*squareroot(c*c-v*v) to get -c*c plus zero all divided by 2 then mass is one unit well then (1/2)*m*v*v is really (1/2)*m*c*c but the (1/2)'s cancel to get energy equals e=m*c*c now in dm/dv is e to the sin(m*v) go ln(dm/dv) is sin(m*v) then go ddm/dm is dmdv*cos(m*v) but dv is understood in this and other past situations and future situations as well so go ddm/dm is dm*cos(m*v) then ddm/(dm*dm) is cos(m*v) then (dm)*(2/(dm*dm))/squareroot(1-(4/(dm*dm))) is dmdv then 4/(dm*dm) times 1/(dm*dm-4) is dv*dv then 1/(dm*dm-4) all plus 1/dm*dm is dv*dv then divide by 2*dm and times both sides by 2*dm to get z=dm*dm then (z-4)/z is 2*dm*v then 1-[4/(dm*dm)] is e to the 2(dm)v then kozak that to get (1/2)/squareroot((1/4)-(v)) then 1/squareroot(1-4*v) then square and do not square root since dm is in the exponent and dm*dm is in the other side of the equation to and invert becaise of 4/(dm*dm) to get 1-4(1-4*v) is the equation then notice it is a function of a function so that means if you want a double function just go (1-4(1-4(1-4(1-4*v)))) which is easier then going to the v also assume always that v is one to one liniar (slope one) unless i say otherwise!!! now the 1-4(1-4v) etc. you can only raise to the v or whatever when it is m=F(m*v) if (dm/dv)=F(m*v) you cannot but you can do 1-4(1-4v) or 4v-1 and 16v-3 and 64v-11 256v-43 as in (4 to the 2n)v minus w or whatever then the rate of build is half then inbetween is v/2 now then particles are usually circular unless engolfing then it is eliptical but this is only sometimes but sometimes ellipses can be anywhere now when I told you that merge of nucleus increases spin speed I told you wrong any merge or slide will decrease spin at closer distances by k*q*q/(r*r) speed also the spin is backwards to the velocity of the whole wheel or particle and the speed along the sine wave or elliptically distorted wave is always the same or light speed now in the cylinders the merge will increase speed and the slide will decrease it because of friction but the waves are not friction they are behavior of cylinders like a wave on a rope does not stop because of friction!!! now in an ellipse the waves stretch or contract or whatever and they clip together exactly at both ends and the velocity decreases by total in (1/2)*m*v*v energy loss and the spin by k*q*q/(r*r) and when they meet that is an energy level now do not confuse waves with lobes the lobes are for the cynlinder behavoir the waves are for the spin but they both have similiar behavior now when 'a' is negative it is not really negative it is reversed and mass increases but acceleration was decreasing but increases see the 'a' is negative but mass subtracts it and acceleration subtracts it as in mass changes acceleration does not in F/M because the total multiplication is negative because 'a' (or 'A') is reversed now go c/squareroot(c*c-(F(v))*(F(v))) is m then c*c minus (c*c)/(m*m) all is F(v)*F(v) then m*m*v*v/2 derived in terms of dmv then integrated in terms of v to get (1/2)*m*v*v is the same as dmmvv/(2dm) then then is m*m*(c*c minus c*c/(m*m))/2 then go m*m*c*c minus c*c all devided by 2 then derived in terms of m is 2*c*c*m/2 or m*c*c now the v is really (F(v)) now this function can be anything and it can be greater than c it will still work out to m*c*c Einstein was BRILLIANT!!! now when going past the 'a' it is different now you have m is e to the (-a)L then the function becomes (c*c+(F(v))*(F(v))) is m (keep in mind though the actual exponent is still positive) because 'a' is reversed doing the exact opposite because signs are changed as in the signs in all the exponents including the coth(function) are reversed and inverted but it is still coth(function) but everthing is reversed now dm is 2(F(v))*(f(v))/2 or F((v))times the derivative f(v) thus energy creation now in lobes what happens is all lobes same shape and size on a given particle and all waves same shape and size except the ellipse changes the width now in the mass exponent the L is reversed positive 'a' is reversed negative and mass is from add to subtract and acceleration is from subtract to subtract see the 'a' is negatified because the force is past the mass now 'a' is always negative or positive coth(function(l)) now 1/F(v) is L which does not change sign since you do not go negative velocity now in mass m(0) is a constant with (m(0)) times c/(squareroot(c*c+(F(v))*(F(v)))) but after the 'a' factor m(0) is more like (squareroot(c*c+(F(v))*(F(v))))/c then integrate the c/(squareroot(c*c+(F(v))*(F(v)))) that it multiplies by to get (c*c+(F(v))*(F(v))) and M is m/(f(v))then go (c*c+M*M)=m then -c*c*f(v)*f(v) plus m*m all equals -m*f(v)*f(v) and keep in mind the F(v) is now in a negative zone then quadratic formula says f(v)*f(v) minus squareroot[(f(v)to the 4th) plus 4((c/2)*(c/2)*f(v)*f(v))] all devided by 2 even though the radical is subtracted you would still create energy also then equation caught a negative by the shift or reversal now that is how much energy created but how much do you have to do to make the energy well that's easy c/squareroot(c*c-(F(v)*(Fv)) all to the (2 to the v) or past 'a' factor go c/squareroot(c*c+(F(v)*(Fv)) all to the (2 to the v) now and v being c/time and the kozak second is a little shorter then a second now how is c a unit well c/squareroot(c*c-v*v) is integrated then it is c*arcsine(v/c) but the arcsine can only reach one thus the unit is c because v must go to c to get the unit now below the 'a' factor it is m*c*c above it is that crazy quadratic equation now try c*c-squareroot(c*c*c*c plus c*c*c*c) but below the reverse reverses again to c*c plus zero and the mass is assumed to be one unit m*c*c!!! and guess what everthing is traveling at light speed!!!! so now this is heavy proof that everything is going light speed except the cylinders themselves going at infinite times light speed by space requirements also in the energy creation below light speed is destroy energy above light speed is create energy because when accelerated from zero mass the 'a' is c because it is approaching c now everything is right on light speed to make energy neither created or detroyed and when accelerating liniarly the average velocity is c/2 that is why c/2 in former equations but derivative f(v) is v to one slope to c and in former equations the light speed can be anything but space chooses light speed also when acceleration is lower time goes longer to get to light speed also sqr is square sqrt is squareroot and aTb is a to the b and t is time now mass remember is one n/infinite liniar to 2 then to 4 because the second one acts also then mass is (2Tt)-1 to get zero at t is zero and velocity is c(1-(1/(2Tt))) is v then go m*v*v then F (force) times v is c*c(1-(1/(2Tc))) F is c per time v is velocity then d of m*v*v is dm*dv*dv then that would come to 1/(2Tt) then integrated becomes 1-(1/(2Tt)) and Fv intregal is t-1+(1/(2Tt)) then at zero created energy no energy creation at t is one or light speed it is zero created energy above one created below one destroyed and the amount multiplies by c*c see the m*v*v is what it is but the Fv is measuring it to be more!!! also in the touch theory it is possible the barrier is a little further then the electron orbital so maybe nothing really touches!!! thus the energy creation and detruction theory proves that everything is at light speed!!! now one thing when cooling down the orbitals go down but the distance is down velocity is the same until it actually collapses see the lobes follow the waves but the waves are less frequency and the velocity is less speed but by a speed the waves are more frequent (not more frequency just more frequent) to conserve energy now have t equal time and have v to the v equal z and a equal acceleration then a equal gz minus k(z*z) k is a factor constant g is gravity constant now times all parts by dz/dt then divide everyone by z and then take k(z) and go dt/dv to get dz/z equals g minus k/(g-kz) then go all parts on the right of the equation times dv/dz then integrate to get lnz equals gt+ln(g-kz) the now g is only a constant as in F(z)/F(z) to get t again but not k/(g-kz) and then kz/(g-kz) is k times (e to the gt) which is set equal to m then -1 plus g/(g-kz) is m then g minus (g/(m+1)) all divided by k is all equal to z then derive z and what it equals to get 1/(1+k(e to the gt)) is 1+lnv then v is e times e to the (1/(1+k(e to the gt))) now this is not for just v to the v this is for any function where g minus (g/(1+k(e to the gt))) all divided by k is really g(e to the gt)/(1+(k(e to the gt))) is the same as F(v) if A is equal to g*F(v) minus k*F(v)*F(v) where A is dv/dt but remember the variables I used to name these things these things being name have nothing to do with the past things they named so to return to the past things now the 'a' copies m but then the 'm' is effected but then the 'a' copies that instead but the whole thing goes from infinity to one then from one to