Sunday, May 1, 2016

time light and other things

now in the momentum the mv is same because as soon as force is changed regardless of reference the time terminals would be the same also energy not same or (1/2)*m*v*v because the distances can be different in action reaction force always identical also the perpendicular of -1/x because the light speed perpendicular to height to appraoche on graph also when light standstill in time then there is no t then m*v*v then sqrt(c*c-v*v) is outcome to zero for light but for other stuff time is defined then the outcome is (c*c-v*v)/(c*c-v*v) or one then indeterinate to get finite mass see if light had finite mass everything would be destroyed then zero mass and infinite time is indeterminate to finite manipulation power also mv is constant ln(K+1) then momentum is same then and energy is liniar with m*v*v less with increased velocity but ofcourse increase mass by the spiral ad cycloid see the cycloid and spiral IS the tracer and axis but two different properties less mass with respect to axis and more to the pusher but remember all this decreasing mass stuff is only where relativity is insignificant but that would be less then absolute zero temperature (zero degrees kelvin or -273.17 degrees celcius) then after that the relativity would be zero and the conventional would kick in making mass increase with less energy so relativity makes sense!!! now remember the minimum and maximum of all these phenomina are at any temperature depending on kozak equation and all these phenomina are at work significantly throughout all situations also the kozak factor is awfully huge  to get the minimum and maximum at a significantly higher temperature and if  no kozak factor then the minimum and maximum are at zero degrees absolute zero this was a slight correction also the kozak factor is the multiple of K*e^((m*m*v*v)/(c*c)) K is the factor and since the kozak equation makes the same thing happen at lower eergy then the maximum and minimum are multiplied by 1/K (K is kozak factor) thus it is very easy to break light speed and K is greater than one or huge but it can be less than one or anything also do not get confused the maximum and minimum values are times 1/K and the point where they happen is at K making the energy conserved where it is supposed to be but under conditions energy can still be created now when tracer slow down or amplitude and frequency act the axis of the particle (not axis of sine wave) shrinks or whatever as well as the orbits around axis because the tracer slows down vertically or whatever as well as horizontally and the energy is less or whatever by a sphere by sphere liniarly shrinking or whatever and the cylinders become space and leave or turn space into cylinders by other cylinders so when freezing it is gone!!! then particle always shape of sphere also the proton has different K factors and whatever constants thus it is massive to electrons it is almost 2000 times mass also the energy shrinks by a square now energy shrinks by a m*T*v1*v1 then (c*c-v*v) then it shrinks by a square and T inversely proportional to m and T is not time but how much time per x on the graph now in light T is fixed and mass is zero and velocity is fixed thus light never freezes or heats up!!! thus light is not vulnarable to temperature energy now in the rcx for universe is because distance increasing by constant force remember the inertial theories also remember the rc getting bent by the waves into the wanted behavior also the universe will increase in mass thus harder to pull in then more mass to more distance from harder to pull in etc. then e^x but then e^x becomes the liniar then e^(e^x) but the build is liniar then e^e^(e^e^x) then build of build then the build succession is not liniar but that is the most rate it can go becuase the heads have not formed yet so initially force constant and mass incease by rcx also x is one to one liniar and r is increasing radius so the expansion of the universe is huge but waves are going to make it so universe will go down just as fast as it is going up thus the non reality non wave has serious issues now in rc reality no waves the frame of reference is a body doing all this so now it is just rc and the the waves bend it to the relativity and the bend stamps it to much smaller size and values now why e^x well the total amount determines rate or differential thus the currency is e^x now in all builds go 2^F(x) where F(x) is the rate of build then you do the exponent now say e^F(x) then 2^(K*F(x)) etc. now when I said rm is c*c-v1*v1 I really ment rm is c*c/(c*c-v1*v1) also if kqq where q is directly proportional to mass in former proofs then m*m/m or m then energy is directly proportional to mass as said in E=m*c*c then turn energy into force by dividing be r then kqq/(r*r) is force see former proofs for q is mass is energy now if accelerating toward light speed in c/sqr(second) then the rate it goes you will get c*sqrt(ln(k+1)) then that will be m2v2 then get m1v1 the same way then at light speed then actual m2 is where v2 is c and actual m1 is where v1 is c by the liniar one to one approach only where one is c also then m2/m1 is R then lnR is p2-p1 also kqq/r is m*v*v then c*kqq/(r*c) is m*v*v then c*kqq is m*m*v*v then m*m*c*c is c*kqq then kqq/c is m*m then m is q*sqrt(k/c) now the rc is representative of what the things want to do not what actually happens see when m is constant times q plays into the mix it stays true but the whole outcome does not like gravity wants 1/(d*d) but with air the