Monday, October 27, 2014

ellipse theories and other theories

all cylinder speeds infinite fast and not the spin the spin is rate of lobes moving caused by behavior of cylinders and it is light speed and behavior of c*infinite cylinders and space causes c moving lobes or really waves and you cannot combine c*infinite with the plane c because all particles would be going infinitely fast as a whole and all particles parallel to each other because cylinder produce like cylinder DNA effect now in light lobes go back and forth then in some forth and in some back mass particle same as in infinite number of particles infinite number of behaviors infinite/infinite speed and number/number as well so everyone light speed all this caused by space now in ellipses same speed twice distance half angle same area vertical makes no sweep area and energy is acceleration times distance because force is acceleration then go distance times force and force is 1/(r*r) then go intregal or times r and the 1/r in acceleration and the 1/r in energy matches now for focus go A axis B axis C from focus to center and d from axis B end to focus then squareroot of (A*A plus (B-d)*(B-d)) is B*B as in c+d is B then A*A-2Bd+d*d is zero then A*A is 2Bd-d*d then when moving B-d to get to a focus you get A*A=B*B then A=B which is a circle thus the ellipse is always one enegy level also a or A is x axis maximum b or B is y axis maximum and also d is derivative for the following bx*bx/(ay*ay) is ady*ady/(bdx*bdx) then (ady)*(ady) plus (bdx)*(bdx) is bx*bx plus ay*ay but (ady)*(ady) plus (bdx)*(bdx) is a constant in a circle!!! then bx*bx plus ay*ay is c*c (speed of light) then kc=ab since x*x/(a*a) all plus y*y/(b*b) is one then the energy level is constant the k is which energy level now because of the spin the lobes (the waves to a rope are the lobes to the cylinders) will make particles able to go different speeds but the spin does not like to change because it wants to retain energy and not take more because otherwise you would be collapsing and blowing up the particle and also all the reasons for the constant and distinct energy levels so the spin tries to keep the speed constant also m*c*c/r is acceleration then m*c*c/r times distance is force times distance is m*c*c is energy now in energy go intregal of (m*v)dv is (1/2)*(m*v*v) then go intregal of c*v/squareroot(c*c-v*v) all to dv then it goes -c*squareroot(c*c-v*v) to get -c*c plus zero all divided by 2 then mass is one unit well then (1/2)*m*v*v is really (1/2)*m*c*c but the (1/2)'s cancel to get energy equals e=m*c*c now in dm/dv is e to the sin(m*v) go ln(dm/dv) is sin(m*v) then go ddm/dm is dmdv*cos(m*v) but dv is understood in this and other past situations and future situations as well so go ddm/dm is dm*cos(m*v) then ddm/(dm*dm) is cos(m*v) then (dm)*(2/(dm*dm))/squareroot(1-(4/(dm*dm))) is dmdv then 4/(dm*dm) times 1/(dm*dm-4) is dv*dv then 1/(dm*dm-4) all plus 1/dm*dm is dv*dv then divide by 2*dm and times both sides by 2*dm to get z=dm*dm then (z-4)/z is 2*dm*v then 1-[4/(dm*dm)] is e to the 2(dm)v then kozak that to get (1/2)/squareroot((1/4)-(v)) then 1/squareroot(1-4*v) then square and do not square root since dm is in the exponent and dm*dm is in the other side of the equation to and invert becaise of 4/(dm*dm) to get 1-4(1-4*v) is the equation then notice it is a function of a function so that means if you want a double function just go (1-4(1-4(1-4(1-4*v)))) which is easier then going to the v also assume always that v is one to one liniar (slope one) unless i say otherwise!!! now the 1-4(1-4v) etc. you can only raise to the v or whatever when it is m=F(m*v) if (dm/dv)=F(m*v) you cannot but you can do 1-4(1-4v) or 4v-1 and 16v-3 and 64v-11 256v-43 as in (4 to the 2n)v minus w or whatever then the rate of build is half then inbetween is v/2 now then particles are usually circular unless engolfing then it is eliptical but this is only sometimes but sometimes ellipses can be anywhere now when I told you that merge of nucleus increases spin speed I told you wrong any merge or slide will decrease spin at closer distances by k*q*q/(r*r) speed also the spin is backwards to the velocity of the whole wheel or particle and the speed along the sine wave or elliptically distorted wave is always the same or light speed now in the cylinders the merge will increase speed and the slide will decrease it because of friction but the waves are not friction they are behavior of cylinders like a wave on a rope does not stop because of friction!!! now in an ellipse the waves stretch or contract or whatever and they clip together exactly at both ends and the velocity decreases by total in (1/2)*m*v*v energy loss and the spin by k*q*q/(r*r) and when they meet that is an energy level now do not confuse waves with lobes the lobes are for the cynlinder behavoir the waves are for the spin but they both have similiar behavior

Monday, October 13, 2014

huge corrections on relativity

now to get function(c) plus function(l) at l is zero you can maake it go to zero or one or anything by choosing c also in l=1/(function(l)) these two l's are different so it should be L=1/(function(l)) ofcourse this is when 'a' is positive now why do the exponents copy the main functions well at L is zero at rest the derivative is (n+a)times(e to the (n+a)L) L is zero so the e thing goes to one then n+a and same with ztimes(e to the (z)L) etc. and apply this to acceleration as well now it is not 'a' that is 1/(function(l)) it is L=1/(function(l)) because when L derives it is dL where L is sine(m) then dL is cos(m) or squareroot(1-f*f) f is force but m is 1/(squareroot(1-f*f)) thus they are inverts so whatever mass does L does invertly now in the Q(function(l)) if i said cosh(l) i said wrong it is coth(w) w is whatever but remember the contrast thing different ideas better results well then take all my information into account and the 'a' and L approach one and remember 'a' and L are inverts only at one because they are both one now 'a' goes from coth(w) to one then as negative from minus one to minus coth(w) and L from L=1/(function(l)) to one then stays as one by arcsine(w) complication see mass is arcsine(L) then L can at most be one kind of like the barrier effect now remember the sine(m) can be m since the units can be messed with and in the barrier the ddm/dv is sine(mv) has no exponential where the derivative dm/dv does well one involves just the waves the other the whole acceleration mass thing now use the math i already gave you to find out the 'A' (or 'a') goes from infinity to one then in negative from one to infinity and L goes from one to zero then in negative from zero to one and remember the negative reverses action also why is it infinity at zero well it is a function of time so infinity amount of time to move one inch also in the function machine you can move past to negative even at an asymtote without infinity but create infinity now if I said mass equals (c*v)/(squareroot(c*c-v*v)) v can be vv vh or whatever i really ment mass times v equals (c*v)/(squareroot(c*c-v*v)) v can be vv vh or whatever also n+a is a "constant" but L is a function see n+a is a constant at that point but L is never a constant now the universe is expanding faster with more "stuff" is more things trying to go light speed with respect to each other then the bigger that more acceleration as in e to the (c*x*x*x) (as in the volume effects it) now mass is rc because in m*c*c/r if r greater mass has to be to keep it constant and the derivative in terms of r is m*v*v/(r*r) if v greator then r must be to keep it constant so rv but v is c so rc also in the expansion if two balls are loose that means two light speeds if four then four light speeds but then eight will go up to sixteen then the exponent of the exponential is exponential because now thre is other stuff to create other stuff like in N then two N's then four because of the second one and the first one then if three dimensional the exponential function build speed multiplies by three the build function is like in the function machine e to the x then e to the (e to the x) etc. and the beginning exponent is cx because the start is at single stuff and c by light speed so look at both of these whichever is more accurate or even combined information now use constants and manuvers to get these theories more accurate now force derives in terms of L so partial of mass to (n+a)dL and if i said anything about derivative of mass and derivative of force i ment K(n+a)dL times e to the [K(n+a)L] for derivative of mass and KzdL times e to the (KzL) for derivative of force and e to the (KzL) for just force and e to the [K(n+a)L] for just mass and acceleration goes from e to the -(aL) a is positive to e to the -(aL) a is negative and k can be 1 or 2 or anything now expansion is intregal of e to the cx then intregal of intregal of [e to the (e to the x)] etc. and the volume only makes cx into 3cx also there is a real powerful kozak manuver that says the that is (-1 plus (e to the 3cx)) all to the 3cx i will expand on this later but the universe goes in a cycle!!! now the reason for the building intregals is the total amount of "stuff" is effects how fast the universe is growing now when integrating you can add a one or subtract one or anything constant now the first derivative is 2x*(e to the [x*x]) for speed then the second derivative is (2+4*x*x)*(e to the [x*x]) then e to the [x*x] can never be zero but 2+4*x*x can be because you can really say x*x is liniar L because you are going e to the (x*x) not e to the x see in the kozak equation you counted integration of integration etc. and function of function etc. like one not integration is independent and function is independent as in they are dependent like one so call x*x just L now the 2+4*L is zero then L is -1/2 and if derived again it is (12x+8(x*x*x))is zero then the inflection is -3/2 to y is then e to the -3c/2 for slope is zero and for concativity it is e to the -c/2 for zero now when going backwards the derivative becomes the intregal because the intregal build is reversed!!! and also the signs are reversed so now it goes slope is e to the c/2 and concativity is e to the 3c/2 now the time total time lapse is e to the 2c but the actual