infinity also L from one to zero then from zero to one but always L/function(l) but in reverse and 'a' is whatever it does in reverse because imagine a mirror now do not take a picture of you take a picture of the image in the mirror whatever happens get's reversed see when the stuff comes out on the other side of the force it simply reverses now ofcourse mass starts out as coth(f) then 'a' kicks in as coth(f) then that effects mass to 'a' to mass etc. this is a kozak!!! see the kozak of that would be 1/(1-L) which would be what the mass but also to the (2 to the v) L starts as one so 'a' starts as infinity then L goes to zero then 1 to the infinity is 1 then backwards again so mass goes 1/(1-L) also infinite time to move not infinite energy!!! now the reason 'a' copies m is what the mass does and the Einstein relativity formula says the mass is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then the kozak formula says m*m=(e to the m*m*v*v) then the m*m*v*v is aL then m*m is 'a' and v is 1/L and 'a' is coth(function(l)) and L must invert to invert velocity to (1/v)*(1/v) or the inside of the radical will be negative!!! now remember v is realy F(v) and L is sqrt[(1/v)*(1/v)] then in pendelum it is [1+cos(a)]*[1+ln(1+cos(f))] where f is feta minus a because limit of (1-cos(a))*ln(sin(f)) is sin(a) minus zero then integrate to get -cos(a) then a constant then 1-(cos(a)) then the one is above the x axis then it is 1+cos(a) then also go -cos(a)-cos(a)*(ln(1+cos(f))) then take out the cos(a) and the x axis is below so go 1+(cos(a))*[1+ln(1+cos(f))] now in the point pendelum go 1/v is dt so less time passes if more velocity at any instantaneous point where it is liniar at any instantaneous point but not liniar as a whole on the graph now d/v times 1/d then d/v is sqrt(2-2cos(f)) is distance then go derivative is [1-cos(f)]/sin(f) then 2*sqr(sin(f/2))/sin(f) then derive then 2sin(f/2)*cos(f/2)/(2cos(f/2)*sin(f/2)) to get one and then 1/d or 1/(sin(f/2)) then go csc(f/2) then intregal is ln[(cot(f/2))+(csc(f/2))] or minus ln(sin(f/2)) plus ln[(1+cos(f/2))] then the second intregal is then multiply by 1+cos(a) because the integration partial is in terms of the cos(a) or really in terms of 'a' f is between pi and pi/2 remember the thing is upside down!!! now the partial is in terms of f then in terms of 'a' because the 'a' can be anything!!! also the derivative of mass where e function is one only works in the middle when the exponent is zero but the kozak theory works everywhere now in the proton and electron the cylinders in a proton are where r is cuberoot(1836) times as much (volume and mass 1836 times as much) then the suface area is r*r times as much for r*r cylinders where the spacing is constant because m*c*c/r is constant then the mass is proportional to r making it 1836 times the mass now when the lobes follow the waves the mass says move faster but the amplitude says you do not need to (more volume more wave amplitude) then the tangential velocity of the spin of the electron and the proton are the same but for electron 1836 times the rotations per time then the electron can afford to go 1836 times faster now in ellipse the feta says proton is going same speed as electron but the spin is such that it is same speed because waves are 1836 times amplitude and the cylinder revolutions ofcourse are c*infinite or c if the cylinders are within n/infinite parallel then to the proton the electron is moving slower and to the electron the proton is moving faster (distance to decrease angle effect) then the proton mush go relatively slower and the electron mush go relatively faster but remember both lobe types have same actual velocity as in keep actual and relative the same now in the second pendulum problem cos(a) or sin(a) is really is really cos(a/2) or sin(a/2) and cos(f) or sin(f) is really is really cos(f/2) or sin(f/2) now more or less cylinders does nothing because the number of cylinders makes the burden slower but the behavior teams up now mass just makes them taller thus same number of lobes in proton and electron and same shape and ofcourse r more width and r more height in proton since width for more mass more gradual by number of turns per time in a cylinder and it is c*infinite and for parallel cylinders' perspective c and this is all done by space then the height is larger by mass then same lobe but more gradual means higher so everything in proton to electron is amplified by radius so remember the proton and electron are ratio 1836 the mass and same tangential velocity now the rounds per time on an electron are 1836 times as much (1836 means about 1836) now in the cylinders the speed is c*infinite or c for any cylinder just like c for any particle also the velocity along the sine wave is constant so the spin must account for that also the L in mass and force is always 1/function(l) but 'a' changes it's coth(f) as well as mass so e to the aL then 'a' is m and L is (1/v)*(1/v) also the c is one as in intregal of c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or c*arcsin(v/c) where c is the unit to get arcsin(v) where v is in units of c or light speed now the length of m=sqrt(1/(1-(e to the 2v))) then 1/(1-(e to the 2v)) all plus one is dL*dL/(dv*dv) (L this time is length) then dL*dL/(dv*dv) is 1 plus (e to the 2v)/(1-(e to the 2v)) then go intregal to get v-0.5*ln(1-(e to the 2v)) then v-0.5(ln(1/(m*m)) or v+lnm is L*L in terms of (v*v) then sqrt(v+lnm) is L in terms of v or just L now for m=sqrt(1/(1-(e to the -2v))) same thing but negative so sqrt(v-lnm) is L now v-L is lnm or L-v is lnm one is the opposite the other now for v-1 plus (e to the -v/2) is derive 1-0.5*(e to the -v/2) then add one to get 2-0.5*(e to the -v/2) then integrate to 2v-(e to the -v/2) then sqrt(2v-(e to the -v/2)) as in dm*dm/(dv*dv) then add one then dL*dL/(dv*dv) now it is sqr(v) but dm*dm/(dv*dv) then it is in terms of sqr(v) but then the sqr(v) is replaced with a liniar (v would originally be sqrt) now why everything travels light speed is the energy is constant but faster creates slower destroys also there is always the 'a' factor see if you saw the show "The Island" where the person was supposedly going to the Island when in reallity they are being terminated that is what is happening to us the universe has pulled an illusionary image over us that energy is neither created or destroyed no matter what but energy is actually very vulnerable but we are going light speed and to get below light speed just reverse the function machine to do the opposite now space only allows light speed as long as 'a' factor is not broken and as long as you are not below the 'a' also I wonder if dark matter is simply matter not going light speed and dark energy simply energy not going on the 'a' factor that should be interesting now one important thing the lobes are the same shape but the lobes are larger in the proton by cuberoot(1836) they are wider and longer by that because they are wobbling the same speed and the tangential is the same but the radius is larger by cuberoot(1836) but do not get confused the cylinders are traveling the same to behave the same only the spin is the same but not the speed of the cylinders in terms of overall velocity!!! so the cylinders wobble the same and travel the same so to make the overall hypotenuse c*infinite so they wobble slower and travel faster in a proton to get these lobes see if wobble is less then overall distance per time must be larger so the lobes in a larger particle are bigger and smaller in number because the wobble is slower because of more friction with the other more of cylinders then the velocity traveling must be larger so not not get confused with that also it turns out same number of lobes larger as in taller by r and wider by r where r is cuberoot(1836) now a particle works like a planet with equator and axis and number of lobes in axis same as at equator and same as in other different particles now the lobes are as wide and high as the radius from the axis and the radius is always 1836 times as much whether comparing poles or equator and all this goes for in between poles and equator now the cylinders move up and down (negative lobes as well as positive lobes) and they are checkered lobes to make the cylinders move with respect to each other and the lobes move less in smaller poles because the feta says it is respect to axis moving the same as in closer is smaller relative speed to get relative to the axis now the lobes do not have to go the absolute because they are just the cylinders acting a certain way not actual particles now in gravity the planets change speed but in planets you are not talking about simple particles anymore but still the ellipses favor the focus to make the equation like a circle now the cylinders work that way with angle also so the lobes and cylinders are actually travel the same angle wise by messing with time by feta now in the particles the sine waves around it the lobes