law still hold but the outcome is much different!!! now since light is temperature free the amplitude always increases with decrease energy etc. now for phase shift or any correction in frequency motor use a magnetic clatch where the turning is turned by a magnet see inner wheel turning outer wheel and then that to still an outer wheel etc. also the shaft is two outer disks in stationary and on in middle in shaft or switch around stationary and shaft around in vice versa and for brushes the magnets turn away to make a current then toward to make another and for these signals go arcsine but do not simple rectify then derivative and again do not simple rectify thus no friction except for air!!! now remember for powerstepper and pulser the unit current is made by main current off of the main current with insulation and in you must then go e^(-t/(rc)) solve for t or if going I is I0(e^(-t/(rc))) or v is v0 - v0(e^(-t/(rc))) 0 is beginning then solve for t in any case if you must

Saturday, April 9, 2016

improvement of inertia proof and other things

now in then ln(m*m) is m*m*v*v/(c*c) go (ln(m*m))/(m*m) is 2mv dmdv/(d(m*m) then derivative of second part because devide by d(m*m) then when multiplied it must be integrated d(v*v)/(c*c) d(m*m) then c*c*(ln(m*m))/(m*m) is d(v*v) d(m*m) then switch to invert function and invert the derivative then intregal 1/d(m*m) d(v*v) then in terms of v then intregal of d(v*v)/[d(m*m)*d(v*v)] is c*c*sqr(ln(m*m)) is intregal of sqr[dv/(d(mv)] and since everyone is under a d then sqrt right though the intregal then sqrt everything then c*ln(m*m) is intregal dv/d(mv) then reinvert to intregal of d(mv)/dv is c*ln(m*m) then dfdt is c*ln(m) dv then c*ln(m) dfdt/dv then f is -m+m*ln(m) (put it back to dm because of reinverting) then df*dv/(da) (dv/da is dt) is -ma+ma*ln(ma) the dm/d(ma) for both sides then go dt/dv then df dv is -m+m*ln(ma) then f is there fore -m+m*ln(ma) then e^(1+f/m) is f then e*(e^a) is f where 'a' is acceleration v is velocity and f is force m is mass etc. now ((1/e)*f) is e^a then e^(v/t) then v is t*dt where t is how much time taken up then v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is dt and t is sqrt(c*c-v*v) the e^dt is (1/e)*f then dt is -1+lnf then -f-f+f*lnf but -1+lnf is a then -f-f+f*(a-1) or -3f+fa 'a' is dt then dt is one then -2f and minus because the reaction force not action is what is measured also dt is NOT one (correction) but what dt does is v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or v/v1 or perpendicular slope tangent but this time is t is how much time passes on the stationary with respect to moving so it is not really time in this case so acceleration times actual time is force see tangent is one at the 45 degree angle but the 2 because it is angle twice as fast wth half to radius with two bodies not one thus 90 degrees but taking the y value thus zero degrees!!! then dt is one then this is how time changes at angle also the dt is then one then the vectors agree with all this!!! also the rate of acceleration and change of velocity and force are for mass!!! then (1/e)*f minus -3f+fa is (1/e)*f then -3m+f is (1/e)*m then ((1/e)+3)*m is f or force!!! also it looks like force ad mass are both always positive!!! this was a correction now another correction is what really happened was the intregal of d(v*v) d(m*m) then the inversions to 1/d(m*m) d(v*v) then derive to get d(v*v)/[d(v*v)*d(m*m)] then dv/d(mv) that is c*ln(m*m) and the two's will all cancel out and use ln(m*m) or ln(m) which ever is more convenient now when going v*v/I is AB dB/dt it is v*v/r or power now in Lt/r is t/rc or tv/rq then t*(B/t)/Ir or B/v is tv/rq now ab/cd is really (ab)/(cd) etc. anyway Bq/t is v*v/r or v*I or power or dE/dt (the I means current) then q/t is dB/dt then flux is total current and that is correct thus and ofcourse times area A then AB*dB/dt is dE/dt thus (1/2)*A*B*B is E or energy now for tracers the cylinder tracer circles speed by c*(infinite) and circle moves up and down the axis by c*sqr(infinite) because of area is 1/sqr(infinite) cylinders are 1/[(nfinite)^3] then a circle anyway the particle tracer circles speed by c and circle moves up and down axis by c*infinite now for big engolfer tracers the tracer does like in the particle tracer etc. now in lobes as well as waves the width or length is directly proportional to height or amplitude times a constant same constant for all particles but the actual length and height is depending on particle also go [(m/k)*(g-g(e^(-t/N)))]^(1/n) also the multiplication on the -(k/m)*(v^N) particle lead to dv/da times v/N and the n to N cancel effect on numerator and denominator in [(k/m)*(v^N)]/[(k/m)*N*(v^(N-1))] and the dv/da leads to dt for v/N then integrate with dv dt is g dtdt plus (v/N) dt also the D and 'a' are negative see you are going negative distance negative velocity and negative acceleration three negatives make a negative then da/dt is -a/N also the N-2 is n is because when (k/m)*(v^N) then when N is two or less then the velocity is undefined now in the m is sec(v*v) then m is sqrt(1+sqr(tan(v*v))) then m*m-1 is sqr(tan(v*v)) then arctan(sqrt(m*m-1)) is v*v then d(v*v) is 1/(m*m) then 1/m is dv then dm/m is dmdv then m is e^(mv) then m*m is e^(m*m*v*v) where c is the unit and square because everything is squared to stay equal or replace liniar by sqrt squared to everything but this is the kozak equation!!! so m is sec(v*v) by rule of nature!!! also d(arccosh(d(arccos(m)))) is -1/m then the other side is intregal is I is I(cos(I(cosh(m)))) then