Thursday, November 5, 2015

huge strategies and corrections

now the a is g-(k/m)*(v^n) a is acceleratin k s ar constant m is mass g is gravity v is velocity then it goes to gt is I(g/(g-(k/m)*(v^n))) then I(t*n*v^(n-1)) dt is -(m/k)*ln(g-((k/m)*(v^n)) then m*m/(k*k) times ln(a) is 1/2 times dtdt n*v(n-1)/sqr(g-(k/m)*(v^n)) then m*m/(k*k) times ln(a) dadvdv is 1/(g-(k/m)*(v^n)) dvdv then go m*m/(k*k) times ln(a) dvdv is a/(g-(k/m)*(v^n)) dvdt is m*m/(k*k) times (ln(a)) dvdt (dv/(dv/dt)) then dt comes out on top then 1/2 back in then (1/2)*1 dvdt is m*m/(k*k) times (ln(a))/a (dv/dt) times dtdt then m*m/(k*k))*sqr(ln(a)) dtdt is d but there are two remaining dt's on the other side thus ln(a) is -sqrt(kd/mv) then a is e^(-sqrt(kd/mv)) then a is g-(k/m)*(v^n) then you can arrange it so distance is alone in terms of v also remember first brackets then exponents then multiply and divide then add and subtract now the formula would be (mv/k)*sqr(ln(g-(k/m)*(v^n))) is distance!!! also g is amount of gravitational force per mass now intregal of -c*v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) dv/dt is is intregal of Fv then intregal of -c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) dvdv is FD then intregal of -c/sqrt(1-x*x) dxdx (1/sqrt(x*x+y*y)) is really 1/sqrt(x*x+y*y) etc. anyway go inregal of c*c*arccos(x) dx then c*c*(x*arccos(x)+sqrt(1-x*x)) then x=cos(((sqrt(1-x*x))/(c*c*x))) then no other solution will do but one then v/c is one (x is v/c) then v is c now with FD is zero as in no acceleration is taking place but now go intregal of m for now there is definite mass at and beyond c so now c/(x*sqrt(x*x-1)) dxdx because when beyond light speed the radical switches by the arccoth(x) from arctanh(x) rule in ln((1+x)/(1-x)) to ln((x+1)/(x-1)) then c*arcsec(x) then c*c*x*arcsec(x)-I(1/(sqrt(x*x-1))) or c*c*(arcsec(x)-arccosh(x)) then arcsec(x)=arccosh(x) then derive both in terms of x to stay equal then 1/(x*sqrt(x*x-1) is 1/sqrt(x*x-1) then 1/x is 1 and x is 1 to c case one if acceleration is taking case it is below light speed but in case two acceleration means it is above light speed but look!!! remember it is zero mass below and finite above so this all works!!! and in both cases the other side at first is Fv then go FD so mass is mass at that instantanious rate of derivative of energy or power now most of the time in all normal conditions there is no acceleration even with the body being accelerated but changing the instantanious derivative by kozaking to curve the infinitely small line means acceleration for the drifter as well and drifters are anything that does not change speed relatively or absolutely no acceleration they just drift also to slow down below light speed instead of above reverse the kozak (2*ln(m*m))/(v*v) is m*m as in invert the function!!! also in the equation a is e^(sqrt(kd/(mv))) go sqr(ln(a)) is kd/(mv) then kd/(sqr(ln(a))) is mv then kvd/(2*(sqr(ln(a)))) is (1/2)*m*v*v then m*v*v is kvd/(sqr(ln(a))) now remember drifters will not accelerate oor deccelerate until a kozak and remember the mass will make t go back to light speed when removing the kozak and for below the lack of mass will make it want to come back up!!! now in sec(arccos(x)) when it is pi/2 the thing goes to infinite as in ln((x+sqrt(x*x-1))) and it can switch any time the signs and orders also then put the sec on it also what energy will happen determines the phase of the sec or cos also for these couple of equations if I said arcsin I really mean arccos so correct errors now in the errors there may be a few so correct them!!!! now I made a huge mistake see 1 is 1/x then ln(x) is x then ((ln(x))^2)/2 is x then x is ((ln(x))^3)/6 is x etc. where x! is x factorial then (x!)/((ln(x))^x) is 1/x then the integation because the x is v/c then as velocity is larger acceleration is more per mass then intregation more velocity and also the function of function etc. also x!/e^x is (x+1)/e where x! out does e^x by a liniar multiple increasing then imaging what it does to ln(x))^x then there is a definite increase and take the derivatve and treat it a little different becuase of the function of function required to create such a situation!!! now remember x s continous not descrete and I think you know the derivative of x! as a continous but all I am saying here is x is continous!!! now I made a huge mistake see we are not looking for 1/x we are looking for x or v/c then (((ln(x))^x)/(x!) then the top actually exeeds the bottom then recall the derivative of x! is ((x^x)*((ln(x))/e^x and the (e^x)*(a number greater than one) because (ln(x))^x exeeds one eventually and e^x goes to the top then x^x at the bottom then the actual pattern is e^x for kozak equation then ((e^(x))) now really go (ln(x))^(x-1) but the bottom is also x^x but the top is now x^x so they cancel so (e^x)/(x^x) is at the top and ln(e^x) is at the top also to get e^x but the kozak has more surprises e^(x*x) then it will be (e^(x*x)) then the x multiplies because the x*x like m*m in the kozak equation then times by v*v then (e^x*x*v*v) so the velocity is well the sky's the limit!!! now when x becomes x*x like in the kozak equation then the ^(x-1) is now ^x and e^x is twice total effect!!! now I made a little bit of an error see the relativity depends on mass as well and for attraction mass is proportional to rc but for repel the situation becomes a hyperbola see x*x+y*y verses y*y-x*x one is distance negative where mass is proportional to negative rc so and this is in all fields going 1/(r*r) but also any field going any F(x)+F(y) verses F(y)-F(x) and go 1/(F(r)) then invert derivatve or intregal invert I think the second I'm not sure and the K for K-rc is energy at zero distance when circles are coencentric which means it is not infinity anyway in gravity when the field is more approached the mass changes to less then the spiral and waves move faster to compensate and so the time slows dowm when more mass the opposite thus gravity and any field is a relativity converting machine!!! see the mass is larger so the centrufugal for is larger by larger velocity then it is less difficult to get the spiral and wave to stay on light speed to slower speed necessary!!! then time is slower with slower motion!!! but inside the vehicle there is also that effect as well and unlike the other situations time slows down there also as in two look at each other slow down or one outside and one inside outside appear faster inside slower it is all about balance and equilibrium!!!!!!!!! now when mass is less becuase it is closer to other body then less rc and less r and less x and y anyway when mass is less radius is less so velocity for wave and spiral is more to get back to mass and m is rv then v is velocity of wave and spiral (not total velocity) then v is 2 then m is 1/2 then is 1/4 see v*v/r then r must square and invert to effect v effectively!!! also in a blackhole the 'a' factor shift happens landing time and mass etc. positive reversed and not infinite or negative!!! also in m*v*v/r think of it as (1/4)*m*v*v/(r*(1/4)) etc. now the radius will cause 16 times the force but 2*v*2*v/(r/4) counteracts it then the mass is 1/2 as in in a one each 1/2 gets the same attention so apart no difference then 1//2 get's the same attention!!! now in the c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) the c*c*(1-(1/(m*m))) is v*v then go k*c*c then the one in the center coencentric go -c*c/(m*m) is v*v then negatify since it is attraction inward then c/m is v thus if mass is 1/2 then v is 2 also for repel hyperbola go k*c*c*(((1/(m*m))-1) then this time add the one and keep at positive because repel is opposite then the mass lost causes inward movement causes velocity increase by potential to kinetic!!! now remember everything in the accelerators put in the magnetic thrusters and except the attract everything in the central and push put in the disks in magnetic thrusters with exceptions also in m*v*v/r is k*q*q/(r*r) then m*v*v is k*q*q/r then m/k is q*q/r then m has to change more for the same time effect so charge not effect time as much also these constants go into m is rc so again not effect time as much because (m*v*v/r) all times 1/k not effective like gravity unless a large change in field which could happen now k is 8.988 times 10^9 but gravity is 6.766 times 10^-11 so that much difference!!! now the d(m*m) to dmdm will hold the truth but only different truths and same for any of these now if you go I(F(v)) d(v*v) is I(F(v)) dvdv it will take you to the truth but a different truth now in the mv dmv the same truth (the kozak equation original) because both are different and perpendicular now remember mv for area and mv from zero to mv is 1/2 the value and that is why you get (sqr(mv))/2 (the volume) then it goes zero to mv same truth also in charge the 1/(k/g) (gravity is g) then charge is g/k as much then mass can change a lot more then mass iis like say three and one is three and one in a whole no different but the pull it experiences is always mass in whole thus more mass influences the body but other body's less mass influences the time slow down less and use the functions for the field and in the plates do to plates what is done to magnets wth excpetions in magnetic thrusters and accelerators and vice versa and do to magnetic thrusters what s done to accelerators and vice versa all with exceptions and the signal and relay plates are passive the rest are actives with maybe exceptions now go intregal of -c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) d(v*v) is intregal of intregal of -c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) dvdv as in do one at a time versa the whole thing at once and the negative was for the v moving toward the origin in a circle then the first goes to c*sqrt(c*c-v*v) the second goes to c*v*(arccos(v/c))+c*sqrt(c*c-v*v) and then c*v*arccos(v/c) is zero then v has to be either zero or c!!! and remember there are many truths it depends on what angle you look at it!!! now this is what causes discrete energy levels in the atom and nuclear and even gravity and anything discrete also you can do other speeds between zero and c and between c and infinite or at infiniite or at c or at zero given the freak-of-nature conditions!!! now treated all magnets and plates the same in magnetic thrusters and also in accelerators and between them all with exceptions also the now the mass system also keeps track of any unwanted forces like gravity or nuclear forces any unknown forces so use the unknown forces detechtor like you use the special timer system with possibly exceptions so you can weed out the totall mass!!! now if intregal of intregal or I(I(F(x*x))) is F(x*x) then d(d(F(x*x))) is F(x*x) now I(F(x*x)) d(x*x) is I(I(F(x*x))) dxdx then d(d(F(x*x)))/dvdv is d(F(x*x))/d(x*x) then derivative of derivative or d(d(F(x*x))) is dd(F(x*x)) then ddcos(x*x) is 4*x*x*cos(x*x) plus 2*sin(x*x) is cos(x*x) then for -sin(-x*x) it is -4*x*x*sin(-x*x) minus 2*cos(-x*x) is -sin(-x*x) then (4*x*x-1)/2 is cot(x*x) and (4*x*x-1)/2 is tan(x) then (4*x*x-1)/2 is one then 4 is really n*n and x*x is really x^(2n-2) and 2 is really n(n-1) then ((n*n*x^(2n-2))-1)/(n(n-1)) is 1 then ((n*n-n+1)/n*n)^(1/(2n-2)) is v so what happens when n is one well 1^infinite well then you are setting -I(I(sin(v^n))) to -I(I(sin(v^n))) (also II is I(I etc.) ( and the negative is because of a negative activity to make it minus one in (4*x*x-1) now what if n is one then sin(x) is cos(x) since they are both negative both integrated and both negatified n the process then in x*x (x is v in these cases) you got (sqrt(3))/2 but at one well the x has to be pi/4!!! then to approach pi go the folllowing 4*[((n*n-n+1)/n*n)^(1/(2n-2))] as n goes to one!!! now come to think of it ddx really is -x as n approaches one thus even if the derivatives and intregals methods for each do not make sense the formula makes perfect sense!!! now actually I messsed up a little (n*n-n)*(v^(n-2)) then [(n*n-n)*(v^(n-1))]/v where v^(n-1) approaches one or pi/4 to the zero because n-1 goes to zero and v at the bottom approaches pi/4 but n*n-n approaches zero but go 4/(pi) for top and bottom so the values are still the same!!! thus the new v's inside the formula are to one and the v outside is now still pi/4!!! see when n approaches one this all can happen when another value for n it is a far different deal!!! so now you can make the inner v's always one and the formula can stand as is!!!!!!!! now x is F(a) and y is G(a) and z is H(a) and go x is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) on the i of the vector and y is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) on the j of the vector and z is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) on the k of the vector and the vector each of i j and k is derived then x y and z is derivative now c*c*lnx plus c*c*lny plus c*c*lnz is (x*x+y*y+z*z)*(v*v)/(c*c) and delta(a) is 1/infinity so x is really x/infinity same for y and z but when v is c then the length of the derivative line must be whatever/infinity but at infinity so times infinity then xx*yy*zz is e^(x*x+y*y+z*z) then vector magnitude at infinity is x+y+z is ln(xyz)!!! now constants and lines are ruled out since deriving them leads to unwanted equations like zero or constant is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) see lines do not change length of derivatve lines and so ruled out means the variable is kicked out of the system for example ln(xy) is x+y the z got kicked out in this case so like sin(a)i plus -cos(a)j plus (e^a)k then cos(a) plus sin(a) plus e^a then if a is pi/4 then ln((e^(pi/4))/2) is (pi/4) minus ln2 s the length of the derivative and 'a' repesents what derivative is doing at that point also you can have more than three dimensions like x,y,z,w,etc. see the kozak equation original for light speed is c*c*2*ln(xyz) is xx plus yy plus zz then de-exponentializing it by e after squaring both sides is ln(xxyyzz) is e^(xx+yy+zz) then rename the squares into liniiars so ln(xyz) is x+y+z I simply used the very old original kozak equation for m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) to m*m is e^(sqr(mv/c)) and used it in multiple dimensions!!! now for time machine and dimesion machine have three rings all with axises perpendicular rotating at independent speeds they can or cannot be equal or use only two or only one ring or go through a stationary ring or a straight none rotating ring or all combinations for all time machines or car moving with ring etc. all possibilities now a ring is a particle accelerator or a magnetic thruster with a hollow central or funnel magnet also remember for everything as in all inventions use recycles and use everything on everything and everything is all my inventions and all my ideas and all my equations and all my math and all my theories!!! now quick thing when you go x*arcsec(x) is 1/sqrt(x*x-1) then go x/dx and x/dx is (1/2)*2xdx/(dxdx) or (1/2)*dxdx/(dxdx) or 1/2 then the right side is (1/dx)/sqrt(x*x-1) then arcsec(x) is supposedly d(arccosh(x))/dx but to counteract to stay equal the arcsec(x) is infact arccosh(x) also in ln[(1+x)/(1-x)] to ln[(x+1)/(x-1)] that means the new x is 1/x1 where x1 is the old x then that is how x became sec instead of cos and the new arcsec(x) is arccosh(x) and remember the acceleration is zero so force is zero so Fv and FD is zero but only for the acceleration of the drifting light speed matter if accelerating as a whole that is not zero!!! now tanh to coth because 1/(tanh(x)) is coth(x) now the intregal of arcsec produces the operations for arccosh(x) now 1/2 on one side