are following the sine waves and the spin around a particle so you can say the particle revolves around center while spinning and rotating or you can say there is no particle and the lobes and cylinders are following the sine waves and same with cylinders to lobes as lobes to waves in other words the ellectron is not engolfing the nucleus but it is definitely engolfing the nucleus also v can be any function that is consistent in the topic also when going (((e to the x*x) to the x*x) to the x*x) which is FFF(x) then the kozak of that is for the first part c/sqrt(c*c-x*x) the other parts x=(1/(-(ln(x)))) then it goes 1/(x*x) is (e to the ((c*c)/(x*x*v*v)) because I -ln(of it) then inverted it) but the second inversion for the 1/(x*x) took the negative off of the exponent then you get sqrt(v*v-c*c)/(v) is x (x is mass) and c/sqrt(1-x*x) is v then the -[(x*x*v*v)/((c*c))] is the standard progression and once again I -ln(of it) then inverted it now that would be m*m/(1-(m*m)) then -1 plus 1/(1-m*m) then the negative to get 1 minus 1/(1-m*m) is [(x*x*v*v)/((c*c))] then go dm minus dm/(1-m*m) is dm*[(x*x*v*v)/((c*c))] then go dm minus dm*d(arctanh(m)) is [(x*x*v*v)/((c*c))]*dm then go [(x*x*v*v)/((c*c))]*dm then integrate both sides to get m minus m*(arctanh(m)) is integral of [(x*x*v*v)/((c*c))]*dm but you know how if you go intregal of F(x) dAB and if B is gone then just dA well that means the integral in dB is already done!!! so take out the dm and it is integrated thus [(x*x*v*v)/((c*c))] is m minus m*(arctanh(m)) then I should say m is really x then [(x*v*v)/((c*c))] is 1-arctanh(x) is and with a triangle trick (sec(f))*(tan(f)) now everyone is converted to f because of common multiple and then everyone is multiplied by something to still stay in terms of f then with a little algebra arctanh(x) is really ln[sec(f)+tan(f)] then sec(f)*tan(f) is f minus ln[sec(f)+tan(f)] then intregal of cube of sec(f) is f then cube of sec(f) is df times df/dm or v/c as in m has the c factor but not f see f is just an angle so then df(sec(f)) is cube of sec(f) then df is sqr(sec(f)) then f is tan(f) then f is [sqrt(v*v-c*c)]/c then then intregal of v dm is intregal of 1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) then that is [sqrt(v*v-c*c)]/c then v is then a little algebra is v is sqrt(v*v-c*c)] then if v is zero then it is c!!! then this all proves that if the function machine goes e to the (x to the 2x) (which it does greater and you can do whatever with the function machine) then the light speed in this universe is zero so zero distance but the much larger one is the new c also who's to say we are not in one of these larger worlds right now also when approaching light speed liniar this all happens liniarly fast as in however fast the vehicle now when I say toward light speed I mean like a spiraling atom or something like that see everything is already going light speed so I am talking of the accelerating in a direction of an a spiral now why is mass c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) well in m*1*1/r x*x plus y*y is 1*1 then in mass it should be 1*1-x*x is y*y then sqrt y and mass and mass is liniar (m*1*1) then mass is sqrt(1*1-x*x) then mass is invert of 1*1 then go 1/(sqrt(1*1-x*x)) then c is the unit so c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) (renaming x as v) now in a rope theory the waves can be traveling in same or opposite direction but in both cases the difference is light speed also in length shrink the when acceleration getting less under light speed this is not the same thing as going into a higher dimension and traveling c*infinite fast then you can get to other parts of the universe in seconds just by breaking the light barrier as in (hyper drive like in star wars but a little more real)

Monday, October 13, 2014

huge corrections on relativity

now to get function(c) plus function(l) at l is zero you can maake it go to zero or one or anything by choosing c also in l=1/(function(l)) these two l's are different so it should be L=1/(function(l)) ofcourse this is when 'a' is positive now why do the exponents copy the main functions well at L is zero at rest the derivative is (n+a)times(e to the (n+a)L) L is zero so the e thing goes to one then n+a and same with ztimes(e to the (z)L) etc. and apply this to acceleration as well now it is not 'a' that is 1/(function(l)) it is L=1/(function(l)) because when L derives it is dL where L is sine(m) then dL is cos(m) or squareroot(1-f*f) f is force but m is 1/(squareroot(1-f*f)) thus they are inverts so whatever mass does L does invertly now in the Q(function(l)) if i said cosh(l) i said wrong it is coth(w) w is whatever but remember the contrast thing different ideas better results well then take all my information into account and the 'a' and L approach one and remember 'a' and L are inverts only at one because they are both one now 'a' goes from coth(w) to one then as negative from minus one to minus coth(w) and L from L=1/(function(l)) to one then stays as one by arcsine(w) complication see mass is arcsine(L) then L can at most be one kind of like the barrier effect now remember the sine(m) can be m since the units can be messed with and in the barrier the ddm/dv is sine(mv) has no exponential where the derivative dm/dv does well one involves just the waves the other the whole acceleration mass thing now use the math i already gave you to find out the 'A' (or 'a') goes from infinity to one then in negative from one to infinity and L goes from one to zero then in negative from zero to one and remember the negative reverses action also why is it infinity at zero well it is a function of time so infinity amount of time to move one inch also in the function machine you can move past to negative even at an asymtote without infinity but create infinity now if I said mass equals (c*v)/(squareroot(c*c-v*v)) v can be vv vh or whatever i really ment mass times v equals (c*v)/(squareroot(c*c-v*v)) v can be vv vh or whatever also n+a is a "constant" but L is a function see n+a is a constant at that point but L is never a constant now the universe is expanding faster with more "stuff" is more things trying to go light speed with respect to each other then the bigger that more acceleration as in e to the (c*x*x*x) (as in the volume effects it) now mass is rc because in m*c*c/r if r greater mass has to be to keep it constant and the derivative in terms of r is m*v*v/(r*r) if v greator then r must be to keep it constant so rv but v is c so rc also in the expansion if two balls are loose that means two light speeds if four then four light speeds but then eight will go up to sixteen then the exponent of the exponential is exponential because now thre is other stuff to create other stuff like in N then two N's then four because of the second one and the first one then if three dimensional the exponential function build speed multiplies by three the build function is like in the function machine e to the x then e to the (e to the x) etc. and the beginning exponent is cx because the start is at single stuff and c by light speed so look at both of these whichever is more accurate or even combined information now use constants and manuvers to get these theories more accurate now force derives in terms of L so partial of mass to (n+a)dL and if i said anything about derivative of mass and derivative of force i ment K(n+a)dL times e to the [K(n+a)L] for derivative of mass and KzdL times e to the (KzL) for derivative of force and e to the (KzL) for just force and e to the [K(n+a)L] for just mass and acceleration goes from e to the -(aL) a is positive to e to the -(aL) a is negative and k can be 1 or 2 or anything now expansion is intregal of e to the cx then intregal of intregal of [e to the (e to the x)] etc. and the volume only makes cx into 3cx also there is a real powerful kozak manuver that says the that is (-1 plus (e to the 3cx)) all to the 3cx i will expand on this later but the universe goes in a cycle!!! now the reason for the building intregals is the total amount of "stuff" is effects how fast the universe is growing now when integrating you can add a one or subtract one or anything constant now the first derivative is 2x*(e to the [x*x]) for speed then the second derivative is (2+4*x*x)*(e to the [x*x]) then e to the [x*x] can never be zero but 2+4*x*x can be because you can really say x*x is liniar L because you are going e to the (x*x) not e to the x see in the kozak equation you counted integration of integration etc. and function of function etc. like one not integration is independent and function is independent as in they are dependent like one so call x*x just L now the 2+4*L is zero then L is -1/2 and if derived again it is (12x+8(x*x*x))is zero then the inflection is -3/2 to y is then e to the -3c/2 for slope is zero and for concativity it is e to the -c/2 for zero now when going backwards the derivative becomes the intregal because the intregal