sin(sinh(m)) then perpendicular is back to cos(cosh(m)) etc. now sqr(arccosh(-1/m)) or sqr(arccos(-1/m)) or (1/(m*m))*(1/(1-m*m)) then negatify both numerator and denominator but cosine has a negative then sqrt to (1/m)*(1/sqrt(m*m-1)) cos and cosh deliver the same thing sec(v*v) and ofcourse this is all the derivatives of arccosh and arccos and everything and if I said x I ment m or maybe even v also nothing really sqrt in the exponential kozak equations but one variable is assigned to two of the same variable then what happens when v*v is pi/2 well I reversed it I went from the kozak equation back to another infinite part that's all so now go forward again to get the kozak equation to define sec(v*v) is m again also one will make 1/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) but both together will make another -1/m thus everything works now actually cosh(v*v) and cos(v*v) both go to m is sec(v*v) not arccosh(v*v) or arccos(v*v) also the cosh(v*v) and cos(v*v) can be achieved because arccosh(-1/m) and arccos(-1/m) respectively they each become sec(v*v) and v must square to account for the squares in m*m is e^((m*m*v*v)/(c*c)) and -1/m is invert function of -1/m as well thus it all works together now inn 1+m*m is e^(mv/(1-v)) go 1+[(m^(3/2))/(1-v)^(1/2)] is e^(m^(3/2))v/((1-v)^(1/2)) then both are right but then go back to orignal going sqrt(m)/sqrt(m) but go sqrt(m)/m because one must be the square of the other in the original!!! now in (c*c)*(ln(m*m))/(m*m) is v*v go (c*c)*sqr(ln(m*m)) is intregal of d(v*v) d(m*m) is intregal of 1/(d(m*m) d(v*v) is simply d(v*v)/[d(m*m)d(v*v)] then c*ln(m*m) is dv/d(mv) then reinvert to d(mv)/dm where dv is dm by invert function and thus invert derivative then dfdt/dm is ln(m) the two's are omitted and would have canceled anyway -m+m*ln(m) is f then e^((f/m)+1) or e^(a+1) then -1+ln(f) is 'a' but t is sqrt(c*c-v1*v1) and v1/sqrt(c*c-v1*v1) is dt/dv1 then t*dt is v1 then v1/t or 'a' is dt now go -1+ln(f) is dt then intregal of dt df is intregal of 1 df and that is -f-f+f*ln(f) but ln(f) is (a+1) then ofcourse -f+fa is f then -m+f is m then f is 2m for two masses exchanging energy not one now in m*m*v*v d(m*m)d(v*v)/d(m*m) is (c^4)*(ln(m*m))/(m*m) then (c^4)*sqr(ln(m*m)) is intregal of d(m^4)*d(v^4) then c*c*ln(m*m) is intregal of d(m*m)*d(v*v) then go c*c*d(ln(m*m))/d(m*m) but that was integrated by d(m*m) also the intregal of dAdB is to AB then square then reintegrate into d(A*A)d(B*B) thus c*c*ln(m*m) is v*v but m equivalent to time thus m*m*a*a is c*c*ln(m*m) thus m*m is e^((m*m*a*a)/(c*c)) then atikozaked is c/sqrt(c*c-a*a) there may be other errors to find and correct now in (m^(3/2))*(sqrt(1-v)) then one goes m^(4/3) and the other goes m^(2/3) then when combined and devided by two is m*m then the sqrt will square again it square rooted because of the m*m then the antikozak effect said to square it then add one correction though the m's would be to the 3/2 then the antikozak fraction would be to the 2/3 then the advance is (4/3)/(2/3) or two then the sqrt because of that then the square etc. raise to twice as much as rooted thus the progression thus the one etc. now in 'a' is g-(k/m)*(v^n) go g-(v/n)*(da/dv) dt then 1/dt dt then dtdt then t is the standard then v to D to v to 'a' etc. this was a correction now when going dvdt and dtdt and dtdt remember to divide all by dt then dv and dt and dt etc. now in the -(k/m)*(v^n) the dv/da makes it positive but the dt is directly from dv/da which is negative to gt-D/N is v etc. now in K(x) when going K(K(x) is C(x) then C(K(x)) then restart the whole thing starting with acceleration and da/dt when removing t from 'a' see make acceleration like velocity then do the whole process then back to acceleration from velocity etc. now why is removing t from velocity derive it well go dadt is dv then remove dt well integrate everybody then a*t remove t thus it works now in the (ln(m*m))/(m*m) is d(sqr(ln(m*m)))/d(m*m) is 4*x*x dx*dx or d(x^4) (each 2xdx makes a two) then d(ln(m*m))/dm is d(x*x) then ln(m*m) is d(x*x) d(m*m) then switch then dxdx/(dmdmdxdx) is sqr(ln(m*m)) then dx/dmdx is ln(m*m) then ln(m) is dx/dmdx then ln(m) is dv/dmdv then re flip the graph to turn dv to dm then dmdv/dm is ln(m) then f is -m+m*ln(m) this is a correction now in intregal of dt df then df/dt cancels the dt to get intregal df now for g*dvdt then there is no 'a' so it must have canceled 1/a then to counteract you must go dvdt then it is g*dtdt also in the barrier energy is opposite of force then E is kqq/r then E/r is -kqq/(r*r) then kqq/(1-(r*r+1)) is E/r then sqrt everything and cancel sqrt(kqq) then multiply by kqq to each side then E is kqq/sqrt(1-(r*r+1)) now note the sqrt(-1) says the field does not exist if no sqrt(-1) which is i then the field would exist everywhere but the energy is opposite force and radius is always positive so you cannot escape the i then the barrier field holds also 'a' is g-(k/m)*(e^(v^n)) then process it to get the a*a is ga + (1/(n))*(1/(v^(n-1))) then the last term is in terms of v then I(a*a) is I(ga) - (v/(n-1)) then re-doing the 'a' then I(a) dt is I(g) dt - I(v/(n-1)) dt then 'a' is g - v/(n-1) then da/dt is -a/(n-1) then 'a' is g*e^-(t/(n-1)) then go g-g^-(t/(n-1)) then go (ln((m/k)*(g-g^-(t/(n-1)))))^(1/n) also in (c^4)*(ln(m*m))/(m*m) is m*m*v*v*dm*dm*dv*dv then (c^4)*d(sqr(ln(m*m)))/(d(m*m)) is 4*m*m*v*v*dv*dv then c*c*d(ln(m*m))/dm is 2*m*v*dv then c*c*d(ln(m*m))/d(m*m) is vdv then v*v is c*c*ln(m*m) then t separation e^(m*m*a*a/(c*c)) is m*m thus it works