because again counteract to stay equal then 1/2 for both sides in the intregrands as in dxdx would be an intregrand so most of this stuff is accurate just solve the mysteries!!! now big error is x(arcsec(x) is arccosh(x) by partial integration rule then divide both by dx then x*arcsec(x) is arccosh(x) then the new x is (x/x)*sqr(arcsec(x)) is sqr(arccosh(x)) then arcsec(x) is arccosh(x) so above is a good idea but may not be the case or may only be part of the case!!! so x(arcsec(x)) minus (1/sqrt(x*x-1)) is also not the case it is x*arcsec(x) is arccosh(x) then arcsec(x) is arccosh(x) because the 1/x effect see the old formula is dealing wth a new x!!! so the old x becomes 1/x!!! now what happened is when integrating then x times 1/(x(sqrt(x*x-1))) see you would have had (1/x)*arsec(x) but the new x and old x traded places see 1/x for arcsec(x) and x for the 1/(x(sqrt(x*x-1))) see the integration thinks of old x to keep the integration making sense and non integration thinks of new x times old x because the only thing mixing is the two lone x's so they cancel see the functions will not cancel new or old x see whatever old x does other old x's do but if they can cancel then there is no old x or new x it is one!!! also the new x is 1/x1 the old x is x1!!! now actually arctanh(x) is ln[(1-x)/(1+x)] then coth(x) is -1/(tanh(x)) if and only if x is -1/x1 (tanh(-x)) then (arcsec(x))-(arccosh(x)) times (arcsec(x))+(arccosh(x)) then the difference in squares then the square root of both sides also the minus one was for x and the plus one was for -1/x1 then the intregal before in the minus was for old the plus one intregal after for -1/x1 now do you get a negative one well the negative one leaves to make the plus for the second one so no you still get a one!!! also in both cases you used the old x but when the integration happened in the second one the new x had a chance because when the formula is already there you cannot just arbitrarily change it!!! that is why the old x stays for the intregal for arccosh(x) but not for x*arcsec(x)!!! but in the arcsec(x) alone again you cannot arbitrarily just change the x!!! now in gravity in the missile guiding systems the protons will feel 1/infinity need to move so it will because it can and infinitly fast so the learch will keep going considering the nature of the learch systems then mass is smaller but magnet difference more negative then more learch thus gravity is causing learch and gravity energy can be used for energy like this as well and this is for any field anyway now it is still 1=1/x still because the arcsec and arccosh same relation as before now m is actual mass n is one unit of mass so c*c*ln(m*m) is m*m*v*v then c*c*dm*dm/(m*m) is 2mvdmdv/(dmdm) then c*c*2*m*dm/(m*m) is 2mvdv/dm then c*c*dm/m is mvdv/dm then c*c*dmdm/(m*m) is vdv then c*c*dndn/(n*n) then c*c-c*c*dn/n then c*c*n-c*cln(n) is I(vdv) one side integrand is dndn otherside is dv then c is I(vdx) then mass is only one when velocity is zero so picture a graph then if mass is one vertical where it can be anything why velocity is a straight increasing line one to one slope then variable switch at function invert then it was dc/dx or zero is v now it is switched so now v s I(cdx) or cx then x is small and c is big so the liniar is one to one pass light speed by the sharp insistent line now for the regular F(v) is z then c/sqrt(1-z*z) then c*c-c*c/m is z*z then mass is infinity at c*c is z*z or z is c so no matter what ou get c but in faster than light speed go since the switch the g(z) is reverse function or invert function is g(v) is c then if g(c) is lnc then v is e^(cx) annd remember cx is v anyway!!! also the e^(mv) is assumed but if the v itself in the exponent becomes e^v then go v is e^(cx) now in the g(z) in conventional acceleration you go c/sqrt(c*c-(e^v)*(e^v)) so it is amazing what the kozak function does let alone the whole function machine system!!! now in x to the (x to the x) in F(x) then at F(F(x)) all the x's will have there own (x to the (x to the x) etc. now similiar proofs say why you can do sll those manipulations with the 'a' factor and blast past it under as well as over light speed now light speed bounds above or below is always m*m*v*v speeding up and -m*m*v*v slowing down and 'a' factor is always m*m*v*v above mass and -m*m*v*v below mass and x is (m*m*v*v-m*m*v*v) and y is (m*m*v*v+m*m*v*v) then if below light speed with 'a' factor it is e^(x) speeding up or e^(-x) slowing down and if above light speed with 'a' factor then e^(y) speeding up or e^(-y) slowing down see m is e^(-+m*m*v*v) and then times c*c is energy then at e^zero it is always one then energy does not multiply or divide it comes out as is so no creation or distruction but the otherside is creation or distruction and this proves all of energy creation but universe hold at a discrete level of energy so that is why universe keeps a constant energy also light speed it is fixed bounds but 'a' factor mass is not a fixed bound this explains the slight difference of behavior and ofcourse you do not really create because of discrete universe effect but space can turn into energy space is a form of energy!!! but when it changes discrete energy levels energy then is truely created and to fall a level energy distruction and now ofcourse only above light speed is energy creation!!! now in the magnetic thruster these theories say that the energy of the ship is larger and larger speeding up thus energy creation!!! but when slowing down distruction thus you can make the ship go fast to borrow energy to transport youself!!! also space will only change to energy with these conditions or the universe changing energy levels now in m*m is sqr(e^sin(v)) keep m on F(m) and v on g(v) m on left side v on right side for obvious reasons now in the ship it borrows energy from magnetic thruster see the particles circle past light speed then back and forth past light speed on average then (sin(x))*(sin(x)) is so that x is past light speed back or forth and the magnitude is a constant as far as the velocity inside the chamber is concerned at a given instant then the ship goes past light speed so the energy is borrowed and passed repeatedly then when the ship slows down the whole thing reverses now when I said do to disks magnets what you do to push and central magnets with exceptions etc. I was talking about the magnetic thruster disk magnets although the disks in accelerators that are not magnetic thrusters must keep up with cx's at least and magnetic thrusters are types of accelerators they accelerate and thrust back and forth also so created energy increase velocity from a tiny battery then distruction ship turns back into tiny battery but now the ship is way on otherside of galaxy and it took only seconds!!! now in decreasing mass when inccreasing velocity when destroying then energy target the mass when creating the energy target the velocity and it will all reverse so you do not get away with creating energy but borrowing it comes in handy!!! now remember the push and central magnets in a magnetiic thruster are funnel shaped and the funnel for central is wider angle and shorter and the push is narrower angle and longer and the push and central in a regular accelerator is cylindrical and equal height and the funnel and push in the magnetic thruster fronts meet on same plane and when I say funnel or funnel magnet for magnetic thruster I mean the central one unless I say otherwise now remember in a magnetic thruster the push and central funnels wides ends both at front and on same plane also in pi a little algebra then go 4*[[1-[n/[sqr(n+1)]]]^[1/[2n]]] kind of like eiler's constant but pi!!! now in dark matter when the velocity get's larger to light the gravity radius limits is c then from c to infinity velocity then c to zero radius limits see if that happens then gravity energy gets trapped then the gravity is more like e^(Gmm/(rr)) instead of Gmm/(rr) and this circumstance is for any field ad for any sister field use only one r and dark matter would fly apart also but this also happens to dark matter and without it the dark matter would also escape from the pulls as well as the matter also in a black hole the bound is the same with same mass also circling velocities in the black hole does not change relativity in body to body frame of reference but in a body close to blackhole going that fast the reference changes to the exponential but don't get me wrong there IS dark matter or really many types of matter wave or non wave!!! also the push magnet and the outer magnet are the same thing in any accelerator or magnetic thruster or anything now in accelerators or magnetic thrusters when I say the wire of the magnets are parallel to the motion of the particles I mean the wire is in a circle as in circular electromagnetics and when I say magnets I mean electromagnetics unless I say other wise also in magnetic thruster energy borrow past light speed slip in the rate of in and out past light speed right after particles around magnets and right before back and forth and in accelerators in and out of center can iself be light speed and past light speed can be for everything now in (v^(n-1))*(n*n-n)/v keep v's as one and the amount of imperfection will parish by a fraction going to zero and the n*n-n will go to zero which is a double approach to make it perfect so just go n*n-n to zero like delta x and delta y is is a double approach if multiplied now for magnetism go (1/2)*H*N*B*B H is volume of space cavity of the thing and N is number of wrappings now power is N*H*B also in magnets wires parallel to motion of particles I am NOT talking of the in and out from the center also in magnetic thruster the in and out and back and forth and one with each other now remember when not absolute speed of light the mass is zero and relative is m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then (m-1)*c*c is mvv or energy or E then mass does all the work then at zero relative mass is one but at light speed relative then the absolute is relative because mass does all the work see without energy conservation everything would have no fields and no rules then everything would disintegrate at light speed now abov light speed increasing increases fields because more mass more will of going whatever speed but decreasing then the opposite but there are still rules!!! see God gave physics rules and humans free will!!! now without the rules above and below lght speed partcles fly apart at liight speed and cylinders fly apart as nuetrinoes at c*infinite speed then the cylinders and particles would be in more than one place at once more than once to logically destroy existence so nothing would exist without relativity and rules!!! so the balance is holding us in existence!!! now a cylinder is infinte energy per volume and held by infinity squared number of other cylinders and volume is 1/((infinty)^3) to keep it balanced now the field detechtor use two on both sides of the accelerator or thruster and never on the same plane as push or central as in one above disks one below disks also cylinders in particles act as electrons in atoms except for the engolfing part but the whole particle still engolfs also remember all particles infinite squared number of cylinders (surface area and hollow) but mass particle has by far but finitly the most alsoo detechtor distances equal now what one field does all the fieds do and sister fields as well and what one field does all sister fields brother fields etc. do to different constants same pattern also when frequency lower in waves watching ship go by then time slows down and the tracer still going light speed when in ship normal frequency and when below light speed all opposite and when above light speed everything reverses between light speed and infinity then infinity to zero to reverse again in a circle so this all makes sense!!! now when I said (m-1)*c*c is m*v*v I really ment (m*m-1)*c*c is m*m*v*v then derive in terms of mass then 2*m*c*c is 2mvdmdv/dm then E is mvdv then E/m is (1/2)*v*v then E is (1/2)*m*v*v then as long as mass is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then instantaneously m*v*v is E is m*c*c thus m does all the work!!! thus v must be c!!! now when inceasing light speed the cycloid circle for the wave does exactly what the spiral does except perpendicular and length shrinks in one direction becuase spiral does not shrink and wave only change frequency because of time and mass changing as in mass is amplitude in these situations and remember the spiral and wave are components of the actual particle now inside the ship everything is the same becuase spiral and cycloid you are only messning with the mass of rc in cycloid circle and spiral and so in spiral only the circular and in cycloid only the frequency and they are the same as in spiral except 'spiral' in the cycloid wave and ofcourse the spiral itself as well now go [1-(n/(sqr(n+1)))]^(1/4n) because when deriving you get v^zero and you want v^1 then start at v^2 is [1-(n/(sqr(n+1)))]^(1/2n)and wind up with the extra two to get [1-(n/(sqr(n+1)))]^(1/4n) now also the calculator may not be accurate enough to go to pi but it is close enough!!! also the wave cycloid circle is really a perpendicular spiral and the whole thing breaks into spiral and cycloid wave components now heads up this formula is a re-occuring formula because of the way it was derived first go r is (1-(n/(sqr(n+1))))^(1/(4n)) then z is (r/2)^4 then h is (1-(z/(sqr(z+1))))^(1/(4z)) then do it go g is (h/2)^4 then t is (1-(g/(sqr(g+1))))^(1/(4g)) then (t/2)^4 to get a new n!!! it should take you directly to pi!!! if not then I need to improve the formula now the reason for the (x/2)^4 is because of the 1/4 on the exponent and divide by two because of the n thus to approach pi!!! note that no matter what you start from it goes to pi!!! also at the very end just after the big formula when you have the pi accuracy you want multiply the end big formula by 4 also the (x/2)^4 is the little formula always end with the big formula also always begin with the big formula as well and always begin with a b now one more thing n is a real small number b and the number that the formula tries to approach is k then put b into r to get r is bk then z will be close to k then do not multiply by b then at g do multiply by b to get approximately bk then n is back to just k otherwise the numbers will migrate to the wrong number now the reason for x/2 is so 2n/(n+2) is when n is one at n/(n+1) and the 2 in 2n not matter since both approach zero now in the recycling the reason is the values will be forced t agree and it will not be one big swoop with a rediculously small number and the (x/2)^4 is so the fours do not build up now huge correction go bk then formula process one then ((x/2)^4)*(1-(1/2)*(x^4)) then formula process two then (x/2)^4 then bk again also b and k in bk can have any relation to get to the pi more quickly as in b*b then b*b*b or whatever but some relationships will mess it up now I am not sure this formula works I have modified it to be more accurate for less extremes but I am NOT sure that I and correct on this one!!! I could be Wrong with a capital W!!! but anyway the essential new trick here is x^4 times (1-x^4) that looks like a circle but the four for the extra squaring activities before and a circle is for pi and the 2's for similiar activities as 2n/(n+2) etc. so again I have worked my but off trying to get this formula to cooperate but I think in this play I am wrong also NOT ONLY AM WRONG IN THIS CASE POSSIBLY I AM ALSO POSSIBLY WRONG WITH A BUNCH OF OTHER PAST IDEAS AND FUTURE IDEAS BUT THEY DO GO IN NEW DIRECTIONS TO ACCOMPLISH OTHER THINGS!!! formula process is ofcourse (1-(n/(sqr(n+1))))*(1/(4n)) also x^4 times (1-x^4) is like sine(cosine) or sin(2v) which comes from derivative of v*v thus the extra square thus this expression