build is reversed!!! and also the signs are reversed so now it goes slope is e to the c/2 and concativity is e to the 3c/2 now the time total time lapse is e to the 2c but the actual speed is double the relative speed in two things moving apart so e to the c then the actual x is 3cx three for volume c for light speed and x for liniar one to one increase so you will have e to the c seconds before the universe does a whole cycle and that is about 2.7182818 to the (3.2042*(10 to the 8th)) seconds no matter where we are on the cycle it is the same time for the same point on the cycle so also the time between e to the -c/2 and e to the -3c/2 is (e to the 2c)*[(e to the -3c/2) minus (e to the -c/2)] and the signs and everything happens so this is the time difference for either side for universe to contract or expand (same time) so y is the time function of x because that is what i measured not volume as in the growth takes time thus growth per x is time so dy/dx is instantaneous time so y is time I suspect the graph is e to the ellipse and the ellipse is axis 'A' c/2 and axis 'B' 3c/2 to get e to the [(4x*x+(4/9)y*y) is one/c] amazing the universe loves ellipses!!! now the reason for the intregal of intregal intregal (e to the (e to the x)) etc. is the instantaneous always has the say so in the e's now in the (e to the ((pi/2) to the (2 to the e))) the reason mass the highest exponent (not the base) must be e is the way the kozak equation goes is ln(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) is m*m then go 2*ln(mv/c) is m*m then go ln(mv/c) is intregal (m dm) then m is one and one unit of mass selectively and c is one unit of velocity because that is what the whole thing equals then liniar is ln(v) so how fast is v must cover e everytime thus in the light speed (e to the ((pi/2) to the (2 to the x))) x must be e now in the e to the (pi/2) the derivative of mass dv is m*m*m*v/(2*c*c) then mass equals e to the (m*m*v*v/(2*(c*c))) then times dv/dm then cancel to get intregal of (2*v/(2*m)) dm now velocity is always c which is one unit to go 1/(m) then e to the [(intregal of 1/m)dm] is equal to m then lnm is lnm then m is m why it works!!! so then intregal of m dm/dv is intregal of c/[squareroot(c*c-v*v)] then intregal of mdm is intregal of c/[squareroot(c*c-v*v)] dv then intregal intregal of m dm is c*arcsine(v/c) c is one is c and so go pi/2 then m is dt*dt according to acceleration and velocity where -c*c plus c*cln(m*m) all devivded by all of c*c minus c*cln(m*m) then (dv*dv)/(da*da) or d(v*v)/d(a*a) but a is decreasing making the whole dt squared thing going negative but so isn't mass squared so strip the negatives also m is e to the (m*m/2)stripping away the v's and c's thus m is e to the [intregal of [m dm]] then m is e to the intregal of dt then m is e to the t thus that is why e to the pi/2 and not just pi/2 then in the e to the c is unit distance of the number e to the [(pi/2) to the [2 to the v]] and how long it takes for light to travel that distance is the kozak second so in the e to the [c or c/2 or 3c/2 or -c/2 or -3c/2 etc.] or any of that universe expansion constraction jazz I am talking of seconds i am talking of kozak seconds now for a kozak equation this is just the general pattern get two functions equal to each other then derive f(m) in terms of mass g(v) in terms of v and then square them both or square root or say in mass you can go dm/ddm is (1/2)*(dm*dm)*ddm alldivided by ddm*ddm then ddm*ddm/(ddm*ddm) times 1/2 then that is just 1/2 or you can so for vdv is really dv*dv times 1/2 or you can switch mass denominator-other side of equation roles you can use the [dy/dx] plus y(p(x)) equals q(x) that comes in handy use any crazy tricks you want you can divide both sides by a dm or dv or multiply etc. then once you find mass (not derivative of mass) get it all by itself also dm/dv is sine(m*v) then ddm/[squareroot(1-(dm/v)*(dm/dv))] equals dmdv/(ddm/dv) equals dvdvdm/ddm then dv*dv/2 is ddm/[squareroot((1-(dm/dv)*(dm/dv))] then ddm*ddm/(1-(dm/dv)*(dm/dv)) is dv*dv*dv*dv/4 then dv*dv/4 is ddm*ddm/((dv*dv)-(dm*dm)) then dv*dv is x and dm*dm is y and ddm is d[(dm)*(dm)] and dm*dm is really d(m*m) then so now it is (x-y)/4 equals dy/dx then that yields m*m=(v-1 plus e to the -v/2) now when converting between v*v and v*v/4 the four is really two twos for each v now the purpose of this equation is to show how to do it and when you can you do all lot of possibilities also i think this equation is going to be used I'll keep you posted!!! now in the m=sine(m*v) go dm/(squareroot(1-m*m)) equals dmdv (when going times dm go dm/dv but the other side goes dm/dv then there is one dv left and put it with the g(v)) anyway times both sides by dm and for g(v) multiply mdm times 2 then replaces dm*dm then square both sides to get dm*dm/(1-m*m) equals 4*m*m*dv*dv then go 1/(m*m) all times d(m*m)/(1-(m*m)) all equals 4*dv*dv which is really (dz/(z))*(1/(1-z)) where z is m*m (you do not have to convert the d(m*m) is already there) anyway go 1/[(1-z)*(z)] is really negative(minus(1/z) plus 1/(z-1))dz then ln((z-1)/z) equals -(4*v*v) then z-1/(z) equals 1-(1/z) equals e to the -(4*v*v) then go 1-(e to the -(4*v*v) is 1/z then m is squareroot(1/(1-(e to the -(2*v)))) now in dm*dm/(dv*dv) then dv*dv is liniar so call it L then rename it v that's why you go from v*v/4 to v/2 also m*m=(v-1 plus Ke to the -v/2) now if v is zero then go dm(sine(m*v) is dm*dm/dv then (d is derivative always unless i say otherwise)anyway m*m is -cos(m*v) the only way a negative can be a square is at zero so integrate to get 1-cos(m*v) one is a constant of intregal then -1 is K then K is one!!! so then m*m=(v-1 plus e to the -v/2) now finally I'll take out the tangent one well in 1 plus v plus v*v you must get mv+1 is m (this is not an equation it is a progressor) but I am going to rest today and take this one tommorrow!!! now for tangnet I'll do that later now in the tangent of (1+v+v*v etc.) go mv=mv+1 then m is 1/(1-v) then arctangent of (m) is dv/(1-v) then dm/(1+m*m) is 1/(square(1-v)) then dm*dm/(1+m*m) equals dm*dv/(square(1-v)) then ln(1+m*m) is m*v/(1-v) then kozak of that is squareroot(1-v)/(squareroot(1-2v)) then the m is squared then v-1/(2v-1) then add one because 1+m*m then (3v-2)/(2v-1) then when v is one it is tangent(1+1+1*1+1*1*1 etc.) or tangent of 1+1+1 etc.) or tangent of infinity then (3-2)/(2-1) or one so tangent of infinity is one!!! now in multi-function say 1 is really tangent(1) and v is really tangent(1+v) then v*v is really tangent(1+v+v*v)) then function of function(v) would be (5v-4)/(4v-3) or one if v is one!!! now (c*c/m)*dm is d[(m*v)*(m*v)]/(2*dm) or dm*dv*dv/2 but (c*c/m)*dm is c*c/2 the 1/2's cancel (by dm*dm trick of m*dm) then dE is c*c and it is in terms of mass so m*c*c is intregal is E!!! now for tangent (remember v is c) but this proof says even if velocity were not always c it would still work!!! now in the tangent the velocity/the vertical ball in the ship is a tangent then at tangent is infinity feta is pi*c/2 and pi*3c/2 and pi*5c/2 etc. then the tangent is m*v and the 1/2's cancel so the energy is m*c*c if the unit is one c would it be nice if accelerating infinitly fast requaired a finite amount of energy well what if that were true well it is!!!! see when feta is infinite the tangent is one!!! (remember the c is ball is frozen the 2c is ball moves backwards!!!) anyway but how is that done well the function would be asymtotic and the 'a' factor is crossed before it reaches infinite then you are past infinite also the force would be infinite times whatever the force was times however long it takes that force to accelerate the ball to light speed or really process because the function machine is doing more than a constant or liniar see the infinite is long past and the forces are still liniar but let's see now the energy would be tangent is one so the energy must be m*c*c even if v were not always c but it is!!! now the purposes of the kozak functions are numerous but there is one specific one it is the function machine the purpose of them also is to find out just exactly what needed would be in these function machines and ofcourse in sine ones the energy would be for derivative so looking inside the function machine parts would approach v-1 and for m is sine(m) it would approach one unit of energy and for e to the sin(x) whatever energy that was!!! now the coth(f*f) is m and it is all about the derivatives since -1(dm) is df so pi/2 radians then the partial derivatives suggest that it is not m but 'a' and it is not f but function(l) also in the functions go function to the (2 to the v) v is one to one liniar since f(x) to ff(x) but now it is ff(x) so go ffff(x) also in the dffff/dfff times dfff/dff times dff/df times df the chain rules all the f's are the same so go df times df times df times df etc. thus the function to the v but the exponential increase it becomes 2 to the v also the e to the sin(m*v) not e to