now also -f-f+f*ln(f) is intregal of 'a' but t is sqrt(c*c-v1*v1) is v and dt is v1/sqrt(c*c-v1*v1) is 'a' then t*dt is v*a is v1 then 'a' is dt then intregal of dt df then df/dt where the dt's cancel to intregal of 1 df in the earlier case and this case also I() is intregal also this really works!!! now one thing -f-f+f*ln(f) is f then 3f is f*(a+1) then 2f is f*a then 2m is f thereby explaining why all forces have reaction forces as well!!! now an option is to put supply of unit current after the simple rectifiers or trick simple rectifiers and after everything that is before the coils or really inner coil that is before outer coil but the simple rectifiers or trick simple rectifiers but the reality is when the power sucksion happens the increase in current will push against the wires making difference less then the input to simple or trick will be smaller width but same amplitude as original wavestarter or powerhead then the is truly an input less then output!!! also use simples or tricks everywhere!!! also some power steppers and pulsers are different some use lower frequency high amplitude sine waves like in relay some use linear waves like in power converters some in power head do high frequency etc. in relay things can be different but make everything as identical as possible now huge correction on barrier theory see f*f*r*r is (sqr(kqq))/(1-(r*r+1)) then f*f*r*r is really (sqr(kqq))*e^(f*f*r*r*(r*r+1)) then ln(K/(r*r)) is sum of two squares or positive and for hyperbola go (sqr(kqq))/(1+r*r-1) then f*f*r*r is (sqr(kqq))*e^(f*f*r*r*(-r*r-1)) then all negative for ln(K/(r*r)) etc. now when deriving then integrating again then the K is different as in add ln(K) as a constant intregal effect then derive then integrate to change it thus all the sequence barriers and sqr(f*r) is B this was a huge correction for barrier theories!!! see fields the only thing that matters is the forces the energy can be negative or positive see in fields we are dealing with force in bariers and the i thing is right but it does not really explain the force it just explains why energy does not exist at certain distances thus outside or for negative inside you cannot play with energy!!!! now f*r is energy E and B is just a variable substitute so everything you do to f*r do to E then energy does the same thing as force!!!! now in the kozak function build by e^x then e^(e^x) etc. is K(x) then K(x) asymtote becomes acceleration is c then K(K(x)) is d(acceleration)/dx is c etc. and c is light speed now in light speed where energy is m*v1*v1 then go m*(c*c-v*v) then mv1 is ln(k+1) then m increases then energy increases because v1 will decrease then v must be increasing then the m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then mass is directly proportional to energy and the velocities aare all perpendcular but v1 is c*sin(0) and c*cos(0) is v then no matter what 0 or feta is they are perpendicular thus it works and v1*v1 plus v*v is c*c then energy is always m*c*c because sqr(c*sin(0))+sqr(c*cos(0)) is always c*c now in going above light speed (v*v-c*c) or (a*a-c*c) or c*c-a*a) depending on which side of the asymtote for K(x) etc. then v*v-v1*v1 hyperbolic because it is negative then is c*c and for a*a+a1*a1 is c*c then a*a-a1*a1 is c*c all possibilities c*c then it is always m*c*c also in asymtotes when going past the asymtote the stuff under the radical negatifies and then ofcourse you can get c/sqrt(F(a)*F(a)-F(c)*F(c)) then the F(m)*F(m) is e^((F(m)*F(m)*F(v)*F(v))/(F(c)*F(c))) then that would mean F(m)*F(v) is constant then F(m) is proportional to 1/(F(v)) so really energy is increasing or decreasing by F(v) only if mass is F(m) then then energy H(x) is invert function of F(x) then real velocity is v then G(F(m)) and G(F(v)) and G(F(c)) then once again m*c*c is energy!!! now F(m) is not actual mass m is actaul mass same with v,v1,c all velocities and 'a' and a1 everything now in the 'a' factor 'a' is the head is c/sqrt(c*c-f*f) also when switched around to go c/sqrt(F(w)*F(w)-F(c)*F(c)) then the 'a' factor is sqrt(L) to negative for L is negative i*i is negative so past the given asymtote is 'a' actor negative ad create and destroy energy also when head negatve and body is positive then value postive and slope negative etc. also go K(x) to K(K(x)) to K(K(K(K(x)))) etc. etc. by function unit branch to all signals of other identical function unit then the second function unit branches to all function circuits of the first function unit and a function circuit installs a single function and a unit is a circle of then the last to the first with a parallel circuit all the possibilities!!! now in any kozak equation go F(x) then F(F(x)) then F(F(F(F(x)))) etc. if going liniar to only three F's then then build is go 2^x is B then go lnB/ln2 to get a new B and if 5^x is B then lnB/ln5 for new B etc. then the build is liniar and do this for the mathematics of kozak equations but not the actual function machines now for kqq/(-r*r) sqr(f*r) and sqr(E) is really -sqr(f*r) or -sqr(E) then when going -E*E is e^(-E*E*(r*r+1)) then go negative E*E for both because energy decreases with increasing kqq/r then both E*E's in the equation are now positive also for hyperbola the same thing except it is positive to negative otherwise same as always in hyperbola thus it works but in hyperbola it stays positive and then the kqq/r is positive increasing energy so all positive then then E*E is e^(E*E*(-r*r-1)) then negative thus one is negative one is positive as in repeling turns off at a point then attraction