Wednesday, September 30, 2015

huge new mathmatics crazier theories and better ways to think

now in m=sinh(mv) then dm/sqrt(1+m*m) is dmdv and take out two dm's on both sides and flip both sides then dm*sqrt(1+m*m) is dm/dv then derive again and m/[(1+m*m)^1.5] times dm/dv then times dm*sqrt(1+m*m) so m*dm/(1+m*m) now when deriving first you go dm on both sides then derive again but there is two dm's on one side then turn dmdv into dv so intregal is ln(1+m*m) also the negatives cancel out because the function is an odd function that has to be flipped also the net multiple for constant is 1/2 so m*m+1 is e^2v then e^v is the hypotenuse which is a length of the curve when integrated thus e^v is the legnth of the curve now for m=cosh(mv) then same stuff happens but now you have m*m-1 is e^2v now in m is sin(mv) again the same stuff happens with an odd numbered more negatives to keep it negative of the same but now it is ln(1-m*m) is -2v or 1-m*m is [e^-2v] then 1-[e^-2v] and [e^-2v] is really 1/[e^2v] anyway m is sqrt(1-[e^-2v]) now for m=sinh(v) then [dm/sqrt(m)]/sqrt(1+m) is dv then square is ((dmdm)/m)/(1+m) is dvdv then or dm/(1+m) is dvdv or d(v*v) then ln(1+m) is v*v then [e^(v*v)]-1 is m now in sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) is m go sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) minus sqrt(v)/sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) is the derviative then replace with m then m minus (m*m-1)/m then 1/m is integratedin ln(m) see I derived in terms of v and integrated in terms of mass so I went dm/dv then dm/dv of this is ln(m) then instead of dmdv now it is dm/dv then [e^(dm/dv)] is m thus the differential of [e^(dm/dv)]=m is (sqrt(1-sqrt(v))=m!!! now in the cosh(v) is m the antikozak is (1/2)/(1-v) plus (1/2)/(1+v) then 1/(1-v*v) or when kozaked is [e^(m*v*v)] also when the derivative curves the straight line of instantaneous slope then it is indeed catching up to mass and then out-running it!!!!!!! now when multiplying the function it is mv then integrate both sides to m*m*v*v/2 then one side was derived in terms of v once to get function twice to get derivative of function then d(m*m*v*v/2)/d(v*v) is dmdv/d(v*v) or dm/dv now for anyway now the fraction of chain derivatives multiply's as does the upper of the next chain the same thus nothing is wrong with that anyway the sin(dv/dm) is v sole for m well go sin(dm/dv) is m then arcsin(m) is dm/dv then dm/(arcsin(m)) is dv then times both sides by 1/sqrt(1-m*m) and the dv side by dm because the arcsin(m) derived interms of mass whereas the other side already has a dm accounting for everything then go dmdm is really d(m*m) etc. and go d(d(m*m))/d(v*v*v) because two for the derivative twice and on of them from the dm on the dv side then then the dv cancels and the dm's dv cancels by multiplying then intregal of d(d(m*m))/d(v*v*v) taking out two dv's in the denominator is ln(arcsin(m)) or ln(dm/dv) and the remaining dm before I sustituted is really dm/dv and then the dv on the other side thus 2mdm/dv is ln(dm/dv) then dm/dv is e^(2mdm/dv) then [sqr(dm/dv)]/2 to integrate in terms of ddm/d(v*v) but first mutiply the other side by ddm/(d(v*v) as well then the twos cancel then ofcourse m(dm/dv) [or really d(m*m)/dv or really sqr(dm/dv)] is really e^(2mdm/dv) then take the dm/dv out to get m is e^(m(dm/dv)) then the kozak of that is 1/(1-(dm/dv)) then 1-(1/m) is dm/dv then m/(m-1) is dv/dm then mdm/(m-1) is dv then finally intregal of 1+(1/(m-1))dm is v then m+ln(m-1) is v then switch the variables to v+ln(v-1) is m then in sin(dy/dx) is y then x is y+ln(y-1)!!! now this will happen the same with cos(dy/dx) except two negatives canceling thus the same so x really does not care about the phase shift!!! now this can be use to figure out how much force to give an object to make it do what you want if accelerating it in an m=F(mv) fashion etc. now this can also be used to figure out how much battery energy to give the function machine to make it force how ever much you want etc. now say sin(dy/dx) is y is F(x) is y then the y will do whatever no matter what it is deriving by thus FFFF(x) is x is [(y+ln(y-1))^y) then remember ^x to get the liniar then ^y to switch and it is really y dx then integrated to get the x instead of dx also go to get the truth ((y+ln(y-1))^(2^y)) because x will equal FFx) etc. and the e^(dy/dx) is especially for the builds and use these for any function of function etc. and function machine etc. now in the [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)]^(2^v) when the function is f(x) x is f(x) then when it is ff(x) x is ff(x) then ff(x) becomes f(x) derivative wise then x ffff(x) becomes ff(x) becomes f(x) then is is ffff(x)/ff(x) times ff(x)/f(x) to be f(x) to the x or x is really v now in this next stuff y is v and x is m now in ln(y) is sin(dy/dx) what is x well y is e^(sin(dy/dx)) then e^(dy/dx) then integrate and switch and switch again back to get y is sqrt(1-sqrt(x)) then x is sqr(y*y-1) then the dy/dx is integrated so you do not have d(sin(dy/dx))/(dy/dx) and that is (((y^5)/5)-(2(y^3)/3)+y) then the inner function then you have y+ln(y-1) then by the multiplying rule of ((y+ln(y-1))^(2^y)) then go x=[((y^5)/5)-(2(y^3)/3)+y] all times [y+ln(y-1)] all this to the (2^y) now the bigger y and the smaller y are not the same that is why in the mutliplying rules they have two different functions now if it is to the y then it gets the right answer but to the (2^y) it makes the particle accelerators and thrusters work efficiently so use y in math in the accelerators and magnetic thrusters use 2^y now to get y justs switch the variables in the functions as in for anything a function all by itself multiplied functions just switch the variables now where I said switch then switch back it never switched so it is in the right place already now intregal of f'(mv) dmv is F(mv) then F(mv) is x then m is e^x in certain situations only also in the v=H(mv) or really v=F(m) (another situation here) then if it equal v the function does not equal m then it is not force to be liniar all over again but m=(Hmv) or m=F(m) now it has to be a relative liniar over and over again then for this situation you can add or subtract or divide or multiply since derivative of one to one liniar is one!!! thus e^(dm/dv) + sin(dm/dv) to solve then v is sqr(m*m-1) plus (m+ln(m-1)) now remember to get m just switch the variables at the very end now for [e^(dm/dv)] times [sin(dm/dv)] then go times or sqr(m*m-1) times (m+ln(m-1)) is and notice neither one is integrated unlike doing a function within a function now if it were a function of m and not derivative of m then it would not be figured out in this manner but instead the manner I showed as in e^(sin(mv)) now the reason it cannot be done in this manner is because it is not a derivative where it just multiplies see in function of function the chain rule says multiply but when it is always liniar relatively as in different situations different manners also in these past situations go ahead and assume that x is v and m is y now in these equations these will definitely be good in the function machine but remember the actual function of function of etc. function machine is what is wanted otherwise the function will freeze to one function see these just measure the function machine like a temperature gadge in water one does not throw the water and burner out and cook with the temperature gadge!!! now in the H(mv) the v is a liniar and the ralative liniar is one to one then the rate is constant rectangular m*dv that is why the H(mv)'s can be treated that way now in H(m*(F(v))) is just where the rectangles now multiply by a F(v) instead of v still treated the same and H((F(m))*(F(v))) then again multiply and treated same and ofcourse H((F(m))*v) same deal see rectangles base times height no matter what!!! and the m=H(((F(m))*(F(v))) where m is ofcourse eturn to liniar again no matter what!!! now in m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then is 1/sqrt(1-sqr(v/c)) then c is one unit so m is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) then sqrt[1-(1/(m*m))] is v then [sqrt(m*m-1)]/m is v then multiply by m to get sqrt(m*m-1) I am kozaking the mass to velocity instead of the other way around like before then (1/2)*m*sqrt(m*m-1) minus (1/2)*ln(m+sqrt(m*m-1)) then m is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) so go (1/2)*{[v/(1-v*v)] minus (1/2)*ln[(1+v)/(1-v)]} then (1/4)*{[ln(1-v*v)] minus intregal of ln[(1+v)/(1-v)]} then intregal of ln[(1+v)/(1-v)] is ln(1-v*v) do one and arccoth(v) partial integration and -1/(v*v-1) and get -v/(1-v*v) then plus ln(1-v*v) to cancel the very first term since it is subtracted then what is left is (1/4)*(v*ln((1+v)/(1-v))) (go v*arccoth(v)) is (m*m)*(v*v)/8 you are doing the m and v in m*m*v*v/2 seperate because you are considering the m and v seperate then (m*m)*(v*v)/2 is -v*ln((1+v)/(1-v)) then m*m*v/2 is ln((1+v)/(1-v)) then e^(-m*m*v/2) is (1+v)/(1-v) then (-1+(2/(1+v))) then go 1+e^(-m*m*v/2) is 2/(1+v) then subtract one and divide by 2 to get 1+v is e^(m*m*v/2) then get rid of the remaining one as in remember about adding and subtracting or multiplying and dividing the kozak and function being kozaked by the same thing so the ones cancel and the 2 is ln(2) from integration to cancel out so no two is multiplied then the one is canceled then v is e^((m*m*v)/2) and e^(m*m*v/2) is minus one v then that shows that if the v to m is one then m to v is e^v!!! now do e^(e^(-m*m*v*v/2)) then 1/m is m*v*e^(-m*m*v*v/2) (dmdv is one) then 1/(m*m) then m*m is (1/v)*e^(-m*m*v*v/2) then (1/v)/sqrt(1+v*v) m*m/sqrt(1-m*m) times 1/m because you flipped everthing so the standard is inverted then -(1/2)*sqrt(1-m*m) then that is -(1/2)*v/sqrt(1+v*v) then integrate is (1/4)*sqrt(1+v*v) is m*m*v*v/2 then go 2*m*m*v*v is sqrt(1+v*v) so now it is a simple square relation so the function machine is going to be more than effective!!! and it makes sence becuase the m*m*v*v/2 is a perfect square also I used m*m*v*v/2 instead of mv because m*m*v*v/2 is the relativity so the mass and velocity are going to obey that and when relativity is small the simple calculations by the magnetic kicks in automatically now in e^(e^(dm/dv)) then go intregal of sqr(v*v-1) all to the nth all times [v+ln(v-1)] and remember the builds in 'a' factor equations now go e^(m*m*v/2) to the v in one case and to the 1 in the other case then make it one then m*m*v/2 subtracted a one in integration then 1 is e^v then integrate to e^v is m also in sqrt(1+v*v) go (sqrt(1+v*v))^(1.5) is 2*v*v then then v*v+1 subtracted a one in integration v^3 is v*v then v is one then v*v/2 is m now he one turns into an m because you are integrating the m not v and the line of invert is m=v and it is dm/dv and it is m=F(mv) etc. also the further workings will get m is sqrt(v) then m is ln(v) etc.!!! now the c is the unit so c*e^(v/c) so e*v is mass in that case now a lot of constants were ruled out well the actual behavior follows these patterns and the constants were ruled out to cancel integration plus c constants now in the e^(e^(mv)) then 1/m is dmdv/dm or dv and so dv or one so that times e^(mv) then ln(1/m) then x is 1/m but x is also 1-v (m is 1/(1-v)) then so ln(x) then -x+x*ln(x) now when multiplying (or really dividing) then x the mv becomes an m*m*v then have -1+ln(x) then because x is 1-v to switch signs you must go 1-ln(x) (now x is the standard not m because the beginning was x to the other side of the equation) anyway -x+x-x*ln(x)then then -x*(ln(x)) is for mv then ln(x) is -m*m*v then e^(m*m*v) is m now let's do this from the other angle of kozaking well ln(1-v) is -ln(x) then x-x*ln(x) then 1-ln(x) then 1-ln(x) then x*ln(x) then ln(x) is -m*m*v then ln(m) is m*m*v so they both have e^(m*m*v) then it is mass equals velocity now I did not say times v or m for the equation above because they both were in terms of mass not mv but then when integrating they were in terms of mv but by then integration was already happening so no multiplying by m or v in these cases now in this equation m=e^(mv) then v/(1-v) then -1+(1/1-v) then -v-ln(1-v) from dm/d(1-v) is negative 1/m then (1-(1/m))+ ln(m) then 1-(1/m) + ln(m) then now -ln(m)+m*ln(m) is all m*m*v*v/2 and the derivative m*m*v*v is 2mv to cancel the two so now go -(-1+m)*ln(m) then m*m*v*v/2 becomes mv then e^(mv) is m now we will go the other angle then go -1+1/(1-v) then -1+m then m*m/2 minus m then (1/2)*[1/(sqr(1-v))] minus 1/(1-v) then 1/(1-v) plus 2*ln(1-v) is mv then the two's cancel like I said above then e^(mv-m/2) then go e^(m/2) then the two's recancel to e^m then on is e^m the other is e^mv then net function e^v see the equations F((m^y)*(v^x)) if making the entire function one which is what happens when liniarlizing it then any extra exponential powers will show now I bended a few rules here so it may not be entirely accurate but it is accurate enough also for sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) in these equations make v equal -x and then multiply by negative one and then the end will have another negative to cancel also sinh(v) is sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) minus one/sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) all divided by 2 then is really -sqrt(v)/sqrt(1-sqrt(v)) also remember sqrt(-v) is sqrt(v*v)/sqrt(-v) or sqrt(-v) now apparently the velocity is negative in this case because action reaction mass counteracting force and resisting velocity etc. now the e^(mv) then one obviously the next step is ln(m) is velocity and remember c is the unit but to get technical c*e^(v/c) so then at light speed mass is only e times as much!!!etc. now why did I use mv and 1/(1-v) well that is the derivative of relativity as in instantaneous progressions then the mass verse acceleration which is the 'a' factor!!! one can easily create energy!!! and easily go pass light speed!!! thus energy creation is not hard with the right conditions!!! now when I said ddm/d(v*v) the dv inside was understood to get ddm/dv and dm was the actual function now how does one get m is sin(ddm/d(d(v*v)) well dm/dv is sin(ddm/(dvdv)) then m is sin(dm/dv) then it is simple go (arcsin(v)+ ln((arcsin(v)-1))) and to the v or to the (2^v) and there was a sqr(v*v-1) for m is sin(sin(ddm/(dvdv)) but the outer sine diappeared so the sqr(v*v-1) also disappeared now d(intregal((c*c-(c*c/m))))/dm is m*v*dmv/dm then then c*c-(c*c/m) is mvdv then c*c*m-c*c*ln(m) is intregal(v)dv then m can be anything so when setting m to one I must accomidate thus c*c*m is I(vdv) (I means intregal unless I say otherwise) so c*c is I(vdv) then I(xdx) is c but that is v/c then times c then switch because of m being one then v is I(cdx) then v is cx now the function can be anything as in I(f(mv) with the e^[m*m*v*v/(2c*c)] kozak equation is f(cx) now without the kozak equation go c*c-(c*c/(m*m)) is v*v then 2*c*c/(m*m*m) is 2vdv/dm then dm/dv is [cv/sqrt(c*c-v*v)]^3 and [cv/(sqrt(c*c-v*v))] is cv/sqrt(c*c-v*v) for anything so v*m*m*m/[(c*c) dm then v*c is I(2vdv) then or v*v then v is c now the intregal because of the dv now no matter what mass is you get light speed but with the kozak equation you get liniar or square etc. of liniar times light speed now in the dm/d(r^2) then kqq/(r^4) is dm/(dr^2) then d(r^2)/dm for kqq/(m*m) is switched because m and r*r