the sin(x) so m is e to the sin(m*v) then lnm is sin(m*v) then dm/m is dm(cos(m*v) then 1/m is cos(m*v) then (dm/(m*m))/(square root(1-(1/(m*m))) is dm*dv/m because now you are going by dm/m instead of just dm then dm*dv/m is (dm/m)/(squareroot(m*m-1)) then (dm*dm)/(2*m*dm) so now 2*dv is (dm/m)/(squareroot(m*m-1)) then 4*dv*dv is (dm*dm)/(m*m(m*m-1)) so the conversion already happened so 1/(z(z-1)) then truncate that to get (1/(z-1)) minus (1/z) then integrate both sides to get ln(m*m-1) minus ln(m*m) equals 4*v*v then go ln((m*m-1)/(m*m)) is 4*v*v then go (m*m-1)/(m*m) is e to the (4*v*v) then 1-(1/(m*m)) is e to the (4*v*v) then 1-(e to the (4*v*v)) is 1/m*m them m is 1/(squareroot(1-(e to the (2v)))) now the 2v because the dv*dv is a liniar so call it d(x) then rename that v and the two because one two for each v as in conversion says turn the four into a two!!! also notice that v must be negative now notice that when you get squareroot of a negative or w/zero it means the kozak function runs away or diverges as in c/(squareroot(c*c-v*v)) when v is light speed it diverges as in m*m is e to the (m*m) then 2 is e to the 2 then e to the (e to the 2) etc. so try to avoid negatives raised to exponents of 1/2n n is an integer and try avoiding w/zero where w is a function that does not go to zero when the denominator does now all this if trying to get a definite answer I mean if you have to then go negative to 1/2n and w/zero like in function machine you probably have to go to negative to 1/2n or w/zero now sqrt is squareroot now m is actually (coth((sqrt(df))) and it is in terms of force so df*df/df is derivative then if I square it I have to make up for it by squaring it then m is coth(f) and f is negative because force and mass oppose each other that is why it is not tanh(f) but instead coth(f) because -(1/(1-(f*f))) so then 'a' copies m etc. like everything I said in the past now in the m=sin(m*v) is where when v is positive it is the same as m=e to the sin(m*v) when v is negative as in 1/(squareroot(1-(e to the(2v or -2v)))) then when derivatives are negative it is +2v when positive -2v then same thing like a symmetry mirror then take the derivatives dm*cos(m*v)*(e to the sin(m*v)) to -dm*cos(m*v) then when cosine is (1/2)*(squareroot(2)) then the other side is (1/2)*(squareroot(2)) times e to the (1/2)*(squareroot(2)) so it is bigger negative accelerate then larger so use the 1/(squareroot(1-(e to the 2v))) for negative and positive v in acceleration and acceleration as in not positive and negative but as in acceleration positive and then to zero and then to positive again but not to worry the equations are integrating the acceleration and the kozak equations suggest that you will loose mass ofcourse you can fading into another dimension when doing that also the m*v can be all the way up to one as in 1 to e!!! so then e-1 is how much mass you are loosing and why well remember pushing an object there is no real mass it is all relativity behavior of particles or large objects also you can go [1/(squareroot(1-(e to the 2v)))] to the v or to the (2 to the v) or whatever but the (2 to the (2 to the v)) will outrun the 2 to the v to decrease mass now in the ellipse theory [x*x/(a*a)] plus [y*y/(b*b)] all equals one then a little algebra says dy/dx is [-x*b*b/(y*a*a)] then (bx*bx) plus (ay*ay) is c*c (light speed) and remember absolute and relative are both c and then the two bx's add and the two ay's add to 4*c*c so the for a square then each particle would have to go half the light speed to satisfy relative speed for light speed not to worry x is r*(cos(f)) and y is r(sin(f)) then f is feta then feta changes slower absolutely and faster relatively only to give the same formula then indeed it is always (bx*bx) plus (ay*ay) is c*c for one particle or both together only the time of angle is half for one particle then for both and the cylinders go c*infinite since c is the unit and c*infinite relative and absolute laws work the same as for just c now for the sine waved extensions in a cylinder particle works the same except cosine(x) instead of x and sine(y) instead of y now the intregal of intregal of (e to the (e to the x)) etc. f is derivative of F and I is intregal and F in -ln(e to the -x) and FFFF(x) is IIIIffff(x) now dFFFF(x)/dFFF(x) times dFFF(x)/dFF(x) times dFF(x)/dF(x) times dF(x)/d(x) but all the F's are the same and just x then (F(x)) times (F(x) times (F(x)) times (F(x)) or F(x) to the 4th is IIIIffff(x) then go top line 1/B and 1/D and (e to the x) and for bottom line go -ln(B) and -1/(D*D) and (e to the x) partial integration then leave the D's out and go -x(e to the x) minus (-x(e to the x) minus (-e to the x)) or (-e to the x) then put the D's in and -1 plus intregal[(e to the x)/(D*D)] but when converting dx to dD you went dx/(dD) and when deriving to -1/D*D once again you said dx/(dD) but then you said times dD/(dx) or e to the x then you got intregal(1) but then you said in terms of D so -1 plus D or -1 plus (e to the x) but let's see what happened to f well e to the x then 1/(e to the x) then 1/(e to the -x) so the derivative sets at e to the x then Intregal of intregal of intregal of intregal of (e to the (e to the (e to the (e to the x)))) then that would be (-1 plus (e to the x)) all to the 4th then go -1 plus (e to the x) all to the xth and note the in-betweens like if x were 3/2 or squareroot(2) or pi so now in the ellipse the rates get to be the same one is one half the other but one particle to two particles is the same ratio as the relative to the absolute I keep saying this universe loves ellipses!!! now what happens with a slow ellipse and a fast one because of different sizes well feta get's after it and you are going abolute and relative speeds the same and ofcourse so any speeds anywhere and more particles more ellipses and ofcourse circles where feta same for each but combined half as much like in ellipses and for relative feta takes twice the time as for one and combined any set of particles anywhere also m*v*v/(r) well m*c*c/(r) then that is energy to get force go m*c*c/(r*r) so force times r is now force now the m*v is not makimum of one it is c*pi/2 is x and the (2 to the (2 to the (c*pi/2))) is K then the mass is (e to the x) to the K then the acceleration can be all that the frequency and amplitude can change as I said a long time ago now c*pi/2 is over c well the mass unit is then interpreted differentlly so if v is c (the velocity of the object as a whole) then mass will be pi/2 but then the units will change also the mass depends on velocity not distance so the mass loss is (e-1) to the K per time now let's see if particles are really hollow well when a particle expands with same charge or whatever density it has that much more energy but the whatever is 4*pi*r*r times as much then the derivative is a liniar but go 4*pi*r*r times k*q*q/(r*r) times as much and the force is a constant but integrate force to get a liniar!!! now for volume all the same rules except (4*pi*r*r*r/3) instead of (4*pi*r*r) then energy is a square while the point says energy is a liniar!!! it is not solid it is hollow now what about earth or any other solids well to get same density you would have to take away more mass then again energy would not agree unless you took away mass now in the hollows remember this is important for everything to agree so that you can have lobes etc. as in if expand to 1/(r*r) times the density then the 1/(r*r) center agrees to do 1/(r*r) times as much now also remember the relative speeds for one cylinder to the others is not the same so neither is the wobbles so neither is the attractions and repulsions so that is one of the reasons why you get sine and circle cross-section lobes and it all agrees and it is sine because the relativity changes the attraction and the attraction changes the relativity by changing the speed and circular because the general relativity is in a sphere (disregarding the lobes) and the lobes point out equal in all directions because the lobes are next to each other creating a relativity attraction repulsion situation

Monday, September 15, 2014

nuclear energy