speed is double the relative speed in two things moving apart so e to the c then the actual x is 3cx three for volume c for light speed and x for liniar one to one increase so you will have e to the c seconds before the universe does a whole cycle and that is about 2.7182818 to the (3.2042*(10 to the 8th)) seconds no matter where we are on the cycle it is the same time for the same point on the cycle so also the time between e to the -c/2 and e to the -3c/2 is (e to the 2c)*[(e to the -3c/2) minus (e to the -c/2)] and the signs and everything happens so this is the time difference for either side for universe to contract or expand (same time) so y is the time function of x because that is what i measured not volume as in the growth takes time thus growth per x is time so dy/dx is instantaneous time so y is time I suspect the graph is e to the ellipse and the ellipse is axis 'A' c/2 and axis 'B' 3c/2 to get e to the [(4x*x+(4/9)y*y) is one/c] amazing the universe loves ellipses!!! now the reason for the intregal of intregal intregal (e to the (e to the x)) etc. is the instantaneous always has the say so in the e's now in the (e to the ((pi/2) to the (2 to the e))) the reason mass the highest exponent (not the base) must be e is the way the kozak equation goes is ln(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) is m*m then go 2*ln(mv/c) is m*m then go ln(mv/c) is intregal (m dm) then m is one and one unit of mass selectively and c is one unit of velocity because that is what the whole thing equals then liniar is ln(v) so how fast is v must cover e everytime thus in the light speed (e to the ((pi/2) to the (2 to the x))) x must be e now in the e to the (pi/2) the derivative of mass dv is m*m*m*v/(2*c*c) then mass equals e to the (m*m*v*v/(2*(c*c))) then times dv/dm then cancel to get intregal of (2*v/(2*m)) dm now velocity is always c which is one unit to go 1/(m) then e to the [(intregal of 1/m)dm] is equal to m then lnm is lnm then m is m why it works!!! so then intregal of m dm/dv is intregal of c/[squareroot(c*c-v*v)] then intregal of mdm is intregal of c/[squareroot(c*c-v*v)] dv then intregal intregal of m dm is c*arcsine(v/c) c is one is c and so go pi/2 then m is dt*dt according to acceleration and velocity where -c*c plus c*cln(m*m) all devivded by all of c*c minus c*cln(m*m) then (dv*dv)/(da*da) or d(v*v)/d(a*a) but a is decreasing making the whole dt squared thing going negative but so isn't mass squared so strip the negatives also m is e to the (m*m/2)stripping away the v's and c's thus m is e to the [intregal of [m dm]] then m is e to the intregal of dt then m is e to the t thus that is why e to the pi/2 and not just pi/2 then in the e to the c is unit distance of the number e to the [(pi/2) to the [2 to the v]] and how long it takes for light to travel that distance is the kozak second so in the e to the [c or c/2 or 3c/2 or -c/2 or -3c/2 etc.] or any of that universe expansion constraction jazz I am talking of seconds i am talking of kozak seconds now for a kozak equation this is just the general pattern get two functions equal to each other then derive f(m) in terms of mass g(v) in terms of v and then square them both or square root or say in mass you can go dm/ddm is (1/2)*(dm*dm)*ddm alldivided by ddm*ddm then ddm*ddm/(ddm*ddm) times 1/2 then that is just 1/2 or you can so for vdv is really dv*dv times 1/2 or you can switch mass denominator-other side of equation roles you can use the [dy/dx] plus y(p(x)) equals q(x) that comes in handy use any crazy tricks you want you can divide both sides by a dm or dv or multiply etc. then once you find mass (not derivative of mass) get it all by itself also dm/dv is sine(m*v) then ddm/[squareroot(1-(dm/v)*(dm/dv))] equals dmdv/(ddm/dv) equals dvdvdm/ddm then dv*dv/2 is ddm/[squareroot((1-(dm/dv)*(dm/dv))] then ddm*ddm/(1-(dm/dv)*(dm/dv)) is dv*dv*dv*dv/4 then dv*dv/4 is ddm*ddm/((dv*dv)-(dm*dm)) then dv*dv is x and dm*dm is y and ddm is d[(dm)*(dm)] and dm*dm is really d(m*m) then so now it is (x-y)/4 equals dy/dx then that yields m*m=(v-1 plus e to the -v/2) now when converting between v*v and v*v/4 the four is really two twos for each v now the purpose of this equation is to show how to do it and when you can you do all lot of possibilities also i think this equation is going to be used I'll keep you posted!!! now in the m=sine(m*v) go dm/(squareroot(1-m*m)) equals dmdv (when going times dm go dm/dv but the other side goes dm/dv then there is one dv left and put it with the g(v)) anyway times both sides by dm and for g(v) multiply mdm times 2 then replaces dm*dm then square both sides to get dm*dm/(1-m*m) equals 4*m*m*dv*dv then go 1/(m*m) all times d(m*m)/(1-(m*m)) all equals 4*dv*dv which is really (dz/(z))*(1/(1-z)) where z is m*m (you do not have to convert the d(m*m) is already there) anyway go 1/[(1-z)*(z)] is really negative(minus(1/z) plus 1/(z-1))dz then ln((z-1)/z) equals -(4*v*v) then z-1/(z) equals 1-(1/z) equals e to the -(4*v*v) then go 1-(e to the -(4*v*v) is 1/z then m is squareroot(1/(1-(e to the -(2*v)))) now in dm*dm/(dv*dv) then dv*dv is liniar so call it L then rename it v that's why you go from v*v/4 to v/2 also m*m=(v-1 plus Ke to the -v/2) now if v is zero then go dm(sine(m*v) is dm*dm/dv then (d is derivative always unless i say otherwise)anyway m*m is -cos(m*v) the only way a negative can be a square is at zero so integrate to get 1-cos(m*v) one is a constant of intregal then -1 is K then K is one!!! so then m*m=(v-1 plus e to the -v/2) now finally I'll take out the tangent one well in 1 plus v plus v*v you must get mv+1 is m (this is not an equation it is a progressor) but I am going to rest today and take this one tommorrow!!! now for tangnet I'll do that later now in the tangent of (1+v+v*v etc.) go mv=mv+1 then m is 1/(1-v) then arctangent of (m) is dv/(1-v) then dm/(1+m*m) is 1/(square(1-v)) then dm*dm/(1+m*m) equals dm*dv/(square(1-v)) then ln(1+m*m) is m*v/(1-v) then kozak of that is squareroot(1-v)/(squareroot(1-2v)) then the m is squared then v-1/(2v-1) then add one because 1+m*m then (3v-2)/(2v-1) then when v is one it is tangent(1+1+1*1+1*1*1 etc.) or tangent of 1+1+1 etc.) or tangent of infinity then (3-2)/(2-1) or one so tangent of infinity is one!!! now in multi-function say 1 is really tangent(1) and v is really tangent(1+v) then v*v is really tangent(1+v+v*v)) then function of function(v) would be (5v-4)/(4v-3) or one if v is one!!! now (c*c/m)*dm is d[(m*v)*(m*v)]/(2*dm) or dm*dv*dv/2 but (c*c/m)*dm is c*c/2 the 1/2's cancel (by dm*dm trick of m*dm) then dE is c*c and it is in terms of mass so m*c*c is intregal is E!!! now for tangent (remember v is c) but this proof says even if velocity were not always c it would still work!!! now in the tangent the velocity/the vertical ball in the ship is a tangent then at tangent is infinity feta is pi*c/2 and pi*3c/2 and pi*5c/2 etc. then the tangent is m*v and the 1/2's cancel so the energy is m*c*c if the unit is one c would it be nice if accelerating infinitly fast requaired a finite amount of energy well what if that were true well it is!!!! see when feta is infinite the tangent is one!!! (remember the c is ball is frozen the 2c is ball moves backwards!!!) anyway but how is that done well the function would be asymtotic and the 'a' factor is crossed before it reaches infinite then you are past infinite also the force would be infinite times whatever the force was times however long it takes that force to accelerate the ball to light speed or really process because the function machine is doing more than a constant or liniar see the infinite is long past and the forces are still liniar but let's see now the energy would be tangent is one so the energy must be m*c*c even if v were not always c but it is!!! now the purposes of the kozak functions are numerous but there is one specific one it is the function machine the purpose of them also is to find out just exactly what needed would be in these function machines and ofcourse in sine ones the energy would be for derivative so looking inside the function machine parts would approach v-1 and for m is sine(m) it would approach one unit of energy and for e to the sin(x) whatever energy that was!!! now the coth(f*f) is m and it is all about the derivatives since -1(dm) is df so pi/2 radians then the partial derivatives suggest that it is not m but 'a' and it is not f but function(l) also in the functions go function to the (2 to the v) v is one to one liniar since f(x) to ff(x) but now it is ff(x) so go ffff(x) also in the dffff/dfff times dfff/dff times dff/df times df the chain rules all the f's are the same so go df times df times df times df etc. thus the function to the v but the exponential increase it becomes 2 to the v also the e to the sin(m*v) not e to the sin(x) so m is e to the sin(m*v) then lnm is sin(m*v) then dm/m is dm(cos(m*v) then 1/m is cos(m*v) then (dm/(m*m))/(square root(1-(1/(m*m))) is dm*dv/m because now you are going by dm/m instead of just dm then dm*dv/m is (dm/m)/(squareroot(m*m-1)) then (dm*dm)/(2*m*dm) so now 2*dv is (dm/m)/(squareroot(m*m-1)) then 4*dv*dv is (dm*dm)/(m*m(m*m-1)) so the conversion already happened so 1/(z(z-1)) then truncate that to get (1/(z-1)) minus (1/z) then integrate both sides to get ln(m*m-1) minus ln(m*m) equals 4*v*v then go ln((m*m-1)/(m*m)) is 4*v*v then go (m*m-1)/(m*m) is e to the (4*v*v) then 1-(1/(m*m)) is e to the (4*v*v) then 1-(e to the (4*v*v)) is 1/m*m them m is 1/(squareroot(1-(e to the (2v)))) now the 2v because the dv*dv is a liniar so call it d(x) then rename that v and the two because one two for each v as in conversion says turn the four into a two!!! also notice that v must be negative now notice that when you get squareroot of a negative or w/zero it means the kozak function runs away or diverges as in c/(squareroot(c*c-v*v)) when v is light speed it diverges as in m*m is e to the (m*m) then 2 is e to the 2 then e to the (e to the 2) etc. so try to avoid negatives raised to exponents of 1/2n n is an integer and try avoiding w/zero where w is a function that does not go to zero when the denominator does now all this if trying to get a definite answer I mean if you have to then go negative to 1/2n and w/zero like in function machine you