switched then multiply the kqq equations and you have [dm/d(r^2)]^2 is one or dm/(r^2) is one or invert is also one now dm/d(r*r) is kqq/(r^4) then dm kqq/(r^4) d(r^2) then dm for both sides then negative for kqq/(r^4) then go m*m/2 is ln(kqq/(r*r)) then the two is gone because of the ln2 constant to cencal effect on the kqq/(r^2) and the m*m also the q's are proportional because c*c/(c*c-v*v) in(kqq) then the c*c/(c*c-v*v) kozaks to m is e^(m*v*v/(c*c)) is m then the ln and e cancel effects to get a liniar if r is constant and v is constant and mske them both one now in accelerating the first stage will keep up with mass as in one function machine and the function machine off of the head that the original function machine is putting functions on stage two catch up to mass but do not pass it because the invert is one/function in this head then finally the third stage passing mass also these stages are not the same thing as stages in the past I talked about so there is function machine then the offset to function machine of each of function machine this is not the same thing in these stages go for the heads and heads of functioned heads etc. now the rate is simple for relative rate do function head then function of function of head etc. then that head then the following head etc. change rate of head for actual function rate put more on more offsets as in three offsets (in the past function machine two is an offset to main function machine) also voltage and power and current will do it also now for time now for f(f(f(f(x))))/f(f(f(x))) times f(f(f(x)))/f(f(x)) etc. you can do whatever you want to the x because the it is going to come back on the x that equations all of it then x to the nth or 2^n or anything then make n huge to change function also in this case the gas doesn't push the car but it does fuel the engine also in time is tiny as in the e^(((FT)^2)/2) then the exponent makes the time tiny for the same power then the energy to get it past light speed is small!!! now like I said listen to past present and future and combine all ideas and as in use these ideas with accelerator and thruster etc. now the way a head is functioned like that is one function machine current is the outer derivative current the head function machine current one is the inner derivative signal of a main function circuit and make sure the function machines are closed loops with beginning and end merely branches and used trick or simple rectifiers everywhere and make these function machines identical within structure and offsets branch to all in between function circuits and the larger last head that is not function machined is the top one go F((N+a)L) and F((N)L) and F((a)L) or -F((a)L) a is 1/F((N+a)L) in acceleration below mass but F above because one is squeezing the other stretching and F is just a function also have several of the function systems and head functions systems and offsets etc. also dm*d(r*r) is a constant because d(r*r) is because r*r is really a liniar etc.also cross and functioned machined deal with any other cross a compounded one with a single one meaning a single functioned with a functioned already cross with another and cross means ones head functioned by another and functioned means go F(x) FF(x) FFF(x) FFFF(x) etc. also in the equations v is c no matter what mass and force is as proven but with kozak cx or something regardless of mass but force and mass must be same proportion now remember when the third head is reached the 1/F(a) is out done becuase it goes same speed to make invert times function as one to pass one to one progression and remember you can make a large number of these heads and functions so if invert is as fast it is one then if faster it really gets out ran!!! also remember inner and door function you can apply this to the v=c and v is cx equations above now in other kozak equations just go of progression ln(H(mv)) equals to I(f(cx)) and then to get f(cx) now this may not all be accuarate but it suppose to take into account door and central functions H is door f is derivative of central now in relativity dm/dv is m*m*m*v/(c*c) to replace c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) with m sence they are equal then divide both sides by m*m*m and multiply the right side by v*v/r to get 'a' or dv/dt now you got (1/(c*c))/(m*m*m) times dm/dv is v*v*v/(r*c*c) and the extra 1/c*c because just m not m*c*c because it was m*c*c then integrate to get r*r*r/(r*c*c) then the left side go -1/(m*m) is r*r/(c*c) then go m*m is r*r/(c*c) then m is r/c but but the extra c*c is m is rc now each v was integrated seperately because velocity changes directly proportional to r but r and v and force of mass and everything always perpendicular (these situations assume circles) anyway then negative of the invert is perpendicular now in r the v changes with the r because 1/(r*r) but v*v for the acceleration to r then if r*r is 4 and v*v is 4 then both are two (only to get the same acceleration) now kqq/(rr) is mvv/r then m*m*v is kqq then sqrt(k/c) constant then that times q so q directly proportional to mass and finally m*m*m/(r*r) is k*q*q/r then m*m*m is kqqr then mass is proportional to r also now remember the liniar can be negative as well as positive so where they meet is the barrier now go m1 plus ln(m) is ln(k*q*q(r*r)) then m*e^(m1) is sqr[k*q*q/(r*r)] then [k*q*q/(r*r)]* ln(kqq/(rr)) but the constant is qq and 1/rr are mm/(mm) or one or constant but when the two lines intersect you have the barrier on and off switch the rest is all k*q*q/(r*r) and the square because the constant added of ln2 now sometimes the rr goes with the qq so not a constant sometimes the rr goes negative qq so constant and this is counteracted by C-liniar verses liniar C is large constantnow instantaneous energy is kqq/(r*r) now a machine function is a function that goes FFFF(x) etc. to (2^x) or just x or whatever now these functions are assuming that v is always the speed of light except in kozak phenomina now in the past there was a kozak equation f*f in it where f was kqq/(rr) when I said f*f I really ment just fnow when there are more constants then the barrier does not shut off the field and the constants are such that the field is the same on both sides of the barrier but the barrier marks it for definite energy levels but if there is only one constant then they do shut down the field also a reverse barrier is field only works outside the barrier as in -ln(kqq/(rr)) because the constant is initially negative also in energy is kqq/(r) then kqq*(e^(-r*r+1)*f*f) is f*f only f*f is for energy onlyin the past kozak equation now for barriers made by man the object will change energy faster at higher velocities to explode now for nuclear forces f is kqq*(e^(f*(-r*r+1))) then kqq/(rr) is f then kqq*(e^(f*(-r*r))) is f/(e^f) then (1/kqq)*(e^(f*(r*r))) is (e^f)/f then then -ln(kqq) plus kqq is f-ln(f) then K+f is ln(f) then f is (e^K)*(e^(kqq/(rr))) and (e^K)*e^(kqq/(rr)) really means (e^K)*(e^(kqq/(rr))) for anything and any case then K is a constant but remember q changes also just tiny liniar and ofcourse changing in opposite direction only to fuel the liniar r more and at barrier it starts at zero because -K to get ln(f) is f etc. also light speed is a barrier for relativity as well as any 'a' factor to make a barrier shield now nuclear like I said has two barriers one outside to open an attract field and one under it to open a repel field and the particles engolf so fields and barriers coencentric now the nuclear field energy is all inside so that is why it behaves as (e^K)*(e^(kqq/(rr)) instead of kqq/(rr) as in it starts out as (kqq/(rr))^r then makes the kozak function in any kozak function take out the ^r then work with kqq/(rr) now there may be other fields where the barriers shut them down and in gravity it is infinite radius and in charge the outer most also infinite radius but gravity only has the infinite radius one also touch theory is where two barriers cancel effect but not greater or less also in mass to q the Gmm/(rr) is the same as kqq/(rr) then gravity is also proportional to mass and relativity just like the q and relativity alone can cause more fields now in the pendulum go (1/2)*(1+[((cos(2a))*(1+ln(1+cos(2(f/2))-(pi/2))))]) now apply evrything from accelerator to magnetic thruster as in funnel from central and thruster push from accelerator push and all this applies to magnetic thruster back and forward disks and whatever is done to magnets is done to their corresponding plates and vice versa and for passive no counteracting particles' magnet or charge and for active do counteract it and all mgnetic thruster is all accelerator and more with exceptions as in there may be exceptions and errors to what I just said also the lobes where the barrier follows it when the particles change distance and speed to change mass then the barrier expands for those particles only then you can make some distorted barriers!!! now in the lobes the one outward bulge is lined up across from another outward bulge and same with two inner bulges also in engolfing the electrons when engolfing the ratio of lobe length to radius from axis changes rom one to a smaller number and this is in many situations as well now in magnetic field the one r does not cancel the two q's there is only one q in magnetism and other sister fields also in accelerators use all these ideas as in have many function machine units also apply all idess past present future to everything past present future also there is really only one wave tracing the others by time also in heads have many heads with many function machines and many function machines in series to do this now go b*b*x*x+a*a*y*y is a*a*b*b K is a*a*b*b F is b*b-a*a J is K/F s is sin(0) c is cos(0) now b*b*c*c+a*a*s*s is K/(r*r) then derive to get b*b*s*c-a*a*s*c is K/(r*r*r) then J/(r*r*r) is s*c then C is cos(2*0) and S is sin(2*0) then J/(r*r) is C then and 0 is feta but because of center of mass issues once derived 2*0 becomes the actual angle (J/(r*r))^2 is (c*c-s*s)^2 then J/(r*r) is 4*x*x*y*y then (x*x+y*y)^2 is (r*r*r*r)*(c*c+s*s)^2 is J*J then (J/(r*r))*(J/(r*r)) is (c*c+s*s)^2 or J/(r*r) is c*c+s*s 1^2 or one then J/(r*r) s sqrt one is one (J/(r*r))+(J/(r*r)) then the addition since I added 4*x*x*y*y to (x*x+y*y)^2 then J/(r*r) then that is right because gravity wants to be J/(r*r)!!!!!!!! so the ellipse get's its conctant and the gravity get's its 2*J/(r*r) then just distort 2*J!!! so this is why planets travel in ellipses!!!!! now when going to add these they are really J/r minus J/r then the extra energy so energy stays caonstant also now n the spira wave thing the wave does the same thing to amplitude that spiral does in making mass at rest in the vehicle as in amplitude is large to a vehicle of different motion and it all works by x*x plus y*y is z*z and so to the vehicle inside the amplitude is like at rest like the spiral thus one does not know the sun may be moving close to light speed or even past it!!! talking not absolutely but mre like relatively and the mass is the same then there is no absolute unless using a reference point as in to a star seeing us at zero we do not exist!!! maybe that is another dimension after all!!! but it is safe since particles like to stay light speed to each other as of everything see the sun is brighter to one star and dimmer to another at the same distance in the same place or same distance even in different places etc. so if this is all the case then there must be an absolute after all!!! two things remember the time lapse in the muon positions or particle tracer position etc. is caused by relativity or c/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)) and the other thing the time well in the universe it is a solid as in A and B line point between A and B is object the whole line is the object that is being traced so the tiny particle traces a larger so that now it has to compensate by the traced object is tracing the big object as in the object to tracer so particle is tracer to object and larger hologram is object to tracer and I proved that the tracer slows down and more mass by time lapse is smaller to more cylinders in the same particle etc. so it all fits together!!! now the ultimate proof that everything is light speed is mass is zero at zero velocity as in mass is one at c but at absolute zero there is no energy but c in mcc never goes to zero then m has to so initial mass m is zero then go the following things zero*c/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)) then until v hits c mass is zero then the acceleration is instant then at c*0/sqrt(0*0) then mass is one or really c and r is one!!! and it cannot go higher because then negative under a sqrt then no and at c then Einsteinium to newtonium until the spiral and wave approach c also spiral and wave are the same with exceptions now in center of mass the two masses have the same energy if twice out because half mass then Gmm/r for energy but both go elliptically around the center of mass which is at the focus but if speed increase the mass changes by rc is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then r is 1/sqrt(1-x*x) then 1/r is sqrt(1-x*x) then 1/(r*r) is 1-x*x then x is v/c then dv/dx is c then 1/(r*r) is c*c*(1-x*x) then when x is zero 1/r is c then rc is mass!!! now in the piston engine use the time system that when flywheel goes faster the electrical energy is larger so the magnetic engine on the flywheel turns the outer part ahead by whatever function and then the flywheel outer part takes care of all the timing and there can be more outer parts or even more flywheels and an electric more where the piston engine is fast and little force and powersteppers in the engine and for the piston engine feel free to apply all ideas one accelerator or all ideas at all to the piston engine or anything now in intregal of e^(sin(v)) go 1/m is cos(v)*(dv/dm) but then go times dm/dv then 1/(m(sqrt(m*m-1))) then m is sec(mv) but I really went dm is sec(v*dm) then intregal dm ddmdv is intregal mdv=ln(sec(v*dm)+tan(v*dm)) so double intregal of e^(sin(v)) is that differential and you can make the v change to any F(v) given that you put in the dm and v correct values also go cos(sqrt(v)) then 1/(1-m*m) is dv then ln(cosh(v)) by similar methods again double intregal etc. now remember when energy of particle reveals another particle instantly this mass theory is why also interactions in quantum physics is instant in zero time also for this reason!!! now in the gravity go 1/r is c*sqrt(1-x*x) then dr/d(1-x*x) is (1/c)/(2*((1-x*x)^1.5)) then (1/r)*(d(1-x*x)/dr) is 2*c*c*sqr(1-x*x) then ln(r)-ln(c) (for c plus intregal effect) is all together 2*c*c*c*((1-x*x)^3)/3) then r is c*e^(2*c*c*c*((1-x*x)^3)/3)) then gravity and charge turn to zero at certain speeds for certain radii then it does not matter what charge ad the speed that matters is any speed where mass can be influenced it does not care about direction to the bodies or about the strength of the fields so this might be why there is barriers!!! now if x is zero then the limit is c*e^(2*c*c*c/3) and if one the limit is c so at light speed the radius is only c!!! now this field shrink is for when the body has adequet kinetic energy the potential fades to conserve energy so relative wise the field fades like this or concentrates maybe with higher more intense field then the reciprical of shrink is increase in intensity multiplication!!! so if the inner part of the universe is a sphere then the 2/3 in the exponent is the moment of inertia of all outer parts of the universe!!! also these barriers are the limits of