now first use recycles wherever appropriate as in use recycles in everything in function machine and all recycles have trick or simple rectifiers now all cylinders vertical with respect to poles and equator of particle now in all but one simple particle the angle of wobbles never change because it would take infinite energy to create a finite force on an infinitely small cylinder and angles of wobble are uniform but in mass particle again uniform angle of wobble because now you have coumpounded the problem with an infinite number to change but in mass particle angle of wobble is not uniform and it changes uniform liniar rate from perfect vertical at poles to perfect horizontal at equator and the liniar change is gradual between them and remember no one cylinder changes but difference between them now the simple particles activate verious parts of mass particle and mass particle is a simple particle like gravity charge nuclear any field then ofcourse sister fields etc. and if an entire mass particle wants to do something the other particles are signals as in the mass particle says follow a circle because of relativity light speed complications then one particle attracts the mass then dominoe effect then all other cylinders in mass are now felling the pull see a few cylinders by small force to the ones n/infinity off of that to the next as in push the light rock at the top and the whole avalanche happens now in the relativity equation the mass is f(m) (part of the function is times v) then f(f(m)) but now m is f(f(m)) so now it becomes f(f(f(f(m))))) so then go c/[square root(c*c-v*v)] all this to the (2 to the v) v is liniar also in function machine recycle the whole main one and the whole offset one etc. now in nuclear forces go m*vv*vv plus k*q*q/r is m*c*c energy then take the other m*vv*vv plus k*q*q/r is m*c*c and subtract (the signs may be errors) m*vv*vv is minus k*q*q/r then vv is velocity towards particle and vh is velocity perpendicular to particle field lines then m*vv*vv is minus k*q*q/r but vv is dr (derivative of r) then m*vv is k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)} then integrate plus a constant that is the mass m1 only at that point where mass is c*vv/[square root(c*c-vv*vv)] d(vv*m) first by vv then mass to get c*cln(m) equals k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)*(dr)} d(vv*m) but m*vv is infact k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)} then go square of [k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)}] divided by two now mass is k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)*(dr)} buy division and substitution now square of [k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)}] divided by c*c in ln(m*m) then m=[e to the {(m*m*v*v)/(c*c)}] and the kozak of that is m equal c/[square root(c*c-dr*dr)] then there was a constant mass at that point so it is now c/[square root(c*c-dr*dr)] times (e to the m1) so now e to the [k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)}] is mass then ln(m) is 2*k*q*q/(r(dr)) but mass is 3*k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)*(dr)} or 3*k*q*q/(r*r*(dr)) and dr is in terms of r so go ln[3*k*q*q/(r*r)] is 2*k*q*q/(r) but mass is c*vv/[square root(c*c-vv*vv)] then is square root of vh*vh or vh and vh is 1/(r) because m*v*v/r is central pull then force is what 1/(r*r) but smaller radius square bigger force so go slower for r now go 2*k*q*q/(r) equal m times 3*r/2 but r*c is m then r is m/c then so go 3*m*m/(2*c) is ln[3*k*q*q/(r*r)] final formula notice how nothing actually happens until r is tiny and relativity is high characteristic of nuclear forces also c*dr/[square root(c*c-dr*dr)] dr to one but v*v is plus dr*dr is c*c but v*v tries to approach c*c plus one but c*vv/[square root(c*c-vv*vv)] prevents that now for inventions use fall to make the particles slush to give thruster energy and not to worry the particles have the electric and magnetic fields now vv is dr/dt but remember i divided by vv to get m*vv then go dt/dr to get dr/dr or one also remember if mass barely changes then 1/(dr*dr*dr) equals derivative of m*vv*vv then derivative of energy must be 1/(dr*dr*dr) and derivative of energy is force thus force is 1/(r*r) then force times distance or r is 1/r!!! also if mass changes less then m1 is closer to zero becuase the change integrates smaller but if mass changes greater then you have the nuclear energy now when the electron goes fast why does it have less mass well there are fewer mass particles but why faster well fewer mass particles means larger quantities of velocity for energy exchanges also when integrating you add the constant m1 then exponentialize where e to the m1 is multiplying see nuclear force has tiny conventional force but huge m1 but electrical tiny m1 large conventional and conventional is the part that goes 1/(r*r) and ofcourse multiply conventional by k*q*q and q is charge and gravity is weak in both now in the ln[(3*k*q*q/(r*r)] when r reaches above q*[square root(3*k)] it passes a barrier as in ln(1) but outside the barrier the 3*m*m/(2*c) is positive while the ln[(3*k*q*q/(r*r)] is negative because m*m is positive so there is no phenomina there but when r is below then the ln[(3*k*q*q/(r*r)] is positive then there is contact now when the mass is a unit the unit of mass to use is the mass in the phenomina that is relative mass see the object to measure has the relative unit mass so in ln[(3*k*q*q/(r*r)] take q*[square root of (3*k)] and multiply by mass of whatever is in the 3*m*m/(2*c) now remember the object increases resistance for the mass and the c/(square root(c*c-v*v) is the time reference as in time does it all anyway in nuclear forces when you are above barrier the nuclear forces do not do barely anything but below barrier they can influence effectively now right on barrier it starts also their is a third factor see for gravity and the factor for the spiral speed where the object is circled but also liniar movement is where m is c/square root(c*c-v*v) then kozak that into m*m = e to the m2 times e to the (m*m*v*v/c*c) then ln[m*m] is (m*m*v*v/c*c) plus m2 if the m2 is big then the force is strong at high velocities now m2 is whatever mass value is at that point just like m1 but a double function of exponents is what happens in m2 now what determines these constants is the amount and nature of the cylinders in the particle and there are different kinds of the mass particle or any particle now m2 is really m1 and there is no double exponent and e to the m1 multiplied once see if m equal e to the (m*m*v*v/c*c) is kozaked then it goes c/(square root(c*c-v*v) but if going cm then it is 1/(square root(1-v*v) and velocity is squeezed as in c/(square root(c*c-v*v) goes to 2 if v*v goes to c*c*3/4 but in 1/(square root(1-v*v) it is already two at just 3/4 now this time the vh is going to zero and m1 equal c/(square root(c*c-v*v) then c/vh where vh is (square root(c*c-v*v) so e to the m1 is now e to the c/vh now the third constant B in final integration is just e to a constant now m*v*v is k*q*q/r then m = e to the (m*(k*q*q/(r*r))) then kozaked is conventional rc/[square root(r*r*c*c-k*q*q)] times e to the c/vh times e to the B constant now the width of cylinders is for barrier the height is for conventional the number is for mass velocity and distance of barrier is on all these now in 1/(dr*dr*dr) and 1/(r*r) the one is really k*q*q and the cylinder phenomina may each have connections with other field phenomina also the distance is r then the circle relative theory says m*v*v/r and it is a force the energy/r is force but it is m*c*c and it is a constant so I will use one so 1/r but that is force but derivative is negative 1/(r*r) and derivative of force is really what the force is doing at that point which is negative 1/(r*r) and the B constant turns it to k/(r*r) and it also turns to k*q*q/(r*r) because q is the relativity behavior of the particle that sets the course for the relative behavior of other particles around it now in other dimensions like nine for an example their will be n-2 constants as in m1 and B for n=four dimensions and there will be many more behavior factors involved!!! also why does length shrink by (square root(c*c-v*v))/c well that is 1/m then at a diagonal circle going to light speed liniar there is the perpendicular p and liniar l then square root (p*p+l*l) is c the p takes into account the change of l in light speed but it shrinks when close to light speed when variation get's small by 1/m now for light the liniar is magnetic and the p is electrical but light is at light speed because at rest it has no mass and the force is square root (p*p+l*l) to get sine*sine plus cosine*cosine times k to get constant force see any particle is a wave!!! also space and and distance between particles shrink by relativity relations and similiar reasons now in the m*v*v remember you must go m*v*v is k*q*q/2r at first because of (1/2)m*v*v energy complications now in cylinders I told you a double wrong see cylinders absolute speed is infinite see mass is proved to go to light speed as long as the particle is not n/infinite determinate that pulls the equation out of shape but when parallel they go light speed when wobble and orbit are combined so when parallel the angle of contact is n/infinite with light speed but when not then finite with c times infinite then the lobes are in shape finite since cylinders also go infinitely fast now mass is c/(square root(c*c-v*v)) then the intregal is c*arcsine(vv/c) see in the previous one fv/c all in itself was a unit anyway vv is vertical velocity and intregal of c*arcsine(vv/c) dm is intregal of m*dvv*dm or arcsine(vv/c) equal intregal of dm*dm*dvv/2c then arcsine(vv/c) is dmdvv/2c then that is d(zv/zh)/2 v is