probably have to go to negative to 1/2n or w/zero now sqrt is squareroot now m is actually (coth((sqrt(df))) and it is in terms of force so df*df/df is derivative then if I square it I have to make up for it by squaring it then m is coth(f) and f is negative because force and mass oppose each other that is why it is not tanh(f) but instead coth(f) because -(1/(1-(f*f))) so then 'a' copies m etc. like everything I said in the past now in the m=sin(m*v) is where when v is positive it is the same as m=e to the sin(m*v) when v is negative as in 1/(squareroot(1-(e to the(2v or -2v)))) then when derivatives are negative it is +2v when positive -2v then same thing like a symmetry mirror then take the derivatives dm*cos(m*v)*(e to the sin(m*v)) to -dm*cos(m*v) then when cosine is (1/2)*(squareroot(2)) then the other side is (1/2)*(squareroot(2)) times e to the (1/2)*(squareroot(2)) so it is bigger negative accelerate then larger so use the 1/(squareroot(1-(e to the 2v))) for negative and positive v in acceleration and acceleration as in not positive and negative but as in acceleration positive and then to zero and then to positive again but not to worry the equations are integrating the acceleration and the kozak equations suggest that you will loose mass ofcourse you can fading into another dimension when doing that also the m*v can be all the way up to one as in 1 to e!!! so then e-1 is how much mass you are loosing and why well remember pushing an object there is no real mass it is all relativity behavior of particles or large objects also you can go [1/(squareroot(1-(e to the 2v)))] to the v or to the (2 to the v) or whatever but the (2 to the (2 to the v)) will outrun the 2 to the v to decrease mass now in the ellipse theory [x*x/(a*a)] plus [y*y/(b*b)] all equals one then a little algebra says dy/dx is [-x*b*b/(y*a*a)] then (bx*bx) plus (ay*ay) is c*c (light speed) and remember absolute and relative are both c and then the two bx's add and the two ay's add to 4*c*c so the for a square then each particle would have to go half the light speed to satisfy relative speed for light speed not to worry x is r*(cos(f)) and y is r(sin(f)) then f is feta then feta changes slower absolutely and faster relatively only to give the same formula then indeed it is always (bx*bx) plus (ay*ay) is c*c for one particle or both together only the time of angle is half for one particle then for both and the cylinders go c*infinite since c is the unit and c*infinite relative and absolute laws work the same as for just c now for the sine waved extensions in a cylinder particle works the same except cosine(x) instead of x and sine(y) instead of y now the intregal of intregal of (e to the (e to the x)) etc. f is derivative of F and I is intregal and F in -ln(e to the -x) and FFFF(x) is IIIIffff(x) now dFFFF(x)/dFFF(x) times dFFF(x)/dFF(x) times dFF(x)/dF(x) times dF(x)/d(x) but all the F's are the same and just x then (F(x)) times (F(x) times (F(x)) times (F(x)) or F(x) to the 4th is IIIIffff(x) then go top line 1/B and 1/D and (e to the x) and for bottom line go -ln(B) and -1/(D*D) and (e to the x) partial integration then leave the D's out and go -x(e to the x) minus (-x(e to the x) minus (-e to the x)) or (-e to the x) then put the D's in and -1 plus intregal[(e to the x)/(D*D)] but when converting dx to dD you went dx/(dD) and when deriving to -1/D*D once again you said dx/(dD) but then you said times dD/(dx) or e to the x then you got intregal(1) but then you said in terms of D so -1 plus D or -1 plus (e to the x) but let's see what happened to f well e to the x then 1/(e to the x) then 1/(e to the -x) so the derivative sets at e to the x then Intregal of intregal of intregal of intregal of (e to the (e to the (e to the (e to the x)))) then that would be (-1 plus (e to the x)) all to the 4th then go -1 plus (e to the x) all to the xth and note the in-betweens like if x were 3/2 or squareroot(2) or pi so now in the ellipse the rates get to be the same one is one half the other but one particle to two particles is the same ratio as the relative to the absolute I keep saying this universe loves ellipses!!! now what happens with a slow ellipse and a fast one because of different sizes well feta get's after it and you are going abolute and relative speeds the same and ofcourse so any speeds anywhere and more particles more ellipses and ofcourse circles where feta same for each but combined half as much like in ellipses and for relative feta takes twice the time as for one and combined any set of particles anywhere also m*v*v/(r) well m*c*c/(r) then that is energy to get force go m*c*c/(r*r) so force times r is now force now the m*v is not makimum of one it is c*pi/2 is x and the (2 to the (2 to the (c*pi/2))) is K then the mass is (e to the x) to the K then the acceleration can be all that the frequency and amplitude can change as I said a long time ago now c*pi/2 is over c well the mass unit is then interpreted differentlly so if v is c (the velocity of the object as a whole) then mass will be pi/2 but then the units will change also the mass depends on velocity not distance so the mass loss is (e-1) to the K per time now let's see if particles are really hollow well when a particle expands with same charge or whatever density it has that much more energy but the whatever is 4*pi*r*r times as much then the derivative is a liniar but go 4*pi*r*r times k*q*q/(r*r) times as much and the force is a constant but integrate force to get a liniar!!! now for volume all the same rules except (4*pi*r*r*r/3) instead of (4*pi*r*r) then energy is a square while the point says energy is a liniar!!! it is not solid it is hollow now what about earth or any other solids well to get same density you would have to take away more mass then again energy would not agree unless you took away mass now in the hollows remember this is important for everything to agree so that you can have lobes etc. as in if expand to 1/(r*r) times the density then the 1/(r*r) center agrees to do 1/(r*r) times as much now also remember the relative speeds for one cylinder to the others is not the same so neither is the wobbles so neither is the attractions and repulsions so that is one of the reasons why you get sine and circle cross-section lobes and it all agrees and it is sine because the relativity changes the attraction and the attraction changes the relativity by changing the speed and circular because the general relativity is in a sphere (disregarding the lobes) and the lobes point out equal in all directions because the lobes are next to each other creating a relativity attraction repulsion situation

Monday, September 15, 2014

nuclear energy

now first use recycles wherever appropriate as in use recycles in everything in function machine and all recycles have trick or simple rectifiers now all cylinders vertical with respect to poles and equator of particle now in all but one simple particle the angle of wobbles never change because it would take infinite energy to create a finite force on an infinitely small cylinder and angles of wobble are uniform but in mass particle again uniform angle of wobble because now you have coumpounded the problem with an infinite number to change but in mass particle angle of wobble is not uniform and it changes uniform liniar rate from perfect vertical at poles to perfect horizontal at equator and the liniar change is gradual between them and remember no one cylinder changes but difference between them now the simple particles activate verious parts of mass particle and mass particle is a simple particle like gravity charge nuclear any field then ofcourse sister fields etc. and if an entire mass particle wants to do something the other particles are signals as in the mass particle says follow a circle because of relativity light speed complications then one particle attracts the mass then dominoe effect then all other cylinders in mass are now felling the pull see a few cylinders by small force to the ones n/infinity off of that to the next as in push the light rock at the top and the whole avalanche happens now in the relativity equation the mass is f(m) (part of the function is times v) then f(f(m)) but now m is f(f(m)) so now it becomes f(f(f(f(m))))) so then go c/[square root(c*c-v*v)] all this to the (2 to the v) v is liniar also in function machine recycle the whole main one and the whole offset one etc. now in nuclear forces go m*vv*vv plus k*q*q/r is m*c*c energy then take the other m*vv*vv plus k*q*q/r is m*c*c and subtract (the signs may be errors) m*vv*vv is minus k*q*q/r then vv is velocity towards particle and vh is velocity perpendicular to particle field lines then m*vv*vv is minus k*q*q/r but vv is dr (derivative of r) then m*vv is k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)} then integrate plus a constant that is the mass m1 only at that point where mass is c*vv/[square root(c*c-vv*vv)] d(vv*m) first by vv then mass to get c*cln(m) equals k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)*(dr)} d(vv*m) but m*vv is infact k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)} then go square of [k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)}] divided by two now mass is k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)*(dr)} buy division and substitution now square of [k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)}] divided by c*c in ln(m*m) then m=[e to the {(m*m*v*v)/(c*c)}] and the kozak of that is m equal c/[square root(c*c-dr*dr)] then there was a constant mass at that point so it is now c/[square root(c*c-dr*dr)] times (e to the m1) so now e to the [k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)}] is mass then ln(m) is 2*k*q*q/(r(dr)) but mass is 3*k*q*q/{(dr)*(dr)*(dr)} or 3*k*q*q/(r*r*(dr)) and dr is in terms of r so go ln[3*k*q*q/(r*r)] is 2*k*q*q/(r) but mass is c*vv/[square root(c*c-vv*vv)] then is square root of vh*vh or vh and vh is 1/(r) because m*v*v/r is central pull then force is what 1/(r*r) but smaller radius square bigger force so go slower for r now go 2*k*q*q/(r) equal m times 3*r/2 but r*c is m then r is m/c then so go 3*m*m/(2*c) is ln[3*k*q*q/(r*r)] final formula notice how nothing actually happens until r is tiny and relativity is high characteristic