the universe so whe expanding the bodies get less massive hence the red shifts!!!! now z was 1-x*x then intregal of F(r) dr to intregal of G(z) dz then F(r) dr/dz to G(z) (integrations assumed) then F(r) drdz/dzdr to G(z) dz/dr then finally F(r) dr to H(z) dz both integrated!!! and this is for any case anywhere not just this case here now remember in the radio the sound waves with light waves sined are all liniarlized and derived simple rectified and inverted then that signals the waves but the light waves kill themselves and the sound waves survive and keep recycling this process until only sound waves exist! in the radio!!! then ust amplify!!! now the invets will effect all of it but the faster dying will leave the sound waves because it is nt the sound waves fault thus sound wave no problem light wave intruder we have a problem well as soon as light wave comes it does not have a chance!!! now I may have told you wrong on the length of the sine wave so now this next equation dm/dv is sqrt(1+sqr(cos(v))) then sqr(dm/dv) is 1+sqr(cos(v)) then go dv/dm or -sqrt(2*(1+sqr(cos(v))))/(2*cos(v)*sin(v)) or -2*dm*dm*dm/sin(2v) then 1/dm is -2/sin(2v) then flip then turning the (dv/dm)'s into (dm/dv)'s then the plan becomes intregal of dm dv is intregal of sqrt(1+sqr(cos(v))) dm then it turns out dmdm is (sin(2v))/2 dv then just integrate to get (cos(2v))/4 is length of a sine wave now for e^(sin(v)) it does not work because it keep coming back to the initial expression e^(sin(2v)) now in function mschines and heads main function machine then off the main wire in series derive and signal that current and another function machine and then integrate the derivative and for the third head do to the second function machine current in series what is done to the main current and to get more signal progressions use smaller or no insulation and use amplifiers as in step down pulsers to make it possible now I royally messed up the (cos(20))/4 I went dmdm/2 because intregal of dm ddm then I added one to ((cos(20))/4 because one will make the values make sense in the length of sine by ofcourse integration then multiply by 2 to get (cos(20))/2 plus 2 now (cos(20)) plus 2 because the effect of 2 on the outer part of 2*sine*cosine then dmdm is that then intregal of dmdm or really dm dm is m then ((sin(20))/2)+20 then that is the length now I means intregal and v can be 0 and 0 can be v and m is e^(sin(0)) then lnm dmdv is sin(v) dmdv then m-m*lnm dv is cos(v) dm then go dm/dv for right side then multiply the right side by d(sin(v))/dm then dxdx*e^(2x) then I(I(e^2x)) dx dx is (1/4)*(e^2x) then it is for left side dm and for right side dv because the left side is dm/dv because both sides got multiplied and for the d(sin(v))/dm the compensation was another e^x and then right is by sin(v) left another dm so 3*m*m-m*m*ln(m*m) is I(e^sin(v)) dm but I also said dm/dv to get I(e^sin(v)) dv also left means the mass side right is velocity side m is mass v is velocity then warning keep the left interms of m and the right in terms of v now note that you had d(sin(v))/dm so you had to compensate by is d(v*v)multiplying by dm/(sin(v))!!! for right side now in m is cos(v*v) then dm/(sqrt(1-m*m)) is d(v*v) then go d(cos(v*v))/d(v*v) is sin(v*v) then (d(v*v))*sin(v*v) d(v*v) then -2(dm/dv)*(arccos(m))/sqrt(1-m*m) is (d(v*v)/dv)*sin(v*v) d(v*v) then go 2*v*sin(v*v) dvdv then sqr(acrcos(m)) is intregal cos(v*v) dv answer remember keep the left as F(m) and right as H(v) keep in terms of mass left and in terms of velocity right side!!! now this mass velocity thing is in all cases now n the above equation (the last equation) I simply devided both sides by dv or it was understood to divide by dv!!! now these eqations are also for inventions!!! now go sin(v^(1/n)) is m then ((dm)^n)/[(1-m*m)^(n/2) is dv then z is n-1 then ((dm)^z)/((1-m*m)^(n/2)) is sqr(cos((v)^(1/n))) then (dm)^y is in terms of v^(1/n) from putting that on the left side and y is n-2 the remaining you get two dv's and one cancels also the 1/[n*(v^(z/n))] causes n*([arcsin(m)])^z (rememeber arcsin(m) is v^(1/n)) then intregal is [arcsin(m)]^n is I[sqr(sin(v^(1/n)))] then dv is always going to be perpendicular to m thus dv is -1/m but there are two cosine's multiplied thus the negative goes and 1/(m*m) then go d(m*m)/dv times 1/(m*m) is dmdmdv then ln(m*m) is I(dvdvdmdm) then m*m is e^(m*m*v*v) and since v is unit to c then redefine it and go e^(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) this looks familiar!!! then kozaked is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and it is obvious where F is H(v) then c/sqrt(c*c-F*F) is for m*m is e^(m*m*F*F/(c*c)) is all m so no matter what dimension and no matter what curve angle rate and radius rate relativity is the same regradless of the path taken!!! so the frame of referance variation only depends on the speed or magnitude of velocity!!! so the frames only vary if magnitude of velocity varies as in time and inner speed and velocity as well and everything only cares about the rediculous speed!!! thus there has to be an absolute zero frame of reference!!! and if the Sun had smaller speed time would move faster as in it takes me 20 seconds to walk to the end of the building then only 10 second it would take if the Sun and solar system was not moving that fast!!! and the reason field forces slow down time is the mass changes with energy because of relativity!!! now if this is the case why is relativity different at objects coming out at different angles well the new speeds are now different also in light the doppler is (c+v)/(c-v) but the amplitude says doppler is sqrt[(c+v)/(c-v)] but that is doppler (c+v)/c times c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then light does have mass and time slowing down etc. then light never has to change velocity as in speed and direction stays the same and the change in direction is infinitely fast and this is why everything likes light speed and especially relative light speed but if everything is relativel light speed then the absolute is also light speed!!!!!!!! now the dimensions are such that the 1/2 for line 1/4 area and 1/8 volume I told you of earlier when I proved the dimensions well the quadrants are 1 for line 2 for ara and 8 for volume thus the energy stays as one!!! this definitely completes the proof also in the relativity t s unversal and the same even if objects are in two different dimensions!!! or two different set of dimensions for that matter!!!!! now when going I(d(H(x))/d(F(x))) it s always H(x) no matter what nd it does not matter what H(x) or F(x) s whether H(x) is K(x)*G(x) whether F(x) is D(x)*S(x) whether H(x) s multiplied by somethng completely different or F(x) by somethng completely different from that etc. it does not matter!!!

Friday, September 18, 2015

how particles work in terms of relativity and double step functions

now in the particles say because of time relativity there are three then if the state is such that the barrier is overcome then it splits into three particles are what kind depending on energy state but if past light speed or in photons cases average past light speed it then creates energy to make particles which is the main reactions in the big bang also in cosh(cos(mv)) is m a little algebra says e^(2v) minus m*m is 1 which means the length of the curve is intregal of e^v or e^v see 1/sqrt(1-m*m) ran through dmdv*arccosh(mv) in terms of m and other side dm/dv is understood and both sides divide by dv ofcourse then it stops at -1/(1-coth(v)) after running 1/sqrt(1-m*m) through the arccosh function it goes [m/(1-m*m)^1.5]/sqrt((1/(1-m*m))-1) and a little algebra is to -1/(m*m-1) which is arccoth(m) when integrated then m is coth(-v) or m is -coth(v) then m-1 is -coth(v) because of m being one then go 1-coth(v) then invert negative to get the -1/v effect canceled then the length of curve can be achieved this way and intregal of e^v or e^v is the length also in both steps in arccosh and then arcsine the dm's and dv's do the same thing and derive both steps now there is cosh(cos(mv)) is m then the (sec(v) to the v) where the v inside the sec function is single so also negative 1/v and invert is for negative exponent so go e^(n/(e^(e^(n/(e^v))))) n is 1 or -1 etc. then v is e^(n/(e^v)) then when v is infinite then it is at one (or c) again and this time I am talking of v that is not velocity and m is not mass but if they were then velocity is one unit not kinetic energy velocity but absolute energy velocity is one unit (or c) but this curve is adding a dimension every time it moves one unit of infinitely small dx also the build is reverse when the velocity and mass are headed back to one now particles change direction at transforming or producing or absorbing or at producing their own kind or absorbing their own kind and the change is infinitely fast acceleration change because of definite barrier also why did I switch cos and cosh around well when inverting the function there is invert of derivative so dB(A)/dB times dB/dv is dB/dA times dA/dv so in terms of A but switched is dA/dB then switched is dA/dB times dB/dv which is back to the function then the dB/dv is in terms of the invert so everything is inverted back also the dot product F*D dE times dM to get zero and same with with any of these in the infinitely small cube well dE*dM (M is momentum and E is energy) is zero also you ever wonder if we meet death is that completely the end well the probability that we can come back if it is not zero then we can well the probability that we come back is not zero!!! otherwise how did we get here in the first place!!! also how long is the wait well as long as we are not alive the wait is infinitely small!!! however make use of this life because it effects all the other lives and here's why the probability is stronger that we will be good if we are good!!! also there may be some serious errors in this and the other posts but you'll get it just be flexible to not assume I did not make errors and to know what I ment!!! now the memory in life is erased when when one returns to eath soil then reassembled like say a computer also it effects past lives whether one is good because of probability also if multiplying mass then the barrier was infinitely thin but not anymore the (ln(kqq/Ar))*(ln(kqq/Br)) then for a while it is negative and of the outer sides it is positive and A is larger or smaller then B the more equal the thinner the shell barrier also if there is any confusion in these fractions use sqrt(-1) or i but they have to cancel to negative one or positive one also one can make a shell barrier around a ship this way now in the dimensions the 'a' factor is like crossing light speed that is why it can cross dimensions now in the energy ((1/2)m*v*v/r)*r then divide by r*r for the force to get (1/2)*m/r now in the prisms go straight triangle then x*x curve then another x*x curve and for each have a perpendicular right after and then the line to have another unit with the line on the first prism then the contract to a dot then double unit one is as far from dot as double unit one (or two units) then in the next double unit all inverted as in straights turn to 1/x and parabolas turn to 1/(x*x) but in the next double unit the 1/x is after the 1/(x*x) not before and this will with dot signaling currents in the powerhead make a hologram with no walls and you can pass your hand through the light making the object like a ghost and in the doubles the units have to be perpendicular and the next unit is 180 degrees from the former also the transmittion can go through electric wire from the powerhead and the TV unit can have a powerhead and the glass math grapher hologram I talked of a while ago can stimulate a picture and all prisms parallel or perpendicular or 180 degrees as in the first two pieces one perpendicular but the next two pieces two parallel sets and two perpendicular sets and get the distances all equal with the right distances also the pieces are all square cross section and triangle section or triangle side curved section and the two piece together the perpendicular one is identical to it's partner also remember y=e^sin(x) well go (1/(m*m))/sqrt(1-((1/m)^2) to get 1/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) or arcsec(m) is v or m is sec(v) then get ln(sec(v)+tan(v)) then switch and switch intregals to get v is ln(sec(n)+tan(n)) n is intregal of e^sin(v)!!! also the image is created then a gas or solid is needed to light it but not with the powerhead deal!!! so now you can see a movie in three dimensional and swoop your fist through the villian image because you get mad when the villian is winning or kiss a pretty woman that is not there!!! also the size can be magnified to huge or small by changing the constants on the fractions earlier!!! now in the dimensions at 2c the 3c cannot be handled by the 2c dimension machine and the c cannot handle the 2c so right at 2c dimension same with anything the tangent is same thing for tangent dimension etc. now e^F(v) and e^-F(v) then one is the exact negative of the other no matter what then integrate thus sinh(F(v)) will always go to zero and cosh(F(v)) is always at F(v) then sqr(cosh) is one at certain functions and sqr(sinh) is zero at certain functions thus sqr(cosh) minus sqr(sinh) is one like in the original equation!!! also in e^tan(v) is m then -1/(1+m*m) as in (1/(m*m))/[((1/(m*m))+1] first and then arccot(m) then integrate to -ln(1+n*n) minus arccot(n) is v some of the signs may be wrong negative or positive then n is intregal of m and the switches are because the function got inverted thus intregal of e^tan(v) also the 'a' factor behaves like the light speed situation thus dimension travel now the cosh(v) is consistent with velocity approaches infinite then mass goes to one and velocity goes to zero also when velocity is at infinite then graph is like a giant sine wave thus at the same point in ends up at is mass is one and velocity zero just like in a circle and hence the sine wave behavior so where it starts in a circle is where it ends up so energy is not being created out of nothing but it can still be created out of something like space also velocity is perpendicular to one in sinh(v) and cosh(v) but mass is the hypotenuse and the catanery functions (cosh and sinh) are along the curve to make them the qualified functions so in any curve the velocity goes to zero and mass to one also in the polarizer make sure there are dirivative circuits everywhere along all wires and against the currents and you might want to use negative derivative circuits as well and you might want to do this with any derivative circuit also all this is with the simple or trick rectifiers and maybe other things also hook the negative swopped with the positive also remember in the thruster to use the gravity pull to generate electricity by lurching the back and forth particles in a general direction and then that current is power stepped and sent to the thruster to push against gravity to gravity is pushing it upward and for heavy objects the voltage is huge also the push and central plates are active plates all plates copy there magnetic counterparts also go simple rectifers for the polarizer that turns light into electricity now in the C-k(charge C is a large constant and k is small constant when going below light speed the C get's eating by the k(charge) to zero and charge is liniar to mass also the f=k*q*q/(r*r) when kozaked is e*k*q*q*[e^((f*f*(-(r*r+1))))] or turned into the e*k*q*q*/{[e^((f*f*((r*r+1)))-1)]} is f*f and the negative one is for integration constant plus c effect also in m*v*v/r