turns on at a point then then point is where radius is small enough and same point for fields or depending on unique constant for each field now if a1+a2 is g*(e^v) minus (k/m)*(e^(v*v)) then intregal of (dt1 plus dt2) or really 2t is intregal of a1+(a2/2(v2) then v1 minus ln(2(v2)) is 2t then v1 is t then a1 is 1 and a2 is (1/2)*e^t then ln(g) is a1 then (1/2)*e^t is (k/m)*e^(v*v) then sqrt(ln(m/(2k)) plus t) then ln(g) plus sqrt(ln(m/(2k)) plus t) is v in terms of t also gv-(k/m)*v*v then ((k/m)*v)/(g-((k/m)*v)) then intregal of -(-1 plus 2g/(g-((k/m)*v))) plus intregal of gv is v then 2(mg/k)/((mg/k)-v)) then intregal is -2(mg/k)*ln((mg/k)-v) then intregal of gv is gd then [v+2(mg/k)*ln((mg/k)-v)]/g is d or distance now go (dddy/d(x^3)) plus (1/2)*y*(ddy/(x^2)) is zero then (dddy/d(x^2))/(-ddy/d(x^2)) is (1/2)*y in terms of (-1/2)*dydy*dx because initially both sides in terms of (-1/2)*ddy then times right side by (-1/2)*(ddy/d(x^2)) then (-1/2)*y*ddy/d(x^2) in terms of (-1/2)*ddy/d(x^2) is (-1/2)*dddy d(x^3) is (-dddy/d(x^2))/(ddy/d(x^2)) then ofcourse the next is (-ddy/dx)/(dy/dx) then -dy/y then -lny is -(1/2)*y and integration added constant so c then c*x then c*x*x/2 then y-2lny is c*x*x now if going cz is y-2lny then cdz/dy is 1-(2/y) but the invert is y/(y-2) then 1+2/(y-2) then integrate to get y-2ln(y-2) then switch to get z-2ln(z-2) then in terms of x to just replace z with x*x now in the far past when I say sqrt(1-sqrt(v) is mass I really mean mass is sqrt(1-4*sqrt(v)) or (1-2sqrt(2v)) or (1-sqrt(4v)) which ever one works the best and then go m*v then go d(mv) and make it correct now T means in terms of now in e^(2m(dm/dv)) is dm/dv then e^(dm/dv)Tdm) is e^(dv) then go ddv or d((dm/dv)Tdm) then for d(m*m)/dv to 2dm/d(v*v) because of ddv then go ddm/d(v*v) so it was right!!! now I messed up royally though all to do is go dm/dv is the following e^((d(m*m))/dv) then go dm*dm/dv (dv understood) is e^(2(d(m*m))/dv) then 2m*dm/dv is e^(4m*dm/dv) then 2m/dv or 2m is the following e^(2m*dm/dv) then both m's have two to cancel substituation effects then m is e^(m*dm/dv) then take it from there you can also try deriving both sides in terms of dm/dv (meaning multiply the e^(2m*dm/dv) side by 2dm/dv and then integrate the left side two multiplied ddm/d(v*v)'s together each to dm/dv and the right side when integrated is once again e^(2*m*dm/dv) again because all of that is required and multiplying both by ddm/d(v*v) then re-writing to get dm*dm/dv is e^(2m*dm/dv) and then go square root for dm/dv is e^(m*dm/dv) then m is e^(m*dm/dv) then take it from there!!! now the reason you integrate on the left side dHdH to HH is because it is in terms of dH not H thus it works and at the same time d(m*m) is really dmdm etc. see both are integratands instead of integrated because again in terms of dH not H thus it makes sense also m+ln(m-1) is v for A then (m-1)/m to 1-1/m or m-ln(m) is v then m is v-ln(v) for B now A is what m is in m is sin(dm/dv) and B is what v is in the m is sin(dm/dv) etc. now c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) times mass then when v is c then go mass is one which means the unit of velocity is c then in 2f is m the unit inertial force is c per time squared then one times Kozak function of inertial force which is the original light speed equation that will accelerate it by c per time squared then 2c per time squared is m/2 for Kozak function of inertial force and 2f since one force to two bodies to split the energy up between the two if masses are equal if not then the energy is uneven but it still comes to total mass is 2f (note I said inertial NOT initial) anyway also remember F(x) then FF(x) then FFFF(x) then FFFFFFFF(x) etc. for the Kozak function also remember the c/(t*t) means m*c*c is energy also the inertial force is c/(t*t) squared which means c is really the unit then c/t is velocity only if out of nowhere mass stays the same then (1/2)*m*v*v or (1/2)*m*c*c then 2f is m so m*c*c!!! now the orginal light speed equation I am talking of is m*m is e^((m*m*v*v)/(c*c)) then the twice would be where M is m/2 and you use M instead of m for the new m thus it would take more overall now why is 2f=m based on change of speed well the kozak equation connects with it the at level two or c/sqrt(c*c-a*a) then it goes change of acceleration do to force then change of change of acceleration just like in the kozak equation then 2f=m then three times the f in 2f=m is 3c acceleration change etc. also if going you must for a function goes F(c)/sqrt(F(c)*F(c)-F(a)*F(a)) or F(c)/sqrt(F(a)*F(a)-F(c)*F(c)) then at the acceleration is still positive since it is squared then with constant force three times in 2f=m then 3F(c) acceleration or change of acceleration etc. and the F(c) can be cx or cv or c*c*x*x or anything now it is a step off when no build then change of velocity when first build change of acceleration when K(K(x)) then change of change of acceleration also in 2f=m the m changes wth x then 2f=x etc. also if standing still with nothing then the issue is change of distance but when moving it becomes change of velocity then the first build or K(x) with change of velocity etc. and it is a step off because veloicty that changes not just velocity etc. now go x is y*y-2ln(y*y-2) is x for invert for dddy + (1/2)*y*ddy is zero and x is y-2lny is x for original and go v is m-ln(m) is v for invert and m+ln(m+1) is v for original for sin(dm/dv) is m and in both of these equations to solve you are looking for m but NOT v see m plays v and v plays m