of nuclear forces also c*dr/[square root(c*c-dr*dr)] dr to one but v*v is plus dr*dr is c*c but v*v tries to approach c*c plus one but c*vv/[square root(c*c-vv*vv)] prevents that now for inventions use fall to make the particles slush to give thruster energy and not to worry the particles have the electric and magnetic fields now vv is dr/dt but remember i divided by vv to get m*vv then go dt/dr to get dr/dr or one also remember if mass barely changes then 1/(dr*dr*dr) equals derivative of m*vv*vv then derivative of energy must be 1/(dr*dr*dr) and derivative of energy is force thus force is 1/(r*r) then force times distance or r is 1/r!!! also if mass changes less then m1 is closer to zero becuase the change integrates smaller but if mass changes greater then you have the nuclear energy now when the electron goes fast why does it have less mass well there are fewer mass particles but why faster well fewer mass particles means larger quantities of velocity for energy exchanges also when integrating you add the constant m1 then exponentialize where e to the m1 is multiplying see nuclear force has tiny conventional force but huge m1 but electrical tiny m1 large conventional and conventional is the part that goes 1/(r*r) and ofcourse multiply conventional by k*q*q and q is charge and gravity is weak in both now in the ln[(3*k*q*q/(r*r)] when r reaches above q*[square root(3*k)] it passes a barrier as in ln(1) but outside the barrier the 3*m*m/(2*c) is positive while the ln[(3*k*q*q/(r*r)] is negative because m*m is positive so there is no phenomina there but when r is below then the ln[(3*k*q*q/(r*r)] is positive then there is contact now when the mass is a unit the unit of mass to use is the mass in the phenomina that is relative mass see the object to measure has the relative unit mass so in ln[(3*k*q*q/(r*r)] take q*[square root of (3*k)] and multiply by mass of whatever is in the 3*m*m/(2*c) now remember the object increases resistance for the mass and the c/(square root(c*c-v*v) is the time reference as in time does it all anyway in nuclear forces when you are above barrier the nuclear forces do not do barely anything but below barrier they can influence effectively now right on barrier it starts also their is a third factor see for gravity and the factor for the spiral speed where the object is circled but also liniar movement is where m is c/square root(c*c-v*v) then kozak that into m*m = e to the m2 times e to the (m*m*v*v/c*c) then ln[m*m] is (m*m*v*v/c*c) plus m2 if the m2 is big then the force is strong at high velocities now m2 is whatever mass value is at that point just like m1 but a double function of exponents is what happens in m2 now what determines these constants is the amount and nature of the cylinders in the particle and there are different kinds of the mass particle or any particle now m2 is really m1 and there is no double exponent and e to the m1 multiplied once see if m equal e to the (m*m*v*v/c*c) is kozaked then it goes c/(square root(c*c-v*v) but if going cm then it is 1/(square root(1-v*v) and velocity is squeezed as in c/(square root(c*c-v*v) goes to 2 if v*v goes to c*c*3/4 but in 1/(square root(1-v*v) it is already two at just 3/4 now this time the vh is going to zero and m1 equal c/(square root(c*c-v*v) then c/vh where vh is (square root(c*c-v*v) so e to the m1 is now e to the c/vh now the third constant B in final integration is just e to a constant now m*v*v is k*q*q/r then m = e to the (m*(k*q*q/(r*r))) then kozaked is conventional rc/[square root(r*r*c*c-k*q*q)] times e to the c/vh times e to the B constant now the width of cylinders is for barrier the height is for conventional the number is for mass velocity and distance of barrier is on all these now in 1/(dr*dr*dr) and 1/(r*r) the one is really k*q*q and the cylinder phenomina may each have connections with other field phenomina also the distance is r then the circle relative theory says m*v*v/r and it is a force the energy/r is force but it is m*c*c and it is a constant so I will use one so 1/r but that is force but derivative is negative 1/(r*r) and derivative of force is really what the force is doing at that point which is negative 1/(r*r) and the B constant turns it to k/(r*r) and it also turns to k*q*q/(r*r) because q is the relativity behavior of the particle that sets the course for the relative behavior of other particles around it now in other dimensions like nine for an example their will be n-2 constants as in m1 and B for n=four dimensions and there will be many more behavior factors involved!!! also why does length shrink by (square root(c*c-v*v))/c well that is 1/m then at a diagonal circle going to light speed liniar there is the perpendicular p and liniar l then square root (p*p+l*l) is c the p takes into account the change of l in light speed but it shrinks when close to light speed when variation get's small by 1/m now for light the liniar is magnetic and the p is electrical but light is at light speed because at rest it has no mass and the force is square root (p*p+l*l) to get sine*sine plus cosine*cosine times k to get constant force see any particle is a wave!!! also space and and distance between particles shrink by relativity relations and similiar reasons now in the m*v*v remember you must go m*v*v is k*q*q/2r at first because of (1/2)m*v*v energy complications now in cylinders I told you a double wrong see cylinders absolute speed is infinite see mass is proved to go to light speed as long as the particle is not n/infinite determinate that pulls the equation out of shape but when parallel they go light speed when wobble and orbit are combined so when parallel the angle of contact is n/infinite with light speed but when not then finite with c times infinite then the lobes are in shape finite since cylinders also go infinitely fast now mass is c/(square root(c*c-v*v)) then the intregal is c*arcsine(vv/c) see in the previous one fv/c all in itself was a unit anyway vv is vertical velocity and intregal of c*arcsine(vv/c) dm is intregal of m*dvv*dm or arcsine(vv/c) equal intregal of dm*dm*dvv/2c then arcsine(vv/c) is dmdvv/2c then that is d(zv/zh)/2 v is vertical h is horizontal z is unit m is c/(square root(c*c-v*v)) but c turns to zv then go derivative of (1/(square root(1-zv*zv))) but remember you want dm*dzv so now derivative zv/(square root(1-zv*zv)) now say sine d(zv/zh)/2 is zv then 2*zv*zh is sin d(zv/zh) then sin(2feta) is sine d(zv/zh) then 2feta is d(zv/zh) then 2feta is d(vv/vh) feta plus c is vv/vh so then zh would be square root (1/(c*c+1)) then m*v*v or m/(c*c+1) is k*q*q/r then (c*c+1)/m is r/(k*q*q) then (c*c+1) then mass is one then [square root(c*c+1]]/(c*c) times k*q*q is r then remember zv is multiplied by c by conversion complications now in the pendulum go 2cos(f) minus 2cos(a) all square rooted then derive dd/dv then 2sin(f)/[square root[2cos(f) minus 2cos(a] for dv then the result is cos(f) minus cos(a) all over sin(f) then integrate dd/dv is dt get t then go 1-cos(a)timesln(sin(f)) all plus cos(a)ln(1 plus cos(f)) now the a goes from pi/2 to zero and the f is feta plus a and the f goes from a to zero thus the end result is 1 plus cos(a) all times the following:1 plus ln(1 plus cos(f)) as feta goes to zero from minus a thus in a pendulum 2 times (1+ln2)) times 4 times square root of (l/g)is the time now the zv zh this was for descrete energy levels in an atom or anything now the reason is is nt true for gravity is because it is just in tiny amounts!!! now here is why i only said feta is (zv/zh) instead of feta times feta see intregal of d(zv/zh) is intregal of 2 feta but make them both in terms of d(feta) then d(zv*zv/(zh*zh)) then feta times feta is (zv*zv/(zh*zh)) then feta is zv/zh now the zv/zh is zv zero well no the instantaneous circle pull means it is accelerating toward the center by m*v*v/r!!! also why does the cylinders decelerate so instantly to light speed and back up well it is infinitely small by a cube!!! also now elipses is where the c in feta plus c changes now when introducing more then one particle the c or the amount of c change (not the pattern) changes because of mass number and the velocity of a cylinder nonparrallel is c*infinite and c at parallel now gravity is where c is zero so at infinite feta is zero but then the force is zero but this totally makes the equation so that it is satified no matter what and for all constants in any number of intregals they can be zero now it is also possible for constants to also be negative as well as positive as in the reverse barrier means it attracts outside but not inside but the distance squared thing always works so is it possible that nuclear fields only dominate at small distances because charge shuts down at small distances now in charge when the distance squared is constant then the constant is two constants to zero but inside not the case also to make a shield use a positive barrier system generated by mass acceleration in particle accelerators in the three perpendicular directions now when something travels fast toward the shield then the mass behaivior picks up and the shield becomes effective at smashing it!!! now for touching why repel horribly when touching matter well the charge field has a number of constants per barrier where the liniar starts at zero and these barriers can be related to descrete energy level phenomina anyway the touch is where you have passed one of the charge barriers and then for fusion another barrier and for antimatter action another as in you can make the fields in such a way that the barrier is a less change or no change to fuse them!!! now why all the energy when fuse or fission well in fusion you are already pushing so hard it snaps or the nuclear is strong and for fields to be discovered there is a lot of possibilities!!! now in all my theories go by the center of the particle whether above or below barrier etc. now the chemical bonding is an example of barriers effected by number of electrons and therefore mass or any of my theories also in the nucleus a lot that happens with electrons also happens with protons and neutrons in the nucleus also electrons are closer by barrier theories and protons and neutrons when outer parts by barriers also when the particles