vertical h is horizontal z is unit m is c/(square root(c*c-v*v)) but c turns to zv then go derivative of (1/(square root(1-zv*zv))) but remember you want dm*dzv so now derivative zv/(square root(1-zv*zv)) now say sine d(zv/zh)/2 is zv then 2*zv*zh is sin d(zv/zh) then sin(2feta) is sine d(zv/zh) then 2feta is d(zv/zh) then 2feta is d(vv/vh) feta plus c is vv/vh so then zh would be square root (1/(c*c+1)) then m*v*v or m/(c*c+1) is k*q*q/r then (c*c+1)/m is r/(k*q*q) then (c*c+1) then mass is one then [square root(c*c+1]]/(c*c) times k*q*q is r then remember zv is multiplied by c by conversion complications now in the pendulum go 2cos(f) minus 2cos(a) all square rooted then derive dd/dv then 2sin(f)/[square root[2cos(f) minus 2cos(a] for dv then the result is cos(f) minus cos(a) all over sin(f) then integrate dd/dv is dt get t then go 1-cos(a)timesln(sin(f)) all plus cos(a)ln(1 plus cos(f)) now the a goes from pi/2 to zero and the f is feta plus a and the f goes from a to zero thus the end result is 1 plus cos(a) all times the following:1 plus ln(1 plus cos(f)) as feta goes to zero from minus a thus in a pendulum 2 times (1+ln2)) times 4 times square root of (l/g)is the time now the zv zh this was for descrete energy levels in an atom or anything now the reason is is nt true for gravity is because it is just in tiny amounts!!! now here is why i only said feta is (zv/zh) instead of feta times feta see intregal of d(zv/zh) is intregal of 2 feta but make them both in terms of d(feta) then d(zv*zv/(zh*zh)) then feta times feta is (zv*zv/(zh*zh)) then feta is zv/zh now the zv/zh is zv zero well no the instantaneous circle pull means it is accelerating toward the center by m*v*v/r!!! also why does the cylinders decelerate so instantly to light speed and back up well it is infinitely small by a cube!!! also now elipses is where the c in feta plus c changes now when introducing more then one particle the c or the amount of c change (not the pattern) changes because of mass number and the velocity of a cylinder nonparrallel is c*infinite and c at parallel now gravity is where c is zero so at infinite feta is zero but then the force is zero but this totally makes the equation so that it is satified no matter what and for all constants in any number of intregals they can be zero now it is also possible for constants to also be negative as well as positive as in the reverse barrier means it attracts outside but not inside but the distance squared thing always works so is it possible that nuclear fields only dominate at small distances because charge shuts down at small distances now in charge when the distance squared is constant then the constant is two constants to zero but inside not the case also to make a shield use a positive barrier system generated by mass acceleration in particle accelerators in the three perpendicular directions now when something travels fast toward the shield then the mass behaivior picks up and the shield becomes effective at smashing it!!! now for touching why repel horribly when touching matter well the charge field has a number of constants per barrier where the liniar starts at zero and these barriers can be related to descrete energy level phenomina anyway the touch is where you have passed one of the charge barriers and then for fusion another barrier and for antimatter action another as in you can make the fields in such a way that the barrier is a less change or no change to fuse them!!! now why all the energy when fuse or fission well in fusion you are already pushing so hard it snaps or the nuclear is strong and for fields to be discovered there is a lot of possibilities!!! now in all my theories go by the center of the particle whether above or below barrier etc. now the chemical bonding is an example of barriers effected by number of electrons and therefore mass or any of my theories also in the nucleus a lot that happens with electrons also happens with protons and neutrons in the nucleus also electrons are closer by barrier theories and protons and neutrons when outer parts by barriers also when the particles are between the two barriers the nucleus becomes unstable also the limit of number of barriers is limitless but according to one of my following theories ther number of electrons is finite limit see when the distance is small the field works but by the mother barrier or the barrier that is at the end of all the other barriers is a certain distance out to make it impossible past that point now in the infinitely fast skips between energy levels the skips are not infinite but just in another dimension because of the light speed thing where the mass changes rules to shift between to break the light speed relative rules to go into higher dimension which would be infinitely fast only to these dimensions as in the time for next dimension set it is finite now in the mother barrier the constants say cancel say at 16 minus 8 minus 4 minus 2 minus 1 [or they can all be pluses and the first minus] but the 1 is the smallest unit so it must cancel to zero next by a minus 1 [or plus 1] now the levels are of energy so the smallest is (m*c*c) where m is the mass now if smaller then what to cancel to zero it is a clip meaning it says what am i going to do with the minus [or the plus] well the barrier says no minus (or plus) tolerated as in the mother barrier is barrying the barriers!!! and same in nucleus now in the muons what happens is one is in two places at once because the relativity makes it right on the mark of light speed then it is vibrating between the two dimension sets and appearing and reappearing in two places now for time travel the time at past light speed is to another dimension set so you go through that world to reverse your life and then land in the old home town but the other of you left and grew up but now you are back and what you relive your life but you do not know you are reliving you life because your memory reversed and everything is reverse see to go back in time you would go reverse time at whatever speed or forward similiar deals now to do it you have to approach light speed and 'a' factor at the same time will simultaneous hit now the reason it is if only to light speed you will hit dimension without being parallel to 'a' factor and vice versa but when parallel the speed of light dimension agrees with 'a' factor so everything reverses but now you can not go forward in time because that has not been carved out yet!!! now in the system to aborb light into electricity it can be used as a cloaking device so nothing can track the object not radar or infrared or nothing or freezing system to make the air winter cold or anything also in time the parallel universe is where the light speed or greater lines in the waves are parallel and waves will make the other lines mirror it like a reflection in an actual mirror then that is how you go back in time and they can be parallel to not touch but still absorb the energy or joint touch and absorb the energy see time reverses in all the parallels and the parallels make same internet pattern as forward now for the 'a' factor to the light speed there is a square root(zero minus x*x) when x is zero there is a solution!!! now you can go forward in time from the back in time you did just not uncharted territory!!! now when the exponents negatify when 'A' os negative what that really means is in mass 'N' and 'A' and 'L' all negatify in themselves and in acceleration also (z is included) and in acceleration the whole thing also negatifies and in force both 'N' (or 'Z') and 'L' negatifies and when mass does all that to just that much force and acceleration also does all that to just that much force then energy creation also in AL equals one the 'A' and 'L' negatify to still be one at that instant also when L*L then 2*(N+A) for derivative and in the hollow central magnet accelerators the particles will help slow way down needed velocity to go through time now the reason acceleration exponent also makes a third negative shift is force devided by mass abruptly changes the multiplying rate when force passes mass but mass and force themnselves do not abruptly change also when going a liniar as in anything like that acceleration behavior has already changed!!! also L is really function(L) to the 'A' and 'L' also some functions will be zero so zero/zero now remember in each powerstepper to use the trick or simple rectifiers one before the unit one before each first coil one after each second coil and one after the unit if i added anything or said different i told you wrong and in each pulser one before first coil and one after second coil again if i added anything or said different i told you wrong and the coils themselves are the way i said also when 1/L is one define one so it goes from zero to zero/zero or [1/L] times L see anything is measured where the unit is the quantity the phenomina carries now in the sine wave machine use the wavestarter for the input