then when inverting switch the variables inside the equations as well then in any invert then 1/derivative and then switch variables and y is m and x is v then the other equation can be solved now in the excitation of energy levels the particle changes speed and the tracer changes frequency relatively to curve gradually from the level to migrate up then the tracer changes frequency again and particle changes speed again to gradually reajust to the new energy level and this all happens in a tiny but finite non zero positive amount of time!!!! the following is a HUGE CORRECTION!!! c+(a/2)*sin(2x) the speed average ratio between the tracer and the particle is the same all the time but the time is warped thus slowing down RELATIVE speed of particle then the APPARENT frequency changes and the ACTUAL amplitude changes then amplitude is larger to slow it down and the frequency is smaller to slow it down then it slows down all in agreement to a liniar then when slow down the ACTUAL frequency slows down and ACTUAL amplitude larger to slow down in aggreement by time going faster but slowing down ACTUAL frequency now ACTUAL amplitude get's smaller to a minimum then gets larger again by relativity and when speed increases amplitude decreases but when time takes over amplitude increases now apply this correction to everything I have said in the past see everything is true except apply this also frequency is inversely proportional to amplitude everything else with these new rules is all true now radius mass and amplitude are all directly proportional only under special conditions but are three separate things also m*v*v is energy but if m is down by liniar and v is up by liniar then energy increases by a linear and if m is up by linear and v is down by linear then energy decreases by linear see frequency is directly proportional to v also remember to put everything together and correct errors now E*E/kqq is negative because of force being kqq/(-r*r) then the effect that makes it negative will go negative -E*E or E*E and in repelling neither negative exists so it is still positive now when energy increases amplitude get's smaller but mass is larger then in non relativity the mass is inversely proportional to amplitude but in relativity it is directly proportional since in non relativity you go (sqrt(c*c-v*v))/c where v get's smaller but then v is at a minimum of zero and get's larger after that but it goes c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) so mass always get's bigger then energy is really A*v*v where A is amplitude but v get's larger to increase energy by a square and amplitude smaller but the extrema then v get's smaller and A larger see the average mass of the tracer is constant so mass is constant then the thing that increases is what I said about the wave and spiral and other stuff a while ago and perhaps recently also mass is always m*c*c but it would be m*c*c regardless anyway by my proofs a while ago so mass is always the same inertia changes by spiral and wave and A*v*v is energy now it makes sense that mass is constant amplitude changes and frequency counter changes and remember the 2f is m then the faster the more work to decelerate it etc. so then radius and amplitude are directly proportional but not mass until relativity then mass also now remember when pushing a spiral and wave the shift of the wave and spiral by frequency and rate of rotation then the spiral is slowing down and wave cycloid slowing down by logic and relativity which right there proves relativity time warp and everything then changing the energy or A*v*v would entail changing the wave and spiral then energy is needed to change it more energy for higher less energy for lower by putting all this together now A*v*v is energy because how far it has to travel to get the tracer so how much force times distance work it is doing thus length is huge or distance and mass then F*D is huge and F comes from m/2 which is the same now F*V is always the same but F*D is not!!! now the inertial force or energy or spiral wave behavior can all define mass as well as all the stuff also m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is m/v1 where ln(k+1) is mv1 then v1 is v2/c for constant then v1 is the moving of object perpendicular to up and down of cycloid wave system and perpendicular to spiral system as well thus go v1 is sqrt(c*c-v*v) so it inverts because mass must be invert of v1 to get energy as m*v1*v1 to get to get energy to increase as frequency increases etc. now below it it goes sqrt(c*c-v*v) because mass is directly proportional to v1 at these points because m*v*v then when v1 increases mass increases because at the maximum it turns from v to v1 in higher velocities because after zero it is one then velocity comes back but it wants to increase further by proportion thus invert now the v is such that mass will increase such that v is liniar etc. so it all depends on what mass and what definition you are talking about for all exert mass forces!!! now FD and Fv varies by force because force is ma but tracer mass is constant then 'a' is v*v/r or r*w*w then say r is one then w is 2*pi*f or frequency thus force increases 'a' by constat times a square and this acceleration shows internal energy now in v1 and v the ln(k+1) is mv1 and mv are both true because one s the compliment of the other now when building liniarly the derivative instantaneous lines curve parabolically when building parabolically fast the derivative lines curve cubically etc. as in intregal and the derivative lines have