## Wednesday, July 29, 2015

### the life particle and other things

now any particle with the angle of wobble changing the function can be anything of f(x) but x must always be infinite to zero to negative infinite to zero to infinite etc. and this is for any particle including the life particle which I talked about at the end of the last post before this one also the reason is because particles are circular hence the sine properties also each particle possibly represents a dimension because the possible directions of the cylinders is effected by dimensions like one direction one dimension two dimensions infinite directions three dimensions infinite cubed directions fourth which is time then the timing sets the course of which fields attract each other etc. so four forces of nature to four dimensions!!! now in m equal sin(m*m*v*v/2) the antikozak of that is m equal sec(v*v) now why well arcsine(m) is m*m*v*v/2 then 1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) is mv then intregal of (v*F(v)) is 1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) then derive in terms of v and also m is F(v) and aTb is a to the b then {-m/[(1-m*m)T(1.5)]} all times dm/dv then v is {1/[(m*m-1)T(1.5)]} all times dm/dv then dm/((v)dv) is dm(dv*v) is [(m*m-1)T(1.5)] then 3m*[sqrt(m*m-1)] is ddm/[d(m)*d(v*v)] see I derived them both to dm because of the differential equation then 3/(d(v*v)) because set the dm and v equal and get a three then reset their inequalities and this is 3m*[sqrt(m*m-1)] then d(v*v) is 1/(m*(sqrt(1-m*m))) then v*v is arcsec(m) because d0/dx is sec(0)tan(0) then dx/d0 is 1/(m*(m*m-1)) or 1/[sec(0)tan(0)] anyway m is sec(v*v) then go(1/2)*2*v*sec(v*v) then (1/2)*ln[sqrt(1+m*m)+(m)] but according to the kozak formula the intregal of (1/2)*ln[sqrt(1+m*m)+(m)] is such that m is sine(m*m*v*v/2) where v is sqrt(arcsec(m)) so this is the intregal of (1/2)*arcsinh(m) so if m is sine((1/2)*m*m*arcsec(m)) then you have the m*m*v*v/2 equal intregal of (1/2)*arcsinh(m)!!! now also remember the both signal magnets and both relay magnets are energy supply to the relay system now also passive plates and passive magnets almost the same treatment also the disk magnets are particularly useful if the accelerator is huge to squeeze the magnetism of the central toward the outer for the particles now intregal of arcsinh(m) is m*arcsinh(m) plus sqrt(1+m*m) then the solution is m equal sin(m*m*v*v/2)!!! now you can change m and v to anything and in intregal of m*v (dmdv) equal intregal mv d(mv) the dmv/dw cancels out so you can freely change it!!! w is whatever now sqr(cos(0)) is e to the [sqr(sin(&))*sqr(cos(0))] (turning m into cos(0) and v into sin(&)) kozaked is cos(0) is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) or cos(0) is cos(&) then 0 is & then when the circular substitution happens enough then 0 and & are equal and sqr(cos(0)) is e to the [sqr(sin(0))*sqr(cos(0))] then 2*ln(cos(0)) is [sqr(sin(0))*sqr(cos(0))] then 2*ln(cos(0)) is [sqr(sin(2*0))/2] then -2*tan(0) is 2*sin(2*0)*cos(2*0) then -2*tan(0) is sin(4*0) obviously 0 goes to zero and both of the expressions are zero so just some things you can play around with in these equations also in the function machines you can use all ideas and the old fashion method of compounding functions as well now if wanting intregals like IIIIffff(x) then have a recycle function machine whose functions are just integrators and from the function machine to the integrator function machine and then that never rejoins the main function machine if wanting five functions then five intregals etc. then have a five and it rejoins etc. now in the arcsin(m) situations I assumes that m was sqrt(M*M-1) and M is the original mass but say M is m then you are integrating the ln[sqrt(m*m-1) plus (m)] which is impossible to integrate but with kozak method you can as in m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) and then go m is sin([m*m*arcsec(m)]/2) and you can do anything with this with any equation also do to all plates passive and active what you do to their corresponding magnets passive and active with exceptions now active plates do what active magnets do and passive plates do what passive magnets do with almost the same circuitry for both also in m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) you cannot replace v*v with arcsec(m)!!! also in sqr(sec(x)) is e to the -{sqr[tan(0)sec(0)]} then sec(0) is 1/sec(0) then sqr(cos(0)) is 1 then cos(0) is one then 0 is zero when m is infinite!!! also say m is sqrt(1-v*v) then go v*sqrt(1-v*v) then (1/3)*[(1-v*v)^1.5] (^ is to the) anyway then go (1/3)*[m^(1.5)] then go [(15/4)^(2/5)]*[(mv)^(4/5)] all to the (2 to the v) is m then if v approaches infinite then m is one and then because m is sqrt(1-v*v) then v is zero!!! so circular movement at infinite winds up as zero even without relativity factored in!!! now sqrt(1-v*v) is sec(0) then when m or v is infinite in a circle then v is zero then m is infinite while v is zero also go what is zero to the zero well x to the x then ln(y) is x*ln(x) then ln(x)/(1/x) then 1/x/(-1/(x*x)) then x or -zero or zero then y is one thus one for [(mv)^(4/5)] ^ (2 to the v) where the exponent of mv would go to zero also the sqr(cos(0) would cancel the square effect of sqr(sec(0)) also if m is infinite then v is zero so m*zero would be finite even if v is infinite to go to zero now anything that mimics the nature of a circle is treated like it!!! thus ellipses etc. also the energy is then finite at energy is infinite!!! because (1/2)*(m*v*v) and two zeros means energy is zero at infinite!!! now ofcourse m*c*c is energy so the kinetic is zero then m*c*c is all potential then it is possible that their is nothing but potential and no kinetic at rest thus cylinders really are going infinite speed in a circular!!! so mass and no kinetic is indeed possible!!! now for cylinders the mass would be because of the infinite small size and infinite velocity to infinite small velocity thus cylinders really are 1/(cube(infinite))!!! so liniar dimensions really are infinite small in cylinders (mass to volume) also mass particle the velocity goes to infinite to the w (w is whatever) and the velocity is 1/(infinite to the w) but the particle itself has infinite more energy so the other particles are just signals!!! now no matter what waves or really lobes stay same velocity c and cylinders stay same velocity c*infinite and wobble behaves as is now in spiral and waves spiral responds n/infinity and cycloid waves respond in s/infinity time with n greater then s because waves are direct and spiral is perpendicular so a+b is constant and a*a plus b*b is constant since energy is all the same then 2ab is constant then ab is constant so if large emphasis on wave and small on spiral or vice versa then still same speed behavior but in functions both are zero time response but if changing derivative infinitely fast then the n and s pop out with no division of infinite as in f(x) then f(f(x)) then f(f(f(f(x))) (f(x) is e to the x) then eight etc. then light speed also if all wave no spiral the limit is the same and vice versa the same and when the spiral falls behind then further acceleration is further behind when not zero then this is called succession but normally and al division of infinite the particle with spiral and wave combined is always light speed now when 'a' factor that means the change is happening under light speed thus energy distruction!!! over is energy creation one is neither but listen to what I said in the past!!! see 'a' factor has also to do with the spiral and wave interaction in the same way!!! also for wave or lobe and cylinder I may have made an error just now so listen to the past information so in other dimensions or universes or both it is possible the objects accelerate themselves!!!