is k*q*q/(r*r) then v is sqrt(r) since a is constant then m is k*q*q/(r*r) then k*q*q/(m*m) times k*q*q/(r*r*r*r) is dm/d(r*r) is d(r*r)/dm is one then m*r*r is constant then dm/dr then constant times d(1/(r*r))/dr then constant times df/dr then d(ma)/dr then dm/dr is d(1/a) so m/r is 1/a because v*v is always c*c!!! by m*v*v/r is acceleration and go dr/dm for actual acceleration then dm/dr is a constant then m*m is intregal of -1/(r*r) d(r*r) or ln(K/r*r) where ln(K) is added by intregal plus c effect that is you can add a constant in integration automatically becuase negative one then m*m is ln(k*q*q/(r*r)) omiting contstants be resquaring the squares in intregals now in m is e^(sqr(sin(v))) the 1/sqrt(m) then (1/sqrt(m*m*m))/sqrt(1-(1/m)) then 1/(m(sqrt(m-1))) then z*z is m then dm/dz is z then 1/[z(sqrt(z*z-1))] then arcsec(z) is v then z*arcsec(z) is z*z*arcsec(z) minus sqrt(z*z-1) is all v then n*arcsec(sqrt(n)) minus sqrt(n-1) is v start with v dm and switch all of it in reverse now n is intregal of m dv also remember the (1/2)*(m*v*v) then it is m*v*v if taking all the energy or really m*c*c also in m*m is ln(k*q*q/(r*r)) then e^(m*m) is k*q*q/(r*r) then to get the derivative go m*e^(m*m) is 1/k*q*q times q (r is kept at one) then m*m is ln(k*q*q/(r*r)) then e^(m*m) is k*q*q/(r*r) then go 1/(k*q*q) times q then mass is directly proportional to q liniarly now the way to phase a wave is go sin(0+z) 0 is feta and feta is angle and the way to track the phase is by when the waves are closer to zero the z decreases change more and z can be a constant or any function now dy/dx minus Ky is zero the dy/dx is 1/(r*r) thus u is e^sqr(K) then derivative because integrating equation and ln because ln other side then it goes from K/(r*r) to ln(K/(r*r)) then K is k*q*q assuming k*q*q is a "changing constant" also in the kozak equation for light speed the function is changing so the curved where the instantanous straight line should be and hence acceleration up to and past the mass and the mass particle is infinite cylinders like any other particle shift infinitly fast because of the cylinder's infinite speed but the mass particle is aligned with the tan(0) in spiral wave behavior of acceleration so it effects acceleration also in barriers antimatter is where the field exists on the outside of the barrier but not the inside but matter and antimatter come together to complete so field exists everywhere so everything I said of mass particle and other paticles some of it is not true but use the ideas they are true in other situations also inside a blackhole is a lower parallel universe

Wednesday, July 29, 2015

the life particle and other things

now any particle with the angle of wobble changing the function can be anything of f(x) but x must always be infinite to zero to negative infinite to zero to infinite etc. and this is for any particle including the life particle which I talked about at the end of the last post before this one also the reason is because particles are circular hence the sine properties also each particle possibly represents a dimension because the possible directions of the cylinders is effected by dimensions like one direction one dimension two dimensions infinite directions three dimensions infinite cubed directions fourth which is time then the timing sets the course of which fields attract each other etc. so four forces of nature to four dimensions!!! now in m equal sin(m*m*v*v/2) the antikozak of that is m equal sec(v*v) now why well arcsine(m) is m*m*v*v/2 then 1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) is mv then intregal of (v*F(v)) is 1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) then derive in terms of v and also m is F(v) and aTb is a to the b then {-m/[(1-m*m)T(1.5)]} all times dm/dv then v is {1/[(m*m-1)T(1.5)]} all times dm/dv then dm/((v)dv) is dm(dv*v) is [(m*m-1)T(1.5)] then 3m*[sqrt(m*m-1)] is ddm/[d(m)*d(v*v)] see I derived them both to dm because of the differential equation then 3/(d(v*v)) because set the dm and v equal and get a three then reset their inequalities and this is 3m*[sqrt(m*m-1)] then d(v*v) is 1/(m*(sqrt(1-m*m))) then v*v is arcsec(m) because d0/dx is sec(0)tan(0) then dx/d0 is 1/(m*(m*m-1)) or 1/[sec(0)tan(0)] anyway m is sec(v*v) then go(1/2)*2*v*sec(v*v) then (1/2)*ln[sqrt(1+m*m)+(m)] but according to the kozak formula the intregal of (1/2)*ln[sqrt(1+m*m)+(m)] is such that m is sine(m*m*v*v/2) where v is sqrt(arcsec(m)) so this is the intregal of (1/2)*arcsinh(m) so if m is sine((1/2)*m*m*arcsec(m)) then you have the m*m*v*v/2 equal intregal of (1/2)*arcsinh(m)!!! now also remember the both signal magnets and both relay magnets are energy supply to the relay system now also passive plates and passive magnets almost the same treatment also the disk magnets are particularly useful if the accelerator is huge to squeeze the magnetism of the central toward the outer for the particles now intregal of arcsinh(m) is m*arcsinh(m) plus sqrt(1+m*m) then the solution is m equal sin(m*m*v*v/2)!!! now you can change m and v to anything and in intregal of m*v (dmdv) equal intregal mv d(mv) the dmv/dw cancels out so you can freely change it!!! w is whatever now sqr(cos(0)) is e to the [sqr(sin(&))*sqr(cos(0))] (turning m into cos(0) and v into sin(&)) kozaked is cos(0) is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) or cos(0) is cos(&) then 0 is & then when the circular substitution happens enough then 0 and & are equal and sqr(cos(0)) is e to the [sqr(sin(0))*sqr(cos(0))] then 2*ln(cos(0)) is [sqr(sin(0))*sqr(cos(0))] then 2*ln(cos(0)) is [sqr(sin(2*0))/2] then -2*tan(0) is 2*sin(2*0)*cos(2*0) then -2*tan(0) is sin(4*0) obviously 0 goes to zero and both of the expressions are zero so just some things you can play around with in these equations also in the function machines you can use all ideas and the old fashion method of compounding functions as well now if wanting intregals like IIIIffff(x) then have a recycle function machine whose functions are just integrators and from the function machine to the integrator function machine and then that never rejoins the main function machine if wanting five functions then five intregals etc. then have a five and it rejoins etc. now in the arcsin(m) situations I assumes that m was sqrt(M*M-1) and M is the original mass but say M is m then you are integrating the ln[sqrt(m*m-1) plus (m)] which is impossible to integrate but with kozak method you can as in m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) and then go m is sin([m*m*arcsec(m)]/2) and you can do anything with this with any equation also do to all plates passive and active what you do to their corresponding magnets passive and active with exceptions now active plates do what active magnets do and passive plates do what passive magnets do with almost the same circuitry for both also in m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) you cannot replace v*v with arcsec(m)!!! also in sqr(sec(x)) is e to the -{sqr[tan(0)sec(0)]} then sec(0) is 1/sec(0) then sqr(cos(0)) is 1 then cos(0) is one then 0 is zero when m is infinite!!! also say m is sqrt(1-v*v) then go v*sqrt(1-v*v) then (1/3)*[(1-v*v)^1.5] (^ is to the) anyway then go (1/3)*[m^(1.5)] then go [(15/4)^(2/5)]*[(mv)^(4/5)] all to the (2 to the v) is m then if v approaches infinite then m is one and then because m is sqrt(1-v*v) then v is zero!!! so circular movement at infinite winds up as zero even without relativity factored in!!! now sqrt(1-v*v) is sec(0) then when m or v is infinite in a circle then v is zero then m is infinite while v is zero also go what is zero to the zero well x to the x then ln(y) is x*ln(x) then ln(x)/(1/x) then 1/x/(-1/(x*x)) then x or -zero or zero then y is one thus one for [(mv)^(4/5)] ^ (2 to the v) where the exponent of mv would go to zero also the sqr(cos(0) would cancel the square effect of sqr(sec(0)) also if m is infinite then v is zero so m*zero would be finite even if v is infinite to go to zero now anything that mimics the nature of a circle is treated like it!!! thus ellipses etc. also the energy is then finite at energy is infinite!!! because (1/2)*(m*v*v) and two zeros means energy is zero at infinite!!! now ofcourse m*c*c is energy so the kinetic is zero then m*c*c is all potential then it is possible that their is nothing but potential and no kinetic at rest thus cylinders really are going infinite speed in a circular!!! so mass and no kinetic is indeed possible!!! now for cylinders the mass would be because of the infinite small size and infinite velocity to infinite small velocity thus cylinders really are 1/(cube(infinite))!!! so liniar dimensions really are infinite small in cylinders (mass to volume) also mass particle the velocity goes to infinite to the w (w is whatever) and the velocity is 1/(infinite to the w) but the particle itself has infinite more energy so the other particles are just signals!!! now no matter what waves or really lobes stay same velocity c and cylinders stay same velocity c*infinite and wobble behaves as is now in spiral and waves spiral responds n/infinity and cycloid waves respond in s/infinity time with n greater then s because waves are direct and spiral is perpendicular so a+b is constant and a*a plus b*b is constant since energy is all the same then 2ab is constant then ab is constant so if large emphasis on wave and small on spiral or vice versa then still same speed behavior but in functions both are zero time response but if changing derivative infinitely fast then the n and s pop out with no division of infinite as in f(x) then f(f(x)) then f(f(f(f(x))) (f(x) is e to the x) then eight etc. then light speed also if all wave no spiral the limit is the same and vice versa the same and when the spiral falls behind then further acceleration is further behind when not zero then this is called succession but normally and al division of infinite the particle with spiral and wave combined is always light speed now when 'a' factor that means the change is happening under light speed thus energy distruction!!! over is energy creation one is neither but listen to what I said in the past!!! see 'a' factor has also to do with the spiral and wave interaction in the same way!!! also for wave or lobe and cylinder I may have made an error just now so listen to the past information so in other dimensions or universes or both it is possible the objects accelerate themselves!!! now be carefull m/[(1-m*m)^1.5] the m/[(m*m-1)^1.5] has an i or imaginary number but which cancels a numerator that does the same thing now for d(arccosh(arccos(v)))/dv is d(arccosh(d(arccos(v))))/d(arccos(v)) times d(arccos(v))/dv then the arccos(v) copies it's sine counterpart with a negative and d(arccosh(v)) is 1/(sqrt(m*m-1)) then m is 1/(sqrt(1-v*v)) then (sqrt(1-v*v))/v then 1/sqrt(1-v*v) times the negative is now negative(1/v) then that is perpendicular in a cartesian coordinate system the more perpendiculars the more dimensions like three are three possible perpendiculars also reverse the function to and the derivatives are taken out then you have cos(cosh(cos(cosh(v)))) perpendicular to a to b to c etc. but in cosh neither numerator or demoninator produce an i and you still get sec(v*v) but you now have sqr(sec(v*v)) for each also in differentials dy/dx plus xy minus xy is x to the n then you have sin((eTx + eT-x)/2) is 1/v no negative and with sin(cosh(v)) then if v is x to the n then the infinite is e to the infinite becomes one (because infinite becomes zero) then eT-x becomes zero then sin(1/2) then conversion because the introduction of the formula of sin or cos means d of formula in terms of variable to get pi/2 everytime sin or cos is one or zero respectivelythen you go sin(pi/4) in short infinite to the nth is always for pi/4 so (sec(v*v)) to the 2*n then sec(v*v) at v is infinite is sec(pi/4) or sqrt(2) then 2 to the nth is with the nth dimension so take a line and it will measure 1/(sqrt(2)) then area will measure 1/2 then volume 1/(sqrt(8)) or really 1/2 first then 1/4 then 1/8 then dimension for or time is 1/16 then when the edges are zero the dimensions cannot go any further but this does not happen until infinite!!! so now remember the waves are c and the cylinders are c*infinite so cylinders say three point is because infinite velocity but waves are say three point because or the time dimension cylinders do not have a concept of time because infintely small mass!!! also remember when dy/dx plus xy is w (w is whatever) then go e to the x and dy/dx minus xy is w then go e to the -x also when going to infinite dimension then all sides are equal to get a sphere at zero then at dimension zero is what it is called the universe is a point and even if universe is infinite still a point because 2 to the infinite and the universe has levels but only finite levels so everything is the same except a b and c etc. are all finite and the universe is a cylinder or really a sphere with a cylinder pointing at all ends or really eight hyperbolas to a sphere and the hyperbolas are each a cylinder and in these positive dimensions one circular hyperbola then the hyperbola at infinite is a cylinder when slope a/b of hyperbola becomes zero now the reason is the inverse relation is sharper and sharper where the slope is infinite at zero and horizontal at non-zero so the other cylinders then are other parallel universes!!! also at dimension zero the universe is now a point and you start at zero by infinite then it starts all over where the universe is an infintely small cylinder or point!!! now take the sin(x) machine and go d(cos(x)) or sqrt(1-x*x) or the cos(x) machine or just derivative of sine and for example if in cos(x) I say dx sometimes I really mean d(cos(x)) in way past past present and future and way future anyway then invert to get sec(x) also x is m*m*v*v/2 then v is 1/[(m*m)*(sqrt(m*m-1))]then n+1 is m*m then d(m*m)/d(z*z) where z*z is (m*m+1) correct some possible errors in this and you get 1/[(m)*(m*m-1)] then go -1/m plus 0.5/(m-1) minus 0.5/(m+1) then go -ln(m) plus (0.5)*ln(m-1) minus (0.5)*ln(m+1) again surf out errors to get eTv is m*sqrt((m-1)/(m+1)) then surf out errors to get 1/(m*m) is eT(2v) then then m is eT(-v) then if v is infinite then m is 1/(eT(infinite)) then m*v is zero then m*m*v*v/2 is all zero then m is sec(zero) then m is one then mass at velocity is infinity is whatever mass was at rest!!! see zero mass would fade into space again so we do not want that now ofcourse infinite would fade to zero under certain conditions but under these conditions it goes to one now in space minus mass is constant is because the more space the more mass and mass plus energy is constant amount of energy then space minus mass is constant but also space plus mass is constant to conserve energy thus space*space minus mass*mass is constant then sqrt[space*space minus mass*mass] mass is tangent and space is secant then the kozak theories are in play with the expanding universe thus sec(m*m*v*v/2) then if you go through a blackhole that manipulates space the same way except contraction instead of expansion then mass will return to one and you will be in the velocity is infinity back to finite in a split second and the cosh and cos are both effects of sec's thus you will be in a world where this universe is an infinitely small point or cylinder and then a huge amount of time will pass in 1/infinity time and this universe would have completely expanded and the life of the universe is actually greater because at first cylinders stay unless the mass of the cylinder is 1/(infinite^4) again or zero mass for cylinder again but