and insulate a branch of it for the integrated output that did not become a main current and for power steppers and pulsers after each put it through an inverter with constant unit current that is insulated and capacitated and tiny and then integrate with the supply also with a similiar inverter to make perfect liniar then to make the liniar go down have a negative system with identical systems and when going up a derivative stops signal of one and when going down a derivative stops signal of the other also remember the frequency of sine waves increases with power steps with power steppers also remember to make the wave the appropriate length for the power output as in if power is twice then divided length by two and this will happen anyway also if a wave is to be negative then have an entire entity with negative and the derivatives stop each other and for all positive you do not have t do that and for powersteppers and pulsers similiar and by waves for this i mean liniar and put the insulated and main in series in the sine wave machine also remember to use the first simple or trick rectifier after the other stuff and the last simple or trick recitifer before the other stuff also remember some of my ideas were errors but feel free to use them if you want now in any input output system including the sine wave machine use a parallel circuit the way i showed you also in series with the liniar waves i mean a parallel circuit with insulation series with the main liniar waves in the main item now in all recycles use a trick or simple rectifier before and after the front and backs of each recycle and when making anything keep it uniform the recycles everything also for any recycling activity you can make a recycle go over two smaller recycles etc. also the reason for all light having same amplitude is in the photon revolvings m*v*v/r well v is the same and r is twice when mass is twice and v is always c also in a pendulum with one point to attract the ball and a solid lever then instead of 4 times square root of (l/g) go k*q*q/(r*r) r is how far the attractor is from the ball when the ball is at the bottom of the pendulum also go times the following 1 plus cos(a) all times the following 1 plus ln(1 plus cos(f)) go f/2 and go a/2 now for m = e to the sine(m*v) the kozak of that is m = square root (1 plus (e to the (2*v))) long story but you can see how effective these kozak equations are once the values are decided now in a barrier shield you can use particles light with electrical light absorbers or plane magnetic or electric or any fields and go sine*sine is x then go ln(3*k*q*q/(x*x)) equal 3*m*m/(2*c) or whatever i may have the formula wrong or just go sine etc. or whatever now in magnetism the funnel increases by areac r*r with distance r and the intensity by 1/r then you get r then r/(r*r) or 1/r now cylinders form only in one direction for the same reason all waves on the same rope point velocity wise in the same direction and they wobble because the waves around a rope rotate on an axis also the electromagnetic fields are because the waves move on the rope when perpendicular waves over lap it and the energy direction changes also in a wheel the outer point traces a cycloid well the derivative of y in terms of x is 1/(square root(4*v*v+1)) and intregal of y in terms of x is 0.5 times v times arcsinh(2v) minus all of the following 0.25 times square root(4*v*v+1) and y in terms of x is just 0.5 times arcsinh(2v) also remember brackets before exponents before multiply and divide before adding and subtracting also the length is 2 times sqaure root(4-2*y) and ((dy/dx)*(dy/dx)*y plus y) is 2a also the distance of the shield to be one must be sine for example is one unit when x is q*square root(k) also what happens when charge is 1/r of magnetism the one is intregal of other causing a reverse of the other effects on it also the funnel does not exist unless the cylinder travels as in if the tractor is pointing its wheels in a direction it does nothing but if the tractor is rolling around the whole field 1000 times a second then it is effective!!! now y is equal to 1-cos(v) and x is v-(sin(v)) and sqrt means square root now 0.5 times arcsinh(2v) is really 0.5 times ln [2v+sqrt(4*v*v+1)] then if that is zero when y is zero it is a sine wave and it is "slipping" if negative then you are creating and destroying energy if positive then destroying and creating energy (I put a marker on the surface equator of an electron or proton) but at zero neither and typically the energy is the same but if spin agrees with revolving in an atom with an electron then the sine wave and the spin gets faster in when closer to nucleus by encouraging theory which says when spins are merging they make each one faster by "friction" anyway the revolving also faster by potential and kinetic theory and if not sine wave then electron wants to be somewhere else and this only happens in descrete places now for protons the spins slow when revolving wants to increase then only one descrete level repel will mean spin slow attract it speeds up now in the theories some of my theories contrast because I am trying to think a little outside the box to get an answer see it makes sence that when v is zero y is zero by 1-(cos(0) to get zero and in a sine wave y is zero when v is zero also the relativity theory says if not sine wave then distorted wave then energy destrying or creating because of change of frequency also in charge attraction the charge uniform density says that the force on the point is pi*r*r*r/(R*R) for solid sphere and for hollow sphere is 4*pi*r*r/(R*R) see r means radius of sphere and R is distance from center of sphere so if the charge density is 1/(4*pi*r*r) as much you get the 1/(r*r) factor!!! the particles are indeed hollow!!! now the universe originally had one of everything then the DNA theory says they copied and created energy!!! now in sphere attracting sphere if solid it is costant times r if hollow constant only and the 4*pi*r*r is 1/that for the 1/(r*r) factor which is right and for the theory the lobes average out to a sphere and it has to be infinitely thin to not be part solid also the sine waves in the cycloid are numbered greator with outer levels and the lobes must be sine the problem with sine*sine is energy will only be created now dm/dv is sin(m*v) length of curve is square root(v+(e to the -(v/2))) now for dm/dv is e to the (sin(m*v)) the m is suqare root(ln(sec(v)+tan(v))) and ddm/dv is sin(m*v) m is -2+squareroot(4+2v)and length is square root (v+0.5*(ln(4+2v))) and m=sin(m*v)is 1/(square root(1-(e to the -v))) these are a few kozak equations also in the touch theory the electron and proton charges cancel but at touching the barrier effect will be differences in fields and in no electrons the barriers will not produces the constnats right so the 1/(r*r) kicks in!!! now in the piston engine in a past invention do not use charge on pistions use a magnet rotater in the cranck shaft or any gear or chain and then any circuitry of mine to make the valves and sparks extremely efficient now in lobes in one theory the lobes are ratio whole number to one in another whole number to whole number because more than one view will target the mysteries better also the sine waves are such that say ddm/dv is sine(m*v) where the ddm/dv will cancel the sine(m*v) providing m*v is one and guess what the m will be zero if v is zero otherwise you are creating and destroying energy!!! also for exponents where the atom is accelerating if cosine minus sine because perpendicular is zero then m is zero when v is zero or creating and destroying energy so you must go past the 'A' factor to create energy now in these equations when you manipulate the variables you create energy!!! why because when v is zero then acceleration is zero then when 'A' is tiny by one divided by function the unit on is an infinitely small unit but if 'A' is function itself then v is not zero then m is not zero!!!!! now in recycles use trick or simple rectifers before and after beginnings and ends and also midway on recycles also in e to the (n+a)l becoming al the l stays at one at a is function(l) because l cannot shrink when everything is increasing!!! also in any function go function(l) minus function(c) where c is such that function(c) is function(l) at rest also remember the relativity is based on the pythagorean function there are many other functions!!! also correction when v is zero and m is not then there is a constant in the integration to get created energy see in al is one v is zero when m is zero but in al is function of l then v is zero when m is not!!! also n approaches zero also when al is one then the energy is constant but not in function(l) one is a constant not function(l)!!! also i told you very wrong above al is Q(function(l)) and 'a' is Q(function(l)) and below 'a' is Q(function(l)) and l is one/function(l)) where Q is cosh(l) or something like that i told you right earlier