are between the two barriers the nucleus becomes unstable also the limit of number of barriers is limitless but according to one of my following theories ther number of electrons is finite limit see when the distance is small the field works but by the mother barrier or the barrier that is at the end of all the other barriers is a certain distance out to make it impossible past that point now in the infinitely fast skips between energy levels the skips are not infinite but just in another dimension because of the light speed thing where the mass changes rules to shift between to break the light speed relative rules to go into higher dimension which would be infinitely fast only to these dimensions as in the time for next dimension set it is finite now in the mother barrier the constants say cancel say at 16 minus 8 minus 4 minus 2 minus 1 [or they can all be pluses and the first minus] but the 1 is the smallest unit so it must cancel to zero next by a minus 1 [or plus 1] now the levels are of energy so the smallest is (m*c*c) where m is the mass now if smaller then what to cancel to zero it is a clip meaning it says what am i going to do with the minus [or the plus] well the barrier says no minus (or plus) tolerated as in the mother barrier is barrying the barriers!!! and same in nucleus now in the muons what happens is one is in two places at once because the relativity makes it right on the mark of light speed then it is vibrating between the two dimension sets and appearing and reappearing in two places now for time travel the time at past light speed is to another dimension set so you go through that world to reverse your life and then land in the old home town but the other of you left and grew up but now you are back and what you relive your life but you do not know you are reliving you life because your memory reversed and everything is reverse see to go back in time you would go reverse time at whatever speed or forward similiar deals now to do it you have to approach light speed and 'a' factor at the same time will simultaneous hit now the reason it is if only to light speed you will hit dimension without being parallel to 'a' factor and vice versa but when parallel the speed of light dimension agrees with 'a' factor so everything reverses but now you can not go forward in time because that has not been carved out yet!!! now in the system to aborb light into electricity it can be used as a cloaking device so nothing can track the object not radar or infrared or nothing or freezing system to make the air winter cold or anything also in time the parallel universe is where the light speed or greater lines in the waves are parallel and waves will make the other lines mirror it like a reflection in an actual mirror then that is how you go back in time and they can be parallel to not touch but still absorb the energy or joint touch and absorb the energy see time reverses in all the parallels and the parallels make same internet pattern as forward now for the 'a' factor to the light speed there is a square root(zero minus x*x) when x is zero there is a solution!!! now you can go forward in time from the back in time you did just not uncharted territory!!! now when the exponents negatify when 'A' os negative what that really means is in mass 'N' and 'A' and 'L' all negatify in themselves and in acceleration also (z is included) and in acceleration the whole thing also negatifies and in force both 'N' (or 'Z') and 'L' negatifies and when mass does all that to just that much force and acceleration also does all that to just that much force then energy creation also in AL equals one the 'A' and 'L' negatify to still be one at that instant also when L*L then 2*(N+A) for derivative and in the hollow central magnet accelerators the particles will help slow way down needed velocity to go through time now the reason acceleration exponent also makes a third negative shift is force devided by mass abruptly changes the multiplying rate when force passes mass but mass and force themnselves do not abruptly change also when going a liniar as in anything like that acceleration behavior has already changed!!! also L is really function(L) to the 'A' and 'L' also some functions will be zero so zero/zero now remember in each powerstepper to use the trick or simple rectifiers one before the unit one before each first coil one after each second coil and one after the unit if i added anything or said different i told you wrong and in each pulser one before first coil and one after second coil again if i added anything or said different i told you wrong and the coils themselves are the way i said also when 1/L is one define one so it goes from zero to zero/zero or [1/L] times L see anything is measured where the unit is the quantity the phenomina carries now in the sine wave machine use the wavestarter for the input and insulate a branch of it for the integrated output that did not become a main current and for power steppers and pulsers after each put it through an inverter with constant unit current that is insulated and capacitated and tiny and then integrate with the supply also with a similiar inverter to make perfect liniar then to make the liniar go down have a negative system with identical systems and when going up a derivative stops signal of one and when going down a derivative stops signal of the other also remember the frequency of sine waves increases with power steps with power steppers also remember to make the wave the appropriate length for the power output as in if power is twice then divided length by two and this will happen anyway also if a wave is to be negative then have an entire entity with negative and the derivatives stop each other and for all positive you do not have t do that and for powersteppers and pulsers similiar and by waves for this i mean liniar and put the insulated and main in series in the sine wave machine also remember to use the first simple or trick rectifier after the other stuff and the last simple or trick recitifer before the other stuff also remember some of my ideas were errors but feel free to use them if you want now in any input output system including the sine wave machine use a parallel circuit the way i showed you also in series with the liniar waves i mean a parallel circuit with insulation series with the main liniar waves in the main item now in all recycles use a trick or simple rectifier before and after the front and backs of each recycle and when making anything keep it uniform the recycles everything also for any recycling activity you can make a recycle go over two smaller recycles etc. also the reason for all light having same amplitude is in the photon revolvings m*v*v/r well v is the same and r is twice when mass is twice and v is always c also in a pendulum with one point to attract the ball and a solid lever then instead of 4 times square root of (l/g) go k*q*q/(r*r) r is how far the attractor is from the ball when the ball is at the bottom of the pendulum also go times the following 1 plus cos(a) all times the following 1 plus ln(1 plus cos(f)) go f/2 and go a/2 now for m = e to the sine(m*v) the kozak of that is m = square root (1 plus (e to the (2*v))) long story but you can see how effective these kozak equations are once the values are decided now in a barrier shield you can use particles light with electrical light absorbers or plane magnetic or electric or any fields and go sine*sine is x then go ln(3*k*q*q/(x*x)) equal 3*m*m/(2*c) or whatever i may have the formula wrong or just go sine etc. or whatever now in magnetism the funnel increases by areac r*r with distance r and the intensity by 1/r then you get r then r/(r*r) or 1/r now cylinders form only in one direction for the same reason all waves on the same rope point velocity wise in the same direction and they wobble because the waves around a rope rotate on an axis also the electromagnetic fields are because the waves move on the rope when perpendicular waves over lap it and the energy direction changes also in a wheel the outer point traces a cycloid well the derivative of y in terms of x is 1/(square root(4*v*v+1)) and intregal of y in terms of x is 0.5 times v times arcsinh(2v) minus all of the following 0.25 times square root(4*v*v+1) and y in terms of x is just 0.5 times arcsinh(2v) also remember brackets before exponents before multiply and divide before adding and subtracting also the length is 2 times sqaure root(4-2*y) and ((dy/dx)*(dy/dx)*y plus y) is 2a also the distance of the shield to be one must be sine for example is one unit when x is q*square root(k) also what happens when charge is 1/r of magnetism the one is intregal of other causing a reverse of the other effects on it also the funnel does not exist unless the cylinder travels as in if the tractor is pointing its wheels in a direction it does nothing but if the tractor is rolling around the whole field 1000 times a second then it is effective!!! now y is equal to 1-cos(v) and x is v-(sin(v)) and sqrt means square root now 0.5 times arcsinh(2v) is really 0.5 times ln [2v+sqrt(4*v*v+1)] then if that is zero when y is zero it is a sine wave and it is "slipping" if negative then you are creating and destroying energy if positive then destroying and creating energy (I put a marker on the surface equator of an electron or proton) but at zero neither and typically the energy is the same but if spin agrees with revolving in an atom with an electron then the sine wave and the spin gets faster in when closer to nucleus by encouraging theory which says when spins are merging they make each one faster by "friction" anyway the revolving also faster by potential and kinetic theory and if not sine wave then electron wants to be somewhere else and this only happens in descrete places now for protons the spins slow when revolving wants to increase then only one descrete level repel will mean spin slow attract it speeds up now in the theories some of my theories contrast because I am trying to think a little outside the box to get an answer see it makes sence that when v is zero y is zero by 1-(cos(0) to get zero and in a sine wave y is zero when v is zero also the relativity theory says if not sine wave then distorted wave then energy destrying