ofcourse the larger universe all has a life but the time is infinitely greater so it is only safe to say this universe will stop expanding in finite time (I think I last said e to the c) but one thing the cylinders will recontract to give off mass to another point to yes maybe this universe is whatever I said in the past lifetime also in blackholes these are the infinitely small blocks or matter for the infinitely larger universe also in blackholes they are gates to the infinitely larger universe now derive c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and get dm/dv is cv/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)^3) and then dm/(mdv) is v/(c*c-v*v) then dm/m is (1/2)*(vdv)/(c*c-v*v) then ln(m*m) is ln(c*c-v*v) then derive then 2m is 2*c-2*v then m is c-v then at m is zero see the intregal because total mass build then ln because mass and velocity are thinking exponential (2 then 4 then 8 then 16 etc. (s.infinite's)) then mass is zero because the cylinders are infinitely small but only at velocity is zero then m is c*m0/sqrt(c*c-v*v) but I always assume m0 is one then at v is c it is infinite/(sqr(infinite)) or one!!! so the mass is the mass at v is c!!! higher it explodes to infinite lower is collapses to nothing (this is without the kozak processes) now integrate to a plus (c*c/2)/2 on the left side and to a (c*c/2)/2 on the right side or switch the negative and positive now v is e to the m*v*v when at infinity because d(m*v)/dm goes to one at infinity to replace m*v with v and when switched to replace m*v with v and then v is e to the (v*v*m*m/2) and the you have to switch negative and positive also (now where I say m*m*v*v/2 or something similar it is possible in some cases I ment m*m*v*v/(2*c*c) or over c etc. for each v including this one right before this statement) now the reason to replace m*v with m is one side is dmv other is dm then the switch and then v is c/sqrt(c*c+v*v) then v is e to the -m*v*v then v is at zero again also let's see how dmv/dm does in the sec equation well go (eT(-v)-(v)*eT(-v))/eT(-v) then v is zero from infinite to zero then dmv/dm is one here also now this means the work on the sec equation is accurate now each v for some equations supposed to be accompanied by a 1/c unless you have the v is c or some other special cases now blackholes are simply holes in the universe to a much larger world in such that you are thikning of the universe in two dimensions and to get into a higher dimension do the 'a' factor over light speed to get into a twin dimension of what you are already in do it below light speed and a parallel universe do it right on light speed and can the balance of light speed ever be thrown off well the energy must be greater then the total energy in the universe as in the infinte creators then hinder it goes lower help it goes higher as in if a pole is holding a car you must life the car and then the pole will bend considering the pole is strong or not strong so if you want the universe create infinite energy in finite time the way I said now the space*space minus mass*mass is always c*c also remmeber in the kozak equation of v is e to the -m*v*v remember when velocity is infinite then velocity is zero now in the universe the reverse says when v is zero it is infinite thus the universe is zero then infinite times zero or a constant so when it reach zero that is what happened as in the balance of light speed or really zero turned into c the energy was created see the light speed balance was messed with to tip the creation of energy now today light speed c is the balance so everything went zero now everything goes c a definite change for definite energy levels see there is a God but he works infintely mysteriously see did God create life or did the Sun and Earth's atmosphere and that huge collision with that huge comet well both God worked through these things to create life and he made the life particle by natural causes so indeed energy was created naturally and by God!!! God is NOT an obvious God he is infintely mysterious because mysterious is creative and God is one creative God!!! see we do NOT have all the answers and it is NOT that simple!!! now in the integration or fraction cancelations or derivatives the constants go to one because say the liniar is increasing then the whole square is put in place to get the two to cancel and similiar phenomina is for anything else also when m is sinh[(sqr(m*v))/2] then m is v*v then when flipping it you just flip the result then for multiply you just multiply thus the catinary winds up being parabolic when antikozaked also in the x^(1/3) the whole square to the parabola to get multiply x^(2/3) again canceling the number constants anyway in infinitely big circle or almost infinitely big circle the parabola and the catinary have the say so!!! so when antikozaked the path is free when kozaked the path is chained!!! thus the antikozak shall set you free!!! now the energy of a magnetic field super or non super conducting is (1/2)*N*A*B*B and the power if it is changing is N*A*B charge times velocity times B all is force and N is number of wrappings and A is crossectional area and if area changes then go intregal of A or H then (1/2)*H*B*B is energy and H*B is power also the sinh(m*m*v*v/2) is m then -1/((m*m+1)^1.5)*(dm/dv) is all v then in the triangle 1/(m*m+1) is cos(0) and derivative is sec(0)*sec(0) then cos(0) then intregal is sin(0) which is m/(sqrt(1+m*m)) then v*v is m*m/(1+m*m) then arrange and get v*v/(sqrt(1-v*v*v*v)) then v/(sqrt(1-v*v)) times v/(sqrt(1+v*v)) then you wind up with v*e to the (m*m*v*v/2) times v*e to the (-m*m*v*v/2) when going back then this cancels to v*v*1 so m is v*v because m is both multiplied now this is interesting try 1/sqrt(1-m*m) [1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) is same as 1/sqrt(1-m*m) in this and all cases] anyway everything happens to 1-m*m that happened to 1+m*m with a few minuses and pluses changed then it is v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) is all m how can it be sec(v*v) and v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) well it depends on the values you put in sin(m*m*v*v/2) is m to start it also why does it not go sec(sec(v*v)*sec(v*v)) etc. well the v is squared in sin(m*m*v*v/2) and in sec(v*v) so if v*v is z then just a liniar and same for v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) so now go z/(sqrt(1+z*z)) in sin(m*m*z/2) also the sinh(x) acts like a sine in that the slopes are the same at the zero x axis also the parabola, y = x*x and the sinh(x), y = sinh(x) is the same values when kozaking them then x*x = sinh(x) with substituting more and more values then the the circle is sqrt(1-sinh(x)) in a flat surface with infinitely big circle or straight line and it has to be a center attracting it but what if the position changes like in a normal circle then v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) for sine and v*v/(sqrt(1-v*v*v*v)) is there much difference then when v*v*v*v is changed in sine to go from infinite to finite which is what happens then indeed the cylinders trace sine waves!!! now for direct lines there is no attractor so again infinite to finite back to infinite again to keep it sine waves also parabola curves are too like sine waves in that the x axis points and same slope also sqrt(1-sinh(x)) is circle then when x is zero then circle is one etc. but these curves are for wobble and movement of cylinders what those waves are and the answer is sqrt(1-sinh(x)) and the spheres are finite because of either infinite number of cylinders or infinite speed or both where wobble is infinitely faster and these waves are for energy levels of cylinders as in how big the particle is also say wobble is infinite to the (2/3) then movement around circle is infinite to the (1/3) to get infinite and ofcourse do it to the c then get c*infinite now the space minus mass and space plus mass are both constant only when in the same energy level these constants change when changing energy levels and space would be like secant and mass would be like tangent also the energy level shift is finitely fast like in an electrons of the atom now in the first energy levels the volume of the universe was not zero just a number real close to zero also in the cylinder the universe will get from 1/(d*finite) to 1/(d*infinite) to get a cylinder but the universe is infinite expansion to be canceled to square one as in 1/(d*finite) (square one is just an expression) so energy creation also it is possible points are shaped like little cubes otherwise no space between them to form into cubes but a cylinder bends the cubes so energy is bent space also tiny speed is first energy level then light speed for this huge energy level etc. remember the many cylinders is really one cylinder and same for particles and waves and maybe n/infinite and s/infinite where n/s maybe bigger then one thinks now for the spiral and wave past light speed it will all go backwards but past 'a' factor it will slow going forward or speed up backwards and the behavior shifts instantly the forward is sqrt(cos*cos plus sin*sin) is one or c but it turns to backwards is sqrt(sec*sec minus tan*tan) is one or c all instantly (like in universe) also the blackholes are finite in size with a lower energy level now to brake the speed of light balance just go past it and if getting infinite energy in the process use all the ways I showed you then you can blow apart a blackehole by upsetting it's w relative speed or whatever depending on the blackhole going back to light speed also sec(v*v) is from m is cosh(m*m*v*v/2) or m is cos(m*m*v*v/2) now to get infinite going past light speed one way is to use m is cosh(m*m*v*v/2) or m is cos(m*m*v*v/2) or asymtote graph for the 'a' factor or the past ways I showed you the recent past and the far past etc. now if I said sec(sec(v*v)*sec(v*v)) or sec(sec(v*v)) or anything like this I may have messed up it is ((sec(v*v)) to the 2) or really ((sec(v*v)) to the v) also remember the pi/2 factor when changing to a trigonometric function also in a blackhole to blow it apart be sure to make the beems meet at the center of the blackhole also in the spiral going backward and wave going backwards I really mean the wave going negative and the spiral turning the opposite way and the neagive wave increases progression when spiral goes increasing backwards etc. also the kozak will go cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)) then cosh(cos(cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)))) then cosh(cos(cosh(cos(cosh(cos(cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)))))))) so f(x) then ff(x) then ffff(x) then ffffffff(x) etc. so when v*v aproaches infinite each v is sqrt(infinite because of the square effect by the kozak equation so v*v is z and m*m is M so work with that also I some places where I said m I MAY have ment M only in some places now I messsed up big time the m is v*v and then m is sinh(m*m*v*v/2) then v*v is sinh(m*m*v*v/2) then the simple parabola is the sinh kozaked so everything is true except take this into account and similiar mess ups may have happened so takethose into account also otherwise everything else is true so the kozaked function from m is f(v) to m is g(m*m*v*v/2) is always (f) to the (2 to the vth) and the and the other function is always the (2 to the vth) build of whatever function also a blackhole is finite in size but and it is regular matter but it accelerated past the 'a' factor to change the standard c relative to 'w', a lower veloctiy standard function because it si compressed also the single dimansions would each be half as much as in length, width, and height each are 1/8 for volume then with time now go 1/(16) now go cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2) then m is sqrt(2) because otherwise you would have to make each 'v*v' mulitplied by mass but not to worry for the dimensions I keep m at sqrt(2) and this makes sence because the sec(v*v) winds up at sqrt(2) which is m and remember when going to sqr(sqrt(2)) or sqr(sec(v*v)) then go cosh(cos(cosh(cos(v*v)))) is antikozaked then sqr(sqrt(2)) as well just like in previous kozak functions also when a blackhole shoots up light the v*v kozaked is sinh then the wave a catonary thinks is the derivative is always the value down the curve so the speed would have to be the same then as the curve gets "pinched" same speed then as it goes to infinite " pincned" curve still same speed because the equation was kozaked to get to this so anyway the lines must go to zero to get infinite dimension the blackhole is finite concentration but the dimensions would be pretty high!!! and veloctiy would not be infinite but high and you would "ALMOST" get to the higher universe also in the past when I said kozaked I either mens kozaked or antikozaked and this might be true in the present and future as well also all these ideas I have been doing can be used in the inventions and everywhere now in the pi/2 the conversion is everytime a trigonomic function is introduced and the pi/2 is inside the trigonomic function multiplying the whole inside function also in a blackhole the c to a w because the universe is cut off from the blackhole so the speed of light changes and the gyrosopic force changes the direction and nature of the function of the cylinder when it turns so that they still make contact also in a car the according to kozak equations the m will go right back at one so the infinitly moving car mass is one like at rest but v will be zero then the u will be zero then you have mass at one and no velocity but on the inside velocity never changes at u but the v is zero then the mass stays intact thus you will simply have mass at rest and you must start all over again!!! and the nature of the acceleration will determine where the infinite car becoming velocity is zero and mass is one is going to wind up!!! now the way a blackhole is going to wind up cut from the universe is when light cannot escape then the very relativity rule is broken to cut the blackhole off from the universe!!! now somtimes when I say any of the following I mean any of the following ddy/ddx, (ddy/d0)/(ddx/d0),ddy/d(x*x) etc. see I am trying to fold up some errors and I made similiar errors like d(dm/d(v*v)) in terms of m that means (1/d(v*v))*(ddm/dm) so all but these errors are true also the d0 effect you can derive the top and bottom etc. just be flexible in a million different ways!!! now the particles are such that say degree one is infinite then degree two is infinite*infinite etc. now in particles say degree one is sqr(sqr(infinite)) then degree two is maybe mass and the mass particle is such that the function is is tan(x) and/or sec(x) to get to the angle changing with speed in spiral and wave so there are various degrees with various particles and the speed of the particles compensate for different degrees to keep particle effects the same also make one less infinite for each degree or maybe two or three to get infinite whatever speeds for cylinders etc. so the degree is say one less or two less then the degree needed to accompany the 1/[(infinite) to the three] volume cylinders or really 1/(sqr(infnite)) or 1/infinite to accompany the volume etc. also the relative speed function is determined by another function in the wobble angle change etc. also the hologram effect is different for different degree results per particle etc. now in each cylinder the spread of curvature is vertical and horizontal that makes a 1/(D*D) per cylinder everything is still true also the level of trace is different per degree etc. now for magnetics