acceleration graph in place of velocity when building the first head etc. now now the question is why does mass not go to infinity in the kozak equation because the equation IS the same thing with substitution game in the second part well when pushing the spiral and cycloid the instantaneous catches up infinitely fast but when infinitly small lines or really instantaneous lines are curved the spiral changes with respect to source and you go A*v*v then in many conditions mass radius and amplitude are indeed in direct proportion but over here the amplitude decreases to keep the length to preserve the distance in FD so that energy is not changing without a force!!! but at the same time energy wants to increase with a force so frequency up and amplitude down unless in time and mass warp then without the warp you have m*v*v where m is smaller then it's normal self at next instant then the mass never makes it to infinity andd infact is hardly changed when the giant function machine is applied so remember defne mass is inerta define inertia well a lot of things can cause inertia like define gravity will Earth has it Venus has it the Sun has it what is the source as in define noise well a lot of things can cause noise explosions dropping things balloons popping cranes tornadoes rockets launching a lot of things also the mass or inertia particle is an absorbtion particle where how much input for force a lot like a dielectric in a capacitor that is why mass is directly proportional to energy so for tracer mass is constant and for the whole thing mass is increasing with energy!!! now when accelerating in non relativity the mass is constant and big to make it hard to manipulate the waves but the tracer mass is constant but the amplitude mass is decreasing but the cycloid and spiral mass is increasing all the more with high velocity or frequency as in the mass when traveling along the path is the same but the mass along and with respect to the axis is smaller but the whole mass is larger all with larger liniar where the increase out does the decrease and increases the energy that much more in the process of energy now to clarify the axis and sine wave is really the cycloid and if the wave twirls that is the spiral etc. and remember what happens in the cyloid happens in the spiral with exceptions and vice versa with exceptions now tracer is always c is always sqrt(sqr(spiral) plus sqr(cycloid or wave)) now wave is cycloid also everything holds regardless of angle of spiral and cycloid to make a cosine and sine deal also axis is what piral goes around and what cycloid moves parallel and perpendicular to in a circle also spiral and cycloid are always perpendicular now in m is sec(v*v) it is in terms of sqrt(m*m-1) because of m being sec(v*v) also make v squared because the sec(v*v) the v is square and m squared because it is in terms of v which is squared so everythng squares to keep it consistent also dark matter is dense becuase the waves are not preventing the collapses of circling particles also in momentum the kozak relation the m2/m1 is e^(m2v2-m1v1) then if p is momentum and R is ratio of m2/m1 then ln(R) is p2-p1 and you can use that in relativity and the equation would still work if the mass did not decrease like that but you would only get it past light speed for a short time also when forcing the derivatives increase a little more by curve increasing the cycloid and spiral but then that means mass falls by amplitude to not create energy where it should not be created also that is another thing the reason mass must decrease is so energy is not being created where it should not be and this non creation is in everything about the energy of spiral and cycloid also so if mass were trying to go for infinite then the amount of energy created where it should not be created would be huge!!! and this non create where it should not create is in everything now in dark matter and all matter has waves it just that the wave nature is tiny in most matter or dark matter but in this matter the waves are unusually large also the waves are c plus (K(a/2))*sin(2x) when K is tiny or large etc. also the original reality is Krcx and non wave non reality is Krc where the constants can be tiny or large etc. now without wave it is rc or dc d is r then with wave because of frequency and amplitude and time warp it is cd/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or cd/v1 or ct1 or c*c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or c when v goes to zero so mass approaches a constant now for you go c*a*t1 or c*v then zero so as v goes to zero force is zero also as r goes to infinity 'a' goes to zero then force is zero since v*v/r is zero but this all is only with the waves also kqq/r for energy because m*v*v/r or m*a is force then m*v*v is energy then r*m*v*v is constant now r is proportional to m directly and v*v is really (c*c-v1*v1) but rm is (c*c-v1*v1) thus a constant then kqq/r is energy and fd/d is kqq/(r*r) is force but the q changes liniarly but insignificantly then see the equations for this a while ago then force would be cdd/(c*c-v*v) then c*c*t1*t1 is c*c then force times distance is kqq/r and force is kqq(r*r) so no matter what energy is kqq/r and force is kqq/(r*r) now in barrier be sure to go -E*E but E decreases making E*E decrease thus E*E thus everything works only with the waves to cause the c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) relativity now the fact that frequency increases energy squared and energy id FD where d is length or sine wave is why all