or creating because of change of frequency also in charge attraction the charge uniform density says that the force on the point is pi*r*r*r/(R*R) for solid sphere and for hollow sphere is 4*pi*r*r/(R*R) see r means radius of sphere and R is distance from center of sphere so if the charge density is 1/(4*pi*r*r) as much you get the 1/(r*r) factor!!! the particles are indeed hollow!!! now the universe originally had one of everything then the DNA theory says they copied and created energy!!! now in sphere attracting sphere if solid it is costant times r if hollow constant only and the 4*pi*r*r is 1/that for the 1/(r*r) factor which is right and for the theory the lobes average out to a sphere and it has to be infinitely thin to not be part solid also the sine waves in the cycloid are numbered greator with outer levels and the lobes must be sine the problem with sine*sine is energy will only be created now dm/dv is sin(m*v) length of curve is square root(v+(e to the -(v/2))) now for dm/dv is e to the (sin(m*v)) the m is suqare root(ln(sec(v)+tan(v))) and ddm/dv is sin(m*v) m is -2+squareroot(4+2v)and length is square root (v+0.5*(ln(4+2v))) and m=sin(m*v)is 1/(square root(1-(e to the -v))) these are a few kozak equations also in the touch theory the electron and proton charges cancel but at touching the barrier effect will be differences in fields and in no electrons the barriers will not produces the constnats right so the 1/(r*r) kicks in!!! now in the piston engine in a past invention do not use charge on pistions use a magnet rotater in the cranck shaft or any gear or chain and then any circuitry of mine to make the valves and sparks extremely efficient now in lobes in one theory the lobes are ratio whole number to one in another whole number to whole number because more than one view will target the mysteries better also the sine waves are such that say ddm/dv is sine(m*v) where the ddm/dv will cancel the sine(m*v) providing m*v is one and guess what the m will be zero if v is zero otherwise you are creating and destroying energy!!! also for exponents where the atom is accelerating if cosine minus sine because perpendicular is zero then m is zero when v is zero or creating and destroying energy so you must go past the 'A' factor to create energy now in these equations when you manipulate the variables you create energy!!! why because when v is zero then acceleration is zero then when 'A' is tiny by one divided by function the unit on is an infinitely small unit but if 'A' is function itself then v is not zero then m is not zero!!!!! now in recycles use trick or simple rectifers before and after beginnings and ends and also midway on recycles also in e to the (n+a)l becoming al the l stays at one at a is function(l) because l cannot shrink when everything is increasing!!! also in any function go function(l) minus function(c) where c is such that function(c) is function(l) at rest also remember the relativity is based on the pythagorean function there are many other functions!!! also correction when v is zero and m is not then there is a constant in the integration to get created energy see in al is one v is zero when m is zero but in al is function of l then v is zero when m is not!!! also n approaches zero also when al is one then the energy is constant but not in function(l) one is a constant not function(l)!!! also i told you very wrong above al is Q(function(l)) and 'a' is Q(function(l)) and below 'a' is Q(function(l)) and l is one/function(l)) where Q is cosh(l) or something like that i told you right earlier

Friday, September 5, 2014

HUGE MATH THOERIES CORRECTIONS AND NEW INFORMATION

NOW THE POWER HEAD WHERE RECYCLE SERIES WITH POWER STEPPERS HAS A FREEZER WITH AN INSULATED CURRENT GOING TO THE UNIT CURRENT TO MAKE GAMMA RAYS AND THE MORE INSULATION THE LARGER THE FREQUENCES AND THIS ALSO APPLIES TO THE NUMBER AND AMOUNT OF POWER STEPPERS THEN ATTACH TO THE LIGHT EXPLOSIVE OR POWER HEAD ALSO THE MASS PARTICLE HAS INFINITE AMOUNT OF CYLINDERS WHILE THE OTHER FINITE NUMBER ALSO FOR LIGHT ACCELERATORS USE ELECTRONS TO RECIEVE MAGNETS AND PLATES THEN MAKE OR FEED THE LIGHT NOW CAN YOU GO PAST LIGHT SPEED WELL FIRST PAST LIGHT SPEED IS ANOTHER DIMENSION SEE SPACE IS LIKE A ROPE WHERE THE WAVES GO A CERTAIN SPEED AND IF THE OVERLAP WHEN THE RELATIVE SPEED IS NOT LIGHT SPEED THE ENERGY CANCELS IN THE ROPE PARTIALLY FOR BELOW LIGHT SPEED AND COMPLETELY FOR ZERO SPEED WWHY THAT'S A NO GO IT MUST BE LIGHT SPEED BUT WHY CAN'T THE WAVES JUST BE SOMEWHERE ELSE ON THE ROPE WELL THEY WILL HIT EVENTUALLY AND ANYWAY THE WAVES CAN FEEL EACH OTHER AS IN ONE WAVE THE WHOLE ROPE AND SO WHY CAN APPARENT RELATIVE SPEED BE BELOW WELL THE STUFF CIRCLING IN THE PARTICLE GOES X AND THE STRAIGHT VELOCITY Y BUT SQUARE ROOT (X*X PLUS Y*Y) IS LIGHT SPEED!!! SO EVERYTHING IS LIGHT SPEED WITH RESPECT TO EVERYTHING ELSE ALSO ONE WAVE IS ON THE ROPE WHILE THE OTHER IS COMING THE OTHER WAY BUT THE THIRD DOES NOT WANT TO CANCEL EITHER OF THEM SO THE BIG WAVE IS MOVING LIGHT SPEED TO THE LITTLE WAVE AND THE LITTLE WAVE ON THE BIG WAVE IS MOVING LIGHT SPEED TO THE OTHER LITTLE WAVE AND TO THE BIG WAVE IT IS TRAVELING ON THUS IT MANAGES TO GO LIGHT SPEED TO BOTH BECAUSE TO THE OTHER LITTLE WAVE IT IS ALL JUST ONE BIGE WAVE!!! THEN JUST CHANGE THE SIZES AND TURN IT TO THREE DIMENSIONAL AND THIS IS WHAT MAKES TIME!!! ALSO THE WAVES ON THE ROPE ARE PARTICLES IN SPACE!!! NOW WHEN ON ANOTHER SPEED THEN ANOTHER ROPE OR DIMENSION NOW IN ENERGY CREATION WHEN THE WAVE GOES PAST LIGHT SPEED OR APPROACHING IT TOO AGGRESSIVELY THE HIGHER ROPE FEELING THE ENERGY BY CONNECTION AND TAKES THE WAVE NOW TO CREATE ENERGY YOU MUST DO THIS BECUASE LIKE I SAID IF OUT RUNNING MASS THE 'A' FACTOR GETS NEGATIVE NOW I AM GOING TO DO A KOZAK  EQUATION
INTREGAL OF (M*V) d(M*V) THEN M IS REALLY (C)/(SQUARE ROOT OF (C*C-V*V)) THEN (M*V) IS REALLY (C*V)/(SQUARE ROOT OF (C*C-V*V))  THEN INTREGAL OF M*V d(V) IS (SQUARE ROOT OF (C*C-V*V)) TIMES C THEN GO (SQUARE ROOT OF (C*C-V*V)) TIMES C*C /C THEN THIS IS REALLY C*C/M THEN INTEGRATE THE INTREGAL OF M*V dM PART TO C*C*(LN(M)) BUT THIS IS INTREGAL OF M*V d(MV) WHICH IS ALSO SIMPLY M*M*V*V/2 THEN LN(M) IS M*M*V*V/(2*C*C) THEN M IS e TO THE [M*M*V*V/(2*C*C)] THEN M*M IS e TO THE [M*M*V*V/(C*C)] NOW THIS LOOKS LIKE FUNCTION OF FUNCTION  SO THE FUNCTION MACHINE PUTS YOU PAST LIGHT SPEED THEN WHEN REMOVED THE SPEED WILL DIP BELOW LIGHT SPEED BY ONE DIVIDED BY WHATEVER MULTIPLE PAST LIGHT SPEED NOW IN THIS REMEMBER SQUARE ROOT OF (C*C-V*V) DECREASES AS V INCREASES TO MAKE A NEGATIVE TO THE NEGATIVE OF THE FIRST INTEGRATION ALSO IN  THE POWER HEAD YOU CAN DO SINE WAVES HAVE NEGATIVE FREEZE AS WELL AS POSITIVE FOR INJECTORS ETC. NOW IN THE NEXT THEORIES THERE REALLY IS NO FIELDS FORCES OR ATTRACTION OR REPULSION SEE WHEN TWO CYLINDERS ARE AROUND EACH OTHER THE RELATIVITY AND LIGHT SPEED KICKS IN THEN IF THEY MOVE APART THEN NO MATTER WHAT THEY CANNOT MOVE IN ANY MANNER TO GO ACTUAL LIGHT SPEED AND LIGHT SPEED TO EACH OTHER THEN A CIRCLE OR CIRCULAR FUNCTION THUS ATTRACTION IS BORN AND THEN TWO CIRCLES SAME SPIN THEN BRUSHING PAST THEN THE EFFECT IS NEGATIVE TO PUSH THEM AWAY AND REPULSION IS BORN THEN IF SPINS ARE OPPOSITE THEN NEGATIVE OF NEGATIVE EFFECT THEN ATTRACTION AGAIN NOW IN A WAVE IS PERPENDICULAR ON A ROPE THEN NO EFFECTS THUS IF THE CYLINDERS DO NOT LINE UP THEN NO EFFECT JUST GO FROM ONE DIMENSION TO TWO DIMENSIONS TO THREE DIMENSIONS NOW WHY ONLY ACTUAL SPEED WELL IN THE KOZAK EQUATION USE THE FACT THAT INTRGAL OF ZERO IS A CONSTANT AND GET [C*C PLUS C*C*LN(M*M)] ALL OVER M*M ALL THIS IS V*V THEN REMEMBER TO GET FROM M*M TO M GO d(M*M)/d(M) THEN IT GOES IN TERMS OF d(M) AND SAME FOR V THEN [C*C PLUS C*C*LN(M*M)] ALL OVER M IS M*V*V THEN D*D IS 2C*C(LN(M)) PLUS 2C*C{(LN(M))*(LN(M))} IS DISTANCE D OR INTREGAL OF VELOCITY V NOW REMEMBER ALSO LN(M*M) IS 2 LN(M) ALSO NOW SO REALLY D*D IS INTREGAL OF (2*M*V*V) THEN 2D*V IS 2M*V*V THEN D IS M*V THEN D IS SQUARE ROOT {C*C PLUS C*C(LN(M*M))) THEN DERIVE D TO V THEN SQUARE ROOT (C*C) TIMES SQUARE ROOT OF {(1/M)/(1 PLUS LN(M)} OR SQUARE ROOT OF ONE TIMES C IS ALL V WELL THEN V IS SPEED OF LIGHT FOR ACTUAL AS WELL AS RELATIVE SEE THE MEDIUM OF SPACE IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ALL THIS!!! NOW SOME OF THIS MIGHT BE WHY ATOMS ONLY HAVE DISCRETE ENERGY LEVELS OF COURSE THE MIGRATION VELOCITY IS SLOWER THAN LIGHT BUT THE SPIN ALSO HAS AN EFFECT NOW FOR A FUNCTION SAY C=(C/SQUARE ROOT(C*C-V*V) THEN KOZAK OF THAT FUNCTION IS M*M=e TO THE M*M*V*V/(C*C) YOU CAN KOZAK THE DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS LIKE KOZAK OF dM/dV EQUALS SIN(M*V) IS M= SQUARE ROOT OF  (V-1 PLUS e TO THE -(V/2)) IT IS A LONG STORY!!! BUT THESE KOZAK FUNCTIONS ALLOW DIFFERENTIALS THAT CANNOT NORMALLY BE SOLVED ALSO IN LIGHT SPEED THE LIGHT SPEED IS ACTUALLY e TO THE {(PI/2) TO THE{2 TO THE e}} THIS WAS DONE BY KOZAK EQUATIONS THE KOZAK LENGTH WOULD BE PRETTY CLOSE TO A METER!!! ALSO REMEMBER THERE IS NO ATTRACTION THERE IS THE BEHAVIOR OF THE PARTICLE IF I SEE A BEAUTIFUL HOT GIRL AND I CHARGE AT HER THE ENERGY IS COMING FROM ME NOT THE GIRL!!! IF MY MOTHER IS POSITIVE IT IS BECAUSE I BEHAVED IF SHE IS NEGATIVE IT IS BECAUSE I DID NOT BEHAVE SAME IN THE PARTICLES!!! ALSO HERS AN INTERESTING KOZAK WHERE M IS THE TAN(1 PLUS V PLUS V*V ETC.) THE KOZAK IS M IS SQUARE OF {(3V-2)/(2V-1)} THEN AT INFINITY THE TAN OF INFINITY IS ONE AND THE ANGLE IS PI/2 RADIANS OR 45 DEGREES!!! AGAIN LONG STORY ALSO BE CAREFUL THE V IS ONLY ONE WHILE THE PROGRESSION IS TO INFINITY NOW WHY DOES MASS INCREASE IF ONLY AT LIGHT SPEED AT ALL TIMES WELL GO INTREGAL OF (C/(SQUARE ROOT(C*C-FV*FV))) SINCE THE FORCE IS ALONG THE V AXIS AS IN AN ATOM TO MOVE LINIARLY WITH A CIRCULAR TO SPIRAL THEN V IS ALONG THE SPIRAL LINIAR MOVEMENT THEN THE INTREGAL IS ARCSINE(FV/C) THEN THEN SINCE FV/C IS SIN(FETA) AND SINCE SPEED IS ALWAYS THE SAME (LIGHT SPEED) THEN ONLY FETA CHANGES THEN FV/SIN(FETA) IS C THEN V IS C THEN F/SIN(FETA) WHERE FETA GOES TO ZERO THEN THE DIRECTION IS ALL LINIAR THEN F/(SIN(ZERO)) IS ZERO AND HENCE A FORCE THAT GOES TO INFINITY ALSO INTEGRATE FD/C IS -COS(FETA) THEN MINUS ONE AT REST THEN THE FORCE TO ACCELERATE IS -1 OR EQUAL AND NEGATIVE REACTION SO IS THERE MASS OR JUST