the cone is for infinite to decrease with distance to take out an 'r' thus the magnetism or sister field is 1/r while the field is 1/(r*r) now surf out any other errors also in sec(x) cos(x) and tan(x) go (pi/2)*x and in csc(x) sin(x) and cot(x) go (2*pi)*x and in {[1+sin((pi/2)x)]*[tan((pi/2)*x)]} all to the x as in (cos(x)/sin(x))*sin(x) and {[1-cos((2*pi)x)]*[cot((2*pi)*x)]} all to the x as in (sin(x)/cos(x))*sin(x) (l'hopital's rule applies here in parts of it) also everytime a trigonometric function is introduced go pi/2 times all inner function or 2*pi times all inner function also about the v equal 2u/(1+u*u) then if u is tangent then tan(2x) is v then the the u and v are in the same phenomina thus the angles are equal so thus v must be 2u/(1+u*u) also the blackhole is close to sinh function and v*v function at the same time because the values are close to infinite for circle and tiny close to zero for the new "c" or really w also the wave and spiral combined is the plane that folds like the plane where the beginning negative joins the positive end and all of the universe works this way!!! and the particle circle and wave divided evenly to get the negative beginning to the positive end and positive means right side up and negative means up side down thus energy creation now when crossing the 'a' factor you go to parallel dimension angle depending on behavior of particle or body when going past light speed then to a parallel universe angle depending on particle or body and then constant integration to go to curved dimension and lower or upper derivative or intregal also for curved universe constant integration to approach light speed and when meet at light speed or close then time change because it is highest dimension in this universe and universe meaning another small one not the large the large I already talked about and when starting behavior only a tiny amount of approaching other dimension also to get IIIIFFFF(x) put the integrator in a parallel circuit with a loop close and then the function in a second parallel circuit loop close as in inside the loop and put the function inside the integrator loop and whatever function determines whatever dimension and whatever intregal rate determines whatever angle behavior of upper dimension all same for derivative and function ddddffff(x) and the formulas for these are just the amount of required energy now if going IFIFIFIF(x) then that is a dimension that is completely different as in not even curved but beyond measurability of these dimensions!!! now in light one particle is clockwise and other counterclockwise so they cancel so they can do what they want and so the particle goes above and below light speed equally sine wave wise but in electron no cancel so the electron can go at whatever speed and half above or half below well it chooses half below because the overall upper bound is light speed unless getting it over then lower bound anyway the light is sine wave and the (1/2)*A*B*B is equal to k*q*q/r where B is qv/(r*r) this all becomes v*v/r equals 2k or a constant then v is proportional to sqrt(r) then (1/2)*m*v*v is really (1/2)*m/r which means if r is half then m is 1/2 for attraction which means energy and mass are proportional thus frequency is energy now for electron the speed is constant along the sine wave but still what frequency is it set at just like in light also this is for any particle of non canceling and canceling so combined this with past information now the speed along the wave is always light speed in a non cancel but the v*v/r is angular acceleration is guess what it is varied!!! v is proportional to sqrt(r) so when frequency is higher then amplitude is lower inversely or however I said in the past but the speed is always light speed in non cancel well the frequency changes without speed changing to effect the non cancel also some of this is present information for canceling and some is for non canceling so in the non canceling it is along the x axis in canceling it is along the sine curve so just take all this into account so there are three types non canceling above and below and canceling now some of this stuff I typed for electron or non canceling I really may have typed for canceling like photon and the other way around as well also remember if going to another dimension FFFF(x) etc. to get F(x) in the other dimension and for behavior of intregal or derivative to which of those dimensions etc.!!! now in the accelerators and the magnetic thrusters the ffff(x) etc. go dx to build and 1/dx to unbuild in the signal part of function machine and say signal a sine wave then it builds and unbuilds in a sine fashion also you can build unbuild or back and forth in any fashion and the x increase or decrease in any fashion and intregals or derivatives build unbuild back and forth any order with function any fashion and change order by changing fashion of each and connecting the signal of both to one signal and you can do all this with derivative as well and the you can do any combination and style you want in the accelerating and/or decelerating and in any order of stages also you can go sine*sine and a machine that square roots and arcsines to get a liniar back and forth etc. you can do any combination you want!!! and this is all for pure acceleration or pure deceleration or both together now I told you wrong the space minus mass is not constant and the space plus mass is not constant but space*space minus mass*mass is constant and is c*c (c is light speed) also in the sine wave that signals the function machine one parallel wire is dx the other 1/dx (d is derivative) then have the sqrt(sine*sine plus cosine*cosine) for each signal and then the function is increasing then decreasing back and forth also the actual sine wave function signal is around the other function signal and then the freeze circuit is inside the sine wave signal and the unit current is the inner function also in the (etc.) sin(sin(sin(m*m*v*v/2))) go central function is x*x/2 and door function is sin(x) then say go sin(e^(m*v)) then 1/sqrt(1-m*m) then m/[(1-m*m)^1.5] all times dm/dv is e^(m*v) then then d(m*m)/[(1-m*m)^1.5] is e^(m*v) then d(m*m) is understood then {1/[(1-m*m)^2.5]}/{1/[(1-m*m)^1.5]} then dm/(1-m*m) is d(m*v) then 1/(1-m*m) is dv then v is (1/2)*(ln((1+m)/(1-m))) then if e^v is infinity halfs then m is one then the pi/2 rule then sin(4*infinity) (1+m and 2v) for the (1/2) but infinity halfs to 2 infinity which pulls it to pi/2 then one then the pi/2 rule to one then forever number of doors functions brings it to one!!! (dv is understood also) and velocity is infinite/2 because the velocity is about average speed with liniar in the central function and door function now how about e^(sin(m*v)) then go (1/(m*m))*(dm/dv) then dv is understood to get go (1/(m*m))*(dm) to get the dm out that is understood to get 1/m is sin(m*v) then go d(arcsin(1/m)) is d(m*v) to get (1/(m*m))/sqrt(1-(1/m*m)) then dm/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) is d(m*v) then darcsec(m) is dv then arcsec(m) is v then m is sec(v) one more thing try e^(e^(m*v)) then (1/(m*m))*(dm/dv) dm/dv understood then go (1/(m*m*m))/(1/(m*m)) then 1/m is dv then e^v now these would be good in computing the 'a' factor equations or function machine resulting values etc. now earlier I was talking of ln(m+(m*m-1)) well in turns out that it is arccosh(x) but when switching it to feta instead of mass then you have the intregal of sqr(sec(0))*ln(sec(0)+tan(0)) now to get rid of sqr(sec(0)) divide both sides and then replace by dm then that is your intregal of ln(sec(0)+tan(0)) which is when m is (dm)*(sin(m*m*v*v/2)) also the reason space*space-mass*mass is c*c the difference decreases invertly to the sum because of squeezing in the universe now for the function machine in any particle machine use an initial function unit that goes into the recycle then that machine controls the heads of the builds also force has whatever head you want then 'a' does the rest also the mas goes to one in sin(e^(m*v)) then mass is one and v is infinite/2 also in the equation with dm when going 1/dm you go from one to dm also the heads can be door functions as well as in sin(sin(e^(e^(m*m*v*v/2)))) etc. and more than one central function as well and say the inner door can be larger or smaller then the outer door etc. also 1/(2-2) is (1/2)*infinite etc. also the space*space minus mass*mass is square rooted because the space and mass are squared for the universe now in the tracing of one cylinder to many or really the same one at different time frames the rate of trace change is such that the cylinders go infinite clockwise or counterclockwise and same with finite particles except finite also in the door functions I messed up a little the 'a' factor is not able to be solved with this etc. and I want one door function and one central function although you can have many of each also I messed up a little but take all ideas into account and it is possible for 'a' factor to be solved if going [(1/m)^n]/[(1/m)^(n-1)] but that would be under special conditions now in the cylinders the cylinder traces the other cylinders then that is infinite*c then the other trace is finite or c with the wave and if any more tracing all but one are infinitely small and infinitely fast also in all the constants in the other stuff above the reconstruction to a square will cancel the constants and when moving to infiinte speed the cylinders slow from c*infinite to zero and proportionately the waves slow from c to zero and the slow down is such that when the spiral and wave each (other kind of wave I think) the energy goes in then when the largest finite number is reached the slow down takes it away then the slow down starts speeding up again and it is all a big circle see the energy goes in then slow down dominates to take it back out then everything is reversed in a big circle that is why velocity winds up as zero and mass back to one now to treat m=sin(e^(m*v)) as one function go 1/sqrt(1-m*m) is (e^(m*v))*dmv/dm then go d(m*m)/sqrt(1-m*m) is (e^(m*v))*dmv/dv then sqrt(1-m*m) is intregal of (e^(m*v))*dmv/dv then go (dmdv) times e^(2*m*v) is 1 but the two goes by square rule then m*v is e^(m*v) then m must be 1/(v-(v*v)) for and the intregal earlier is from m*v or F*T to F*T*V or F*D which is energy also sin(sin(m*v) then same thing except 1 is sin(m*v) then m*v is sin(m*v) [by the way sin(m*v) is m then dm/sqrt(1-m*m) is dmdv then dmdm/(1-m*m) is d(sqr(mv)) then 2m*dm/(1-m*m) is d(sqr(mv)) then 2m/(1-m*m) is dmdvdv then divide both sides by dm to get (1/dm)*(2m/(1-m*m)) is dvdv then multiply the dm but integrate to get -ln(1-m*m) is v*v then 1-m*m is e^(-v*v) then sqrt(1-e^(-v*v)) is m] then {sqrt(1-e^(-v*v))}/v then also one more the e^(cos(m*v)) then 1/m is (dmdv/dm)*-sin(m*v) and the same process to get 1/m and m to get dmdv((-cos(m*v))) is 1 then back to m is sin(m*v) then to the formula I just said(the square is gone because somewhere along the line the 2 or really square effect as in maybe dvdv is sine*sine or something got canceled then mv is and all these are energies but notice if v goes to infinite then v goes to zero!!! also the mass will be one in all the cases!!! with a little help from the constant integreate effect also there is one for c*infinite in cylinders and one more for wave particle tracers if anymore they are infinitely small also so these are just some ways to kozak or really antikozak a function or functions now the square of sine to square root was d(sqrt(mv))*(sine) to get 1*1 then square root to 1 then make it interms of mv again to get mv*sine then go from there now a non intregal is where you go F*T and you keep it at that now the e^(F(mv)) the 1/m is dv*e^(F'(mv)) then go d(m*m) where 1/dv is understood then 2m*dm times 1/m or 2dm is all dmv*(F'(mv)) then m is (F(mv))/2 is m then for e the non intregal subdoor function is 1/2 now for tan(mv) as F(mv) then m is tan(mv) then dm/(1+m*m) is dmv then d(m*m)/(1+m*m) is dmdmdv then v is ln(1+m*m) because of relative integration for each side a while ago and using d(m*m) as the standard not dm then sqrt[(e^v)-1] is m then go 1/2 to get {sqrt[(e^v)-1]}/2 so that is a subdoor release function where the equation is solve by a non intregal door function now go e^tan(mv) is m with no door function then 1/m is dv*sec*(mv)*sec(mv) then 1/(sqrt(m) is sec(mv) then dmv is (1/(1/(m^1.5)))/[(1/(m^.5))*sqrt((1/m)-1)] then a little algebra and integration substitution and dmv is 1/sqrt(1-z*z) where z is sqrt(m) then sqrt(m) is sin(v) then m is sin(v)*sin(v) then with e^(cot(mv)) then add and you get one!!! now one is e^(tan(v)) plus e^(cot(v)) then e^(x-(1/x)) is zero then x-(1/x) is ln(0) then x must be ln(0) then this proves that when the velocity is ln(0) then the mass starts going to zero then at infinity it is one also the radio that can single out frequencies and amplitude combinations of many light rays and may I add that the polarizer can also use the currents on different axises and only accept light say at a forty five degree angle for one ray and 55 degrees for another etc. and these can be used for sound waves the president's brain waves etc. as in the president's only can control whatever missile etc. also there are all kinds of functions subdoors doors etc. now in 1/m is dv*sec(mv)*sec(mv) then dmdm/m is dm*[sec(mv)*sec(mv)] then dmdm/(m*m) is dmdv*sqr[sec(mv)*sec(mv)] then is dmdm/m is dmdv*[sec(mv)*sec(mv)] then dm/sqrt(m) is dm*sec(mv) then dm is understood then take it from there now in sec(v*v)*sec(v*v) would be cosh(cos(cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)))) or whatever but whatever means you will have to look earlier in this post or maybe an earlier post to see what whatever is I think it is m*m*v*v/2 but I'm not sure now m and sec(v*v) then go sec(v*v)*sec(v*v) is mv then sec(v*v)*tan(v*v) is m*v*v/2 then integrate to sec(v*v) which is m then sec(v*v)*sec(v*v) which is mv again and the twos in the (1/2)'s of the processes cancel effects this all means F*D F*T and mass are all perpendicular on the x,y,z coordinates now m is sec(v*v) for reasons earlier in the post and posts when I solved a kozak equation to get it, see that kozak equation, and then integrate by v for both and mass is treated like an instantaneous constant also in the d(arccosh(arccos(x)))/d(arccos(x)) and d(arccos(x))/dx then I went d(arccos(x))/d(d(arccos(x))) for upper and lower of larger and smaller fraction to get the earlier equation now sec(v*v) because sin(m*m*v*v/2) is m then dm/sqrt(1-m*m) is mv(dv) then go (dm/dv)/sqrt(1-m*m) is mv then dv is understood then (dmdm)/sqrt(1-m*m) is mdmdv or dvdmdm then sqrt(1-m*m) is v then 1 is m*m plus v*v then the derivative is 1 then m and v must be perpendicular in the derivative then dot product or m*v is perpendicular to dot product or mv*(v/2) and m etc. also the 1/2 effect works a little late and so allows one 1/2 now the kinetic energy is different from total energy see in F*D in the kozak equations are larger velocity but small distances by small times also there may be errors in this stuff but I think you'll get it also for prime numbers go 9-0 16-1 25-4 36-9 49-16 etc. and go 25-0 36-1 64-4 81-9 100-16 etc. and the starters are 9 16 25 49 etc or 3*3 5*5 7*7 etc. these will eliminate all the possible non-prime numbers also remember when going cosh(cos(cosh(cos(x)))) you go sec(v*v)*sec(v*v) etc. so these energy momentum and mass things can help make it possible to go past light speed see if the energy required is low and the momentum is high and if mass is low you can rip past light speed like paper towels!!!