DENTED SPACE!!! SO IT IS ALL ENERGY NO MASS AND SLOWING DOWN IS JUST THE NEGATIVE ALSO REMEMBER THE C/(SQUARE ROOT(C*C-V*V)) IS TIME AS YOU ALREADY KNOW ALSO REMEMBER CYLINDERS MOVE SLOW WITH RESPECT TO NEIGHBORS IN THE SAME PARTICLE BUT THEY WOBBLE ALSO REMEMBER LIGHT GOES LIGHT SPEED BECAUSE ALL REVOLUTIONS GO PARALLEL TO THE VELOCITY BUT THERE IS REVOLUTION TO NEIGHBORING TO GET WHATEVER COMPLICATIONS AS IN REVOLVE SLOW OR FASTER TO WHATEVER BUT THE COMPLICATIONS MAKE LIGHT INDEPENDENT BETWEEN THE PHOTONS ALSO REMEMBER THE CYLINDERS DO NOT GO INFINITE SPEED IF I SAID THEY DO I TOLD YOU VERY WRONG AND PARTICLES ARE SHAPED LIKE SPHERES BY CIRCULAR PLEASING THEORY EARLIER IN THIS LETTER NOW LETS SEE IN FORCE PAST MASS REALLY DOES CREATE ENERGY WELL IN FV/C IS SIN(FETA) BUT IF FORCE IS PAST MASS THEN FV/C IS BIGGER THAN ONE BUT SIN(FETA) CAN ONLY BE ONE!!! AND THE IS C THEN JUST INTEGRATE FD IS LARGER THAN CSIN(FETA) THEN YOU ARE CREATING ENERGY!!! NOW LETS SEE IF IN MASS IS e TO THE (N+A)L AND FORCE IS e TO THE ZL LET'S SEE IF ENERGY IS CREATE WHEN 'A' IS NEGATIVE WELL(SQUARE ROOT (C*C-FV*FV)) DIVIDED BY C IS 1/M THEN C/M IS (SQUARE ROOT (C*C-FV*FV)) AND V IS REALLY C THEN (C*C-FV*FV) IS C*C/(M*M) THEN 1-F*F IS 1/(M*M) THEN e TO THE -2(N+A)L PLUS e TO THE 2ZL IS 1 THEN -2(N+A)L MUST BE LESS THEN 2ZL THEN N+A MUST BE LESS THEN Z THUS A MUST BE NEGATIVE TO CREATE ENERGY ALSO IN THE MOVING AN OBJECT DOES IT MATTER WHAT THE ORIENTATION IS WELL NOW THE PARTICLE WILL JUST REORIENT WHERE IT IS EASIEST PERPENDICULAR BUT IN LIGHT IT IS PARALLEL BECAUSE ONCE FETA ZERO ALWAYS ZERO NOW SINCE F*F PLUS 1/(M*M) IS ONE THEN THAT MAKES M*M EQUAL TO 1/(1-F*F) THEN GO INTREGAL OF M*M IS ARCTANH(F) THEN THE MASS RESISTANCE AND THE FORCE ARE IN OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS SO THE EXPONENTS ARE ALL NEGATIVE THEN INTREGAL OF M*M IS REALLY ARCCOTH(F) THEN F IS COTH(M*M) BUT d(F*F) IS THE INVERT OF d(M*M) SO dF IS NOW THE INVERT OF dM (JUST SQUARE ROOT BOTH THEN) AND NO NEGATIVE BECAUSE MASS AND FORCE ARE OPPOSITE BUT THE EQUATION GOT BALANCED M IS COTH(F*F) SO THE 'A' IN MASS STARTS AS INFINITY AT TIME EQUAL ZERO TO ONE AT INFINITY THEN PUT IN THE L'S AND DERIVATIVE OF MASS IS 2(N+A)*(e TO THE (N+A)L) EQUALS ONE THEN FORCE IS SINE(M) BY M IS 1/(SQUARE ROOT(1-F*F)) THEN FORCE GOES TO ONE THEN FORCE IS ONE AND 'N' GOES TO ZERO THEN AL IS ONE THEN A IS 1/L AND MESS WITH THE LINIAR TO GET ANY FUNCTION THEN A IS ONE/(FUNCTION(L)) NOW WHAT HAPPENS WHEN 'A' IS NEGATIVE WELL THEN THE EXPONENTS NEGATIFY CAUSING A REVERSAL SO THE COTH(M) IS NOW REVERSED SO START AT L BECAUSE OF NEGATIVE EXPONENTS AND GOTO INFINITY AND FOR ANY FUNCTION AS IN THE ONLY WAY ENERGY CAN BE CREATED AND/OR PUT PAST LIGHT SPEED IS BY THE FUNCTION MACHINE NOW THE WEIRD THING IS HOW CAN IT GO FROM 1/L TO L INFINITLY FAST WELL OBVIOUSLY L IS ONE!!! AND THIS IS FOR ANY FUNCTION ALSO REMEMBER TO PASS L YOU MUST USE THE FUNCTION MACHINE AND ALL THIS MERITS FUNCTION MACHINE NOW REMEMBER C TIMES SQUARE ROOT OF ((1/M)/(1+LN(M))) WELL IN NEXT DIMENSION IT IS dM/d(M*M) OR 2C EQUALS V THEN d(M*M)/d(M*M*M) OR 3/2 TIMES 2 OR 3C AND dM/d(M*M) IS dM/2MdM OR 1/2M OR 1/2 BUT THE MULTIPLYING RQUIRES A COUNTER MEASURE OF 2 ETC. AMD M IS ONE AND YOU GET A FREE ACCELERATION AND THE DIMENSIONS ARE A WHOLE NUMBER MULTIPLE OF C ALSO WHY WILL YOU ACCELERATE TO 2C INFINITELY FAST WELL RELATIVELY SPEEKING YOU WILL ALREADY BE THERE THE ORBIT WILL FREEZE THEN IT WILL STILL BE ZERO IN THE NEXT ONE BUT FREEZE BY INFINITY AND ZERO ARE THE SAME THING!!! SEE THE ORBIT WILL BE IN THE LINIAR DIRECTION AND THE LINIAR DIRECTION WILL BE IN THE ORBIT DIRECTION AS PERPENDICULAR WHICH MAKES SINCE BECAUSE THE DIMENSIONS LIKE LENGTH WIDTH AND HEIGHT ARE PERPENDICULAR ALSO ARE WE AT WHOLE NUMBER OF C OR JUST C WELL THE THREE LOWEST DIMENSIONS ARE LENGTH WIDTH AND HEIGHT THEN WE ARE AT THE BOTTOM ALSO THE REASON FOR WHOLE NUMBERS IS SURELY YOU CANNOT SAY WE HAVE HALF OF WIDTH!!! NOW THE e TO THE ((PI/2) TO THE (2 TO THE e)) IS WHY THERE IS THAT SPECIFIC C VELOCITY IN CURRENCY NOW WHY FOUR DIMENSIONS FOR THE FIRST C WELL GO dM/dM*M HAS TO BE THE FIRST BUT THE SQUARE ROOT IN SQUARE ROOT OF ((1/M)/(1+LN(M))) MAKES IT HAVE TO GO TO FOUR!!! THEN THE NEXT WILL BE 9 LIKE IN SQUARES!!! SO IF GOING PAST LIGHT SPEED PREPARE!!! NOW IN THE COMPLEX COMPOUND AND SIMPLE PARTICLES OR ANY PARTICLE WITHIN THE PARTICLE THE LOBES SHAPE AND NUMBER MUST AGREE BUT BETWEEN PARTICLES EVEN WHEN ONE ENGOLFS THE OTHER THE SHAPE AGREES BUT THE INNER PARTICLE TIMES A WHOLE NUMBER CAN BE THE NUMBER FOR THE OUTER PARTICLE AND THIS NUMBER DETERMINES THE DEFINITE LEVELS OF ENERGY LIKE IN AN ATOM WITH PROTONS AND ELECTRONS BECAUSE THE LOBES WILL REPEL EACH OTHER WITHIN THE PARTICLE ALSO THE AGREEMENT IN A PARTICLE GOES ON THE ONLY THING IN A PARTICLE THAT DOES NOT AGREE IS ANGLE OF WOBBLE THE SPEED OF WOBBLE AND EVERYTHING ELSE AGREES NOW WHY DOES LIGHT HAVE ONLY ONE AMPLITUDE WELL THE LOBES MUST BE THE SAME HEIGHT IN ANY LIGHT PARTICLE AND IN A FASTER ENERGY PARTICLE AND OFCOURSE THE CYLINDERS ARE GOING SLOWER LINIAR DIRECTION WISE THEN SLOWER MEANS THE WAVES SHOOT OUT MORE BUT LESS THE SPEED TO GET THE SAME HEIGHT SEE REMEMBER THE SUQARE ROOT OF (X*X+Y*Y) FOR THE TOP OF THIS POST WELL LINAR IS COSINE SHOOT OUT IS SINE THEY KEEP EACH OTHER IN CHECK FOR THE SAME CIRCULAR BEHAVIOR AND THUS SAME AMPLITUDE EVEN WITH DIFFERENT FREQUENCY NOW THERE ARE THAT MANY MORE LOBES IS WHY THERE IS THAT MUCH MORE ENERGY NOW REMEMBER IN FOUR DIMENSIONS FIRST LENGTH THEN WIDTH THEN HEIGHT THEN TIME IN NINE IS AGAIN LENGTH THEN WIDTH THEN HEIGHT THEN TIME THEN FIVE OTHER DIMENSIONS

Monday, August 5, 2013

perfected inventions but read earlier letters first

NOW GO X IS ALWAYS ((SINE(LX)*(SINE(LX))/CX NOW AN OPTION IS IF
GOING ((SINE(CX-LX)*(SINE(CX-LX))/CX THEN CX+2X BECOMES 3CX-2X AND
3CX-2X BECOMES CX+2X AND SINE BECOMES COSINE AND COSINE BECOMES
SINE BUT X IS ALWAYS ((SINE(LX)*(SINE(LX))/CX IN ALL REGULAR
INTEGRATORS SUPPLY IS PARALLEL CIRCUIT WITH OTHER WIRE BARE SO ONLY
TWO PARALLEL CIRCUITS PARALLEL TO EACH OTHER NOW M*V*V/R FOR
CENTRAL AND PUSH ALL STAGES ALL ACCELERATORS INCLUDING MAGNETIC
THRUSTER AND MASS FOR DISKS AS WELL AS ALL ACTIVES IN ALL
ACCELERATORS ALL STAGES AND THE MAGNETIC THRUSTER IS CONSIDERED AN
ACCELERATOR AND EVER INCREASERS TO ALL ACTIVES IN STAGE ONE 'A' IN
MAGNETIC THRUSTER AND ALL ACCELERATORS AND FOR M*V*V/R MAGNETS MASS
IS ALREADY FACTORED IN AND ALL THIS FOR ALL ACTIVE CHARGE PLATES AS
WELL BUT THE COMPLETE END OF ALL ACTIVE PLATES IS A DERIVATIVE ALSO
FOR DERIVATIVE MAKE SURE TO HAVE SERIES IDENTICAL CAPACITORS AND
BRANCHES EACH WITH SERIES IDENTICAL BUT THE DERIVATIVE ACTUAL
CIRCUIT CLOSEST TO MAIN CURRENT AND THE DIODE AND SOLVE FOR 'T'
ALSO MASS MEANS NON CHARGE MASS UNLESS I SAY OTHERWISE ALSO GO Z
FOR THE VARIABLES WHERE Z IS CX+2X OR 3CX-2X Z IN ALL EXPOS FOR ALL
ACTIVE MAGNETS ALL STAGES ALL ACCELERATORS AND IF 1/D FACTOR IN A
1/D TO GET 1/(D*D) IF ALREADY 1/(D*D) DO NOT FACTOR IN 1/D SEE
EXCEPT FOR THE FACTOR OF 1/D THE 1/D OR 1/(D*D) IS NATURAL WITHOUT
YOU DOING ANYTHING NOW FOR Z GO Z*Z FOR 1/(D*D) AND MULTIPLY ONE
MORE Z FOR 1/R AND AGAIN 1/R OCCURRS NATURALLY NOW TO DIVIDE JUST
MULTIPLY BY THE INVERT AND TO MULTIPLY HAVE SIGNALS IN SERIES WITH
A CONSTANT CURRENT OR INSULATE ONE CURRENT PARALLEL AND SIGNAL THE
OTHER ONE THEN THE SIGNAL AND CURRENT WILL MULTIPLYAND MULTIPLY
M*V*V*Z AND Z*Z AND EXPO ALL IN SERIES FOR ALL PUSHES AND CENTRALS
AND FOR DISKS Z*Z AND EXPO AND ALL THIS FOR ALL ACCELERATORS ALL
STAGES ALSO IN SPECIAL TIMER USUALLY USE C1X THERE MAY OR MAY NOT
BE EXCEPTIONS NOW THE NEWER CX OR REALLY NEWEST CX THE TIMER IS
BEFORE THE STRAIGHT CURRENT AND BEFORE THE EXPOS AND THE EXPOS
MEANING THE EXPOS NOT INSIDE THE FUNCTION MACHINES UNLESS I SAY
OTHERSWISE ALTHOUGH THEY ARE IDENTICAL ANYWAY THE VARIABLES ARE THE
OUTPUT OF THE TIMERS AND M*V*V IS NOT FROM THE VARIABLES BUT
MULTIPLIED INTO THE STRAIGHT CURRENTS THEN THE NEWER THAN NEWEST CX
IS REALLY OLD CX AGAIN AND ALL THIS SAME FOR SPECIAL TIMER EXCEPT
WITH C1X NOW W IS TAKE THE PRODUCT OF THE VARIABLE INTO THE EXPO IN
SPECIAL TIMER AND U IS TAKE THE PRODUCT OF THE VARIABLE INTO THE
EXPO IN SIGNAL SYSTEM AND DO IT WITH SPECIAL TIMER SIGNAL INVOLVES
CX SPECIAL TIMER C1X THEN GO CHARGE MASS PLUS (INTREGAL OF (W-U))
NOW WHEN I SAY SINE*SINE OR ((SINE(LX)*(SINE(LX)) OR ANYTHING LIKE
THAT I REALLY MEAN ((SINE(LX)*(SINE(LX))/CX OR
((SINE(L1X)*(SINE(L1X))/C1X AND LX TO CX IS L1X TO C1X YOU WILL
HAVE TO TAKE INTO ACCOUNT ALL THESE NEW CLARIFICATIONS NOW FOR
POWER HEAD IN RELAY SYSTEM ONE CONVERTER INJECTION AND IT TAKES
CURRENT FROM THE PREVIOUS RECTIFIED THEN OUTPUT IS BRANCH ALL THE
TRANSFERS EXCEPT THE ONE TAKING THE INJECTION THEN JOIN THE
BRANCHES TO ONE FOR THE RECTIFYING THERE IS NO RECTIFYING INSIDE
THE POWER HEAD AND YOU CAN USE THIS ANYWHERE AND WITH LINIAR OR
SINE BUT WITH SINE I WANT NEGATIVE AND POSITIVE NOW IN THE PAST
WHEN I SAID Q IS X/CX OR X/C1X AND USE Q*Q*Q FOR 1/(D*D) I SAID
WRONG YOU MUST USE Z*Z AND MULTIPY IN ANOTHER Z FOR 1/R NOW ONLY
MULTIPLY IN A THIRD Z WHEN THERE IS M*V*V/R SEE THE DISKS DO NOT
HAVE M*V*V/R SO IN DISKS USE ONLY Z*Z NOW FACTOR IN 1/D IF NOT
ALREADY 1/(D*D) AND IF M*V*V/R THEN GO Z*Z*Z NOW LISTEN TO ALL THE
STUFF I HAVE EVER TYPED ALSO IN SPECIAL TIMER X IS
((SINE(L1X)*(SINE(L1X))/C1X BUT IS SIGNAL JUST
((SINE(LX)*(SINE(LX))/CX REMEMEBER THE TIMERS START OUT AS CX+2LX
OR C1X+2L1X OR 3CX-2LX OR 3C1X-2L1X THEN TAKE THE SINE OF LX OR L1X
THEN SQUARE THAT THEN DIVIDED BY CX OR C1X THEN PUT INTO VARIABLES NOW WHAT EVER IS DONE TO SIGNAL IS DONE TO SPECIAL TIMER WITH
EXCEPTIONS AND WHAT EVER IS DONE TO SPECIAL TIMER IS DONE TO SIGNAL
WITH EXCEPTIONS NOW INDUCTORS DO NOT HAVE TO BE WITH CAPACITORS BUT
THEY CAN BE AND CAPACITORS DO NOT HAVE TO BE WITH INDUCTORS BUT
THEY CAN BE NOW YOU CAN TAKE DERIVATIVE OF WAVESTARTER WAVE AND BUT
INTO UNIT CURRENT TO FREEZE CARRIER CURRENTS AND ALSO HAVE THE
DERIVATIVE DIRECTLY WITH A PARALLEL CIRCUIT AND ANOTHER PARALELL
CIRCUIT IN SERIES THEN PARALLEL JOIN THESE CIRCIUT NO INSULATION
HELP THE CARRIER CURRENTS AND ONE CARRIER CURRENT IS THE EXACT
NEGATIVE OF THE OTHER IN A WAVESARTER AND THEN FREEZE THE UNIT
CURRENTS AND INSULATE A PARALLEL CIRCUIT OFF OF THE DERIVATIVE AND
WHEN I SAY THE CURRENT IS INSULATED I MEAN A PARALLEL CIRCUIT IS
OFF OF IT AND INSULATED TO GO TO SIGNAL OR UNIT CURRENT OR WHEREVER
AND THE INSULATED CURRENTS ARE RIGHT DIRECTLY TO SIGNAL OR UNIT
CURRENTS AS IN NO PARALLEL CIRCUIT TO THE UNIT AS IN TAKE THE MAIN
CURRENT WITH A PARALLEL CIRCUIT WITH INSULATION ALSO SWITCH TO
FREEZE THE UNIT CURRENT FOR THE BIGGER FREEZE TO THE CARRIER
CURRENTS AND THE FROZEN UNIT CURRENT IS BRANCHED AND THE DERIVATIVE
TO UNIT CURRENT IS BRANCHED NOW FOR LOGISTICS FREEZE THE CURRENT
WITH A LARGE UNIT CURRENT COMING FROM AN INSULATED PARALLEL OFF OF
THE MAIN CURRENT AND HAVE MANY LAYER SIGNALS TO MAIN CURRENT
IDENTICAL BUT WITH ONE LAYER ON DUAL SIDE TO COUNIT AND OFCOURSE
INTEGRATORS WITH SUPPLY FROM THE MAIN CURRENT ALSO FOR ALL INPUT
OUTPUT OR INVERTERS OR FREEZES OR ANYTHING WITH PROPERTIES OF AN
INVERTER PUT A PARALLEL CIRCUIT OFF OF MAIN CURRENT WITH NO
INSULATION FOR THE INTREGATOR TO SIGNAL THEN THAT CORRECTS THE
COUNIT THIS WAY THE UNIT CURRENT AND COUNIT HAVE NO DRAG NOW
REMEMBER SUPPLY ONLY CONTROLS HOW HIGH INTEGRATOR GOES NOW MAKE THE
UNIT CURRENTS IN LOGISTICS SO THAT THE UNITS ARE CONTROLED BY THE
MAIN CURRENT THE WAY I SAID BUT WITH LITTLE INSULATION AND FOR ANY
FREEZE HAVE AS MANY LAYER SIGNALS FROM DUAL TO MAIN AS YOU WANT
MAKE LAYER IDENTICAL BUT FOR DUAL TO COUNIT THE DUAL DIRECTLY
SIGNALS THE COUNIT AND FOR MAIN THE THE LEAST IS TWO LAYERS
INCLUDING THE DUAL ALSO DUAL FOR ANY REGULAR INTEGRATOR NOW FOR
LOGISTICS FREEZE THEN IN A CONSTANT CURRENT YOU WILL GET
EXPONENTIAL THEN TIMES BY AN INVERT EXPONENTIAL AND NO CIRCUIT IS
ALREADY ON IF I SAID THAT I SAID WRONG THEN YOU GET LINIAR THEN IF
THE CIRCUIT IS VIOLENT ENOUGH THEN THE WIRE DOES NOT NO INFINITELY
SMALL HORIZONTAL MOVEMENT SO BELOW A CERTAIN AMOUNT THE LINE IS
VERTICAL BECAUSE ELECTRONS DO ARE EITHER 'A' OR ZERO AND THEN 'A'
IS THE SMALLEST ON THE WIRE IT WILL MOVE THEN DO THIS FOR ALL
CIRCUITS A SIMILIAR THING WILL HAPPEN BUT YOU DO NOT HAVE TO PUT A
MILLION OF THESE THINGS LIKE FOR EACH STRAIGHT CURRENT USE ONE FOR
EXAMPLE SO FOR ANY SERIES CIRCUIT USE ONLY ONE NOW IN ANY
DERIVATIVE I WANT A NEGATIVE AND POSITIVE DERIVATIVE FOR THE
POSITIVE CURRENT AND A NEGATIVE AND POSITIVE FOR THE NEGATIVE
CURRENT ALSO IN THE SIMPLE RECTIFIER OF THE RECTIFIER OF THE
POLARIZER THERE IS WIRE 'A' OF SIMPLE RECTIFIER WITH TWO DIODES
POINTING IN AND WIRE 'B' WITH TWO DIODES OUT NOW HAVE TWO
DERIVATIVES INSIDE THE DIODES OF THE 'A' AND POINTING AGAINST THE
CURRENT LIKE ALWAYS BUT ALSO AGAINST THE DIODES NOW HAVE TWO
DERIVATIVES INSIDE THE DIODES OF THE 'B' AND POINTING AGAINST THE
CURRENT LIKE ALWAYS BUT ALSO AGAINST THE DIODES THEN ADD ALL THE
DERIVATIVES NOW YOU CAN ALSO DO TWO OF THESE IN THE TRICK SIMPLE
RECTIFIER IF NEEDED NOW MASS WAVES CAN BE USED IN ACCELERATORS OR
DECELERATORS EITHER DIRECTION OF WAVE FOR EACH NOW THE FREQUENCY
CAN BE INFINITE 1/(INFINITE) 1/C OR C OR ANYTHING NOW THE AMPLITUDE
CAN BE INFINITE 1/(INFINITE) 1/C OR C OR ANYTHING NOW THE MASS CAN
BE INFINITE 1/(INFINITE) 1/C OR C OR ANYTHING NOW THE VELOCITY CAN
BE INFINITE 1/(INFINITE) 1/C OR C OR ANYTHING ALSO IN MASS WAVE GO
ACCELERATE EXPO AND DECELERATE 1/EXPO OR ACCELERATE 1/EXPO AND
DECELERATE EXPO NOW IN CX+2LX GO MINUS CX THEN DIVIDE BY 2 THEN
SINE THEN SQUARE THEN DIVIDE BY CX THE TIMES 2 THEN ADD CX NOW IN
3CX-2LX GO NEGATIFY BY SWOPPING ADD 3CX THEN DIVIDE BY 2 THEN SINE
THEN SQUARE THEN DIVIDE BY CX THE TIMES 2 THEN SUBTRACT 3CX THEN
NEGATIFY BY SWOPPING NOW IN C1X+2L1X GO MINUS C1X THEN DIVIDE BY 2
THEN SINE THEN SQUARE THEN DIVIDE BY C1X THE TIMES 2 THEN ADD C1X
NOW IN 3C1X-2L1X GO NEGATIFY BY SWOPPING ADD 3C1X THEN DIVIDE BY 2
THEN SINE THEN SQUARE THEN DIVIDE BY C1X THE TIMES 2 THEN SUBTRACT
3C1X THEN NEGATIFY BY SWOPPING NOW WHATEVER YOU CAN DO TO PARTICLES
YOU CAN DO TO LIGHT OR TO VEHICLES OR TO BULLETS OR TO ANYTHING
ALSO ALL ACCELERATORS OR DECCELERATORS ALL STAGES ALL THE SAME WITH
EXCPETIONS AND FOR EACH STAGE A WHOLE ENTIRE SET OF SYSTEMS AND
EVERYTHING NOW IN DERIVATIVE CAPACITORS OR CAPACITORS ALONE 'A' EQUAL e TO THE
(-(T/(RC))) GO LN(A) IS 'B' THEN SWOP OR NEGATIFY THEN TIMES RC FOR
CAPACITORS OR CAPACITORS FOR DERIVATIVE CIRCUITS AND SOMETHING
SIMILIAR IN INDUCTORS AND DO THIS ALL FOR CAPACITORS ALONE OR
DERIVATIVE CAPACITORS ALONE OR INDUCTORS ALONE WHERE NEEDED AND
ALWAYS FOR DERIVATIVE CAPACITORS AND TREAT THE SERIES AND PARALLELS
OF CAPACITORS IDENTICAL SYSTEM LIKE ONE CAPACITOR SAME FOR
INDUCTORS ALSO IN Z WHICH IS CX+2X OR 3CX-2X RECTIFY Z BY GETTING X
ALONE TIMES CX SQUARE ROOT SWITCH SYSTEM TO GET SINE NEGATIVE AND
POSITIVE DERIVE THEN SIMPLE RECTIFY COSINE AND SINE SEPERATELY THEN
SQUARE EACH SEPERATELY THEN ADD TOGETHER THEN SQUARE ROOT THAT
ENTIRE THING THEN ADD CX TO GET 3CX AND ALSO ADD THE DERIVATIVE
PART WHICH IS TAKE SINE AND ARCSINE TO GET LINIAR AND TAKE COSINE
AND ARCCOSINE THAT THE SAME WAY AS SINE IS ARCSINED TO GET LINIAR
DERIVE AND SIMPLE RECTIFY EACH SEPERATELY THEN ADD THE DERIVATIVES
TO GET 'D' THEN ADD 'D' TO THE 3CX TO GET A MODIFIED 3CX I ALWAYS
WANT TO USE THE MODIFIED 3CX ALSO GO Z*Z*CX*CX*CX*CX*CX OR
3CX*3CX*CX*CX*CX*CX*CX ALSO GO Z*CX*CX*CX*CX*CX OR
3CX*CX*CX*CX*CX*CX ALSO POWER SUCKSION MAKES THE INTEGRATORS OVER
DRIVE THE CARRIER CURRENTS BY PUSHING THEM ALSO ALWAYS WHEN MESSING
WITH Z OR 3CX MAKE SURE TO ADJUST MEANING GET 3CX OR Z ALONE THEN
DO WHATEVER THEN READJUST MEANING REVERSE WHAT YOU DID TO GET Z OR
3CX ALONE AND THE ADJUST READJUST IS FOR ANYTHING INVOLVING THE
SIGNAL AND SPECIAL TIMER SYSTEM INVOLVING THE 3CX OR Z NOW RELAY
SYSTEM IS ALWAYS 3CX*CX*CX*CX*CX OR 3CX*3CX*CX*CX*CX*CX*CX AND FOR
ANY CX ACTIVITY IN RELAY SYSTEM ALSO ADJUST DO WHATEVER AND
READJUST ALSO IN SPECIAL TIMER SYSTEM ALWAYS USE 3C1X OR C1X OR L1X
ETC. NOW THEN SIGNAL TO THE CARRIER CURRENTS IN BOTH SPECIAL TIMER
AND SIGNAL SYSTEMS ARE BOTH CX AND FROM DIRECT SIGNAL SYSTEM THE
STRAIGHT CURRENTS IN THE SPECIAL TIMER AND SIGNAL SYSTEMS FROM THE
DIRECT SIGNAL SYSTEM ARE BOTH SIGNALED BY CX OTHERWISE SPECIAL
TIMER IS ALWAYS C1X AND L1X AND SIGNAL SYSTEM ALWAYS CX AND LX ALSO
THERE MAY BE OTHER EXCEPTIONS TO THE C1X AND L1X IN SPECIAL TIMER
VERSES CX AND LX IN SIGNAL SYSTEM AND REMEMBER WHAT IS DONE TO
SPECIAL TIMER SYSTEM IS DONE TO SIGNAL SYSTEM WITH EXCPETIONS AND
WHAT IS DONE TO SIGNAL SYSTEM IS DONE TO SPECIAL TIMER SYSTEM WITH
EXCEPTIONS ALSO FEEL FREE TO USE ALL IDEAS IN ANYTHING NOW TO ORGANIZE RECYCLES HAVE ONE AND TWO UNDER X AS IN SEQUENCE
'A' 'B' AND 'C' THEN ONE RECYCLES FROM 'B' BACK TO 'A' TWO RECYCLES
FROM 'C' TO 'B' AND OUTER X RECYCLES FROM 'C' TO 'A' AND HAVE ALL
THE RECYCLES ARRANGED THIS WAY AND FOR PURE POWER STEPPERS AND STEP
DOWNS MAKE FREQUENCY TINY AND AMPLUTIDE HUGE BUT NOT NEARLY HUGE
ENOUGH TO MAKE UP FOR FREQUENCY BEING TINY THEN RECTIFY AT END OF
ALL PURE POWERSTEPPERS ALL CONVERTERS AND ALL STEP DOWNS AND
ORGANIZE RECYCLES FOR ALL CONVERTERS IN SEQUENCE AND ALL PURE
POWERSTEPPER GROUPS IN SEQUENCE AND ALL STEP DOWN GROUPS IN
SEQUENCE AND HAVE THE NUMBERS SO THAT THE ORGANIZING CAN BE DONE
THE OUTER MOST RECYCLE IN ORGANIZING THERE IS ONLY A SINGLE RECYCLE
AND THE CURRENT AT BEGINNING OF ANYTHING WITH A RECYCLE IS STRAIGHT
THEN TURNED INTO WAVES LINIAR OR SINE AT BEGINNING THEN YOU CAN USE
SIMPLE RECTIFIERS IN ALL RECYCLES AND OFCOURSE IN LINIAR AS SOON AS
FORMED BE SURE TO SIMPLE RECTIFIY THEM ALSO KEEP SINE ALL POSITIVE
AND THEN USE SWITCH SYSTEM TO CHANGE IT TO NEGATIVE AND POSITIVE TO
RECTIFY ALSO IN RELAY USE THESE METHODS AND ORGANIZING METHODS AS
WELL ALSO IN RELAY BE SURE TO DO TO RECYCLES WHAT YOU DO TO RELAY
WITH EXCEPTIONS AS IN THE FREEZE EXPO SYSTEM OR WHATEVER I SAID IN
THE PAST ABOUT THE EXPO FREEZE OF RELAY DO IT TO EVERY PART OF
RELAY INCLUDING ALL RECYCLES NOW STRAIGHT ONLY MEANS IT IS NOT IN
THE FORM OF WAVES THIS DOES NOT MEAN A CONSTANT NECESSARILY BY ANY
MEANS SO KEEP ALL RECYCLES STRAIGHT NO RECYCLING WAVES EXCEPT IN
POWER HEAD THAT USES THE UNITS AND TRANSFER WIRES TO RECYCLE NOT A
RECYCLE WIRE LIKE IN OTHER STUFF NOW TO RECTIFY THE POWER HEAD IF
LINIAR TAKE THE PARALLEL AND DO ANOTHER FREEZE AND MAKE THE OUTCOME
WHAT YOU WANT REMEMBER TO USE THE INCREASE UNIT CURRENT TIMING
SYSTEM BY MAIN CURRENT GOING TO UNIT BUT ONLY SWITCH THIS FREEZE ON
AS A POINT BY DERIVATIVE SWITCH INTEGRATOR SYSTEM AND THE CURRENT
IS INSULATED THAT IS A PARALLEL CIRCUIT FROM THE MAIN CIRCUIT THEN
THE FREEZE LOCKS IT TO A CONSTANT CURRENT REMEMBER ANYTHING TO
LINIAR CAN BE DONE TO SINE AND ANYTHING TO SINE TO LINIAR AND SINE
IS POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE WHERE AS LINIAR IS ONLY POSITIVE AND AFTER
THE POWER HEAD YOU DO NOT NEED A RECTIFIER NOW THE INJECTER CAN BE
A REGULAR POWER CONVERTER A COLUMN CONVERTER OR EVEN ANOTHER POWER HEAD AND YOU CAN CHANGE RING POWER HEADS AND EVEN CHANGE BRANCH BY MORE THAN ONE INJECTION BY POWER HEADS AND OR MORE THAN ONE INJECTION BY CONVERTERS OR COMBINATIONS ALSO ALL RECYCLES COME
AFTER A RECTIFIER AND BEFORE A WAVESTARTER EXCEPT IF YOU CAN USING
UNITS AND TRANSFER WIRES IN A POWER HEAD BUT EVEN INJECTION
CONVERTERS THIS IS TRUE OF RECYCLES YOU CAN USE ANYTHING WITH
ANYTHING THE POSSIBLITIES ARE ENDLESS NOW IN RELAY THE OUT BRANCHES
ARE ALL IDENTICAL BUT SEPERATE THE IN BRANCHES ARE ALL IDENTICAL
BUT SEPERATE THE OUT BRANCH AND THE IN BRANCH ARE IDENTICAL TO EACH
OTHER BUT SEPERATE ALL THIS STRUCTURE WISE NOW NO RECYCLING BETWEEN
OUT BRANCHES OR BETWEEN IN BRANCHES OR BETWEEN AN OUT BRANCH AND AN
IN BRANCH AND A BRANCH OFSOURSE HAS A STRUCTURE OF RELAY UNITS AND
A RELAY UNIT IS A CONVERTER THEN POWERSTEPPERS THEN STEP DOWNS NOW
THE CONVERTER RECYCLES THE PURE POWERSTEPPERS RECYCLE AND THE STEP
DOWNS RECYCLE OF COURSE THIS IS THREE UNDER ONE AND THAT IS THE
ONLY SITUATION THAT THREE HAPPENS OTHEWISE IT IS ALWAYS TWO UNDER
ONE TO ORGANIZE ENERGY DO NOT FORGET TO USE THE POWERHEADS BUT NOT
IN PLACE OF PURE POWERSTEPPERS OR STEP DOWNS OR CONVERTERS BUT AT
END OF RELAY UNITS AND ALL RELAY UNITS IDENTICAL AND USE LINIAR
WAVE POWER HEADS IN THE RELAY UNITS AND REMEMBER WHAT IS DONE TO
SINE IS TO LINIAR AND LINIAR TO SINE AND APPLY EVERYTHING I SAID
ABOUT POWER HEADS TO GET MAJOR ENERGY INFACT USE THE POWER HEAD NOT
IN PLACE OF ANYTHING BUT AS AN ADDED INSTALATION TO GET ENERGY THAT
IS NOT CORRUPT OR PURE ENERGY