the relativity now time warp is because the mass and v1 are inverts by amplitude frequency situation by energy thus mass is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and mass sluggishes time thus time is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) thus waves and tracers cause relativity there would be non of that without the waves and then it would not make sense how things would behave!!! now in the frequency motor machine when not syncronized yet the brushes signal one simple rectifier with waves and then the negative simple rectifier then it sincronizes by arcsine derive and simple rectify then phase then when down and up with brushes there is no falling out of syncrony and the brushes signal layer signal both signals of freeze circuit then the unit current is already on thus the motor circit stays in syncrony and negative or positive phase shift is negative or positive on the freeze circuits thus infinite syncrony now have a sin(Kx) and sin(Gx) and if K/G is less then Q then signal the system the brushes do to make it speed up but signal the swop from brushes if K/G bigger then Q where K is frequency in motor G is frequency in incident electricity and Q is frequency unit and frequency of everybody when everything is syncronized now in all circuits you can either have both ends on the same wire or one end on one wire ad one end on the other wire of the same circuit or whatever te possibilities are endless!!! now in mass approaching a constant higher up then velocity must approaches a constant down lower and this is all ofcourse the phenomina of two attractive bodies leaving each other also the FD is D times K where K is a constant of what energy per amplitude ad frequency and in light that is why higher frequency is more energy and energyy cannot change when FD is the same because F times 1/K and this is why light always goes c and this also means higher frequency is higher energy now other particles do not have the F times 1/K then that is why there is a change of velocity and the larger the K the larger the mass and also frequency also some particles are naturally above light speed because they have 1/K and ofcourse 1 now in the nforcforce timesergy the force times distance is varied but force times time is not making mass times velocity constant which makes sense by ln(K+1) is mv now the exponentnent is appraoching zero then if K<1 then particle above light speed coming down then if K>1 then particle below ligt speed coming up but in both casaes appraoching light speed now expoent appraoches zero because when increasing speed light speed is perpendicular or -1/x then that is the exponent by kozak equation

Saturday, March 26, 2016

equation corections and other things

now in the a is [g-(k/m)*(v^N)]/(dvdv) then g dt plus v/N but N is n+2 then multiply the dvdv to get intregal of dvdt is gt-v/N where D is distance then v is gt-D/N then work from there now then you are going N-2 thus the exponent of v of beginning equation is greater then two and all the way to infinite see anything 2 or less will be a negative to make velocity increase to decrease gas resistance but it shouldn't see velocity should increase gas resistence!!! now how does m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) go to infinity and not m*m is e^((m*v*v)/(c*c)) well neither goes to infinity but in one case force is way under mass as a constant but in the other force is way ubove mass in kozak method see when mass supposedly tries to go to infinity it never gets there in constant force but also it supposedly tries in kozak but again never gets there!!! also mass is finitely fast it cannot hit infinite with a finite force regardless of methods!!! now in (1-sin(a))*ln(cos(x)) when going reverse of intregal then sin(-a) then -ln(cos(x)) is intregal of tan(x) then sin(a) is negative to make it positive but in the 1 just go reverse of intregal to get -1 then ofcourse ln(cos(x)) to get positive again but for 1 it was ln(cos(-x)) then that returned it to positive to get negative 1 again thus pendulum is 1+ln(1+cos(x)) now in (1/x)/sqrt(1-x*x) square to (1/(x*x))/(1-x*x) then it is -1/x so (1/(x*x))/(x*x-1) then (1/x)/sqrt(x*x-1) and in ((1/x)*(1/x))/(1-(1/x)*(1/x)) it is -1/x but the arccos(x) is -1/sqrt(1-y*y) so it stays the same thus same result now m is 1/sqrt(1-f*f) then that can kozak thus one head is kozaked identical to its body also remember the 'a' factor is c velocity in body kozaked but when K(K(x)) then the 'a' factor is the line acceleration in velocity is the 'a' factor and it can be depending on function of head F(a) factor to F(cx) to get the line etc. also in the (-1+sin(a))*ln(cos(x)) the reverse and sin(a) is to positive then the ln(cos(x)) is to negative (1-sin(a)) for 1 minus by reverse of integral and then no sin(a) then negative the whole thing is (-1+sin(a))*ln(cos(x)) then switch everything back!!! so then intregal adds a constant of one then 1+ln(2) because the 1 at everything is one the time is one see go pi/2 times sqrt(L/g) then when the total is to ln2 ad L is g then the fall should be one!!! so minus all reverses and mirrors it should be one!!! as in I am falling one unit g is one L is one then the time is one!!! but this is at the bottom when the swing is virtually zero!!! see the ln(cos(x)) was not integrated for the sin(a) but for 1 then intregal of (-sin(-x))/(cos(-x)) then reverse but for sin(a) just negative (sin(a) is reverse intregal to reverse angle thus 'a' is still positive) then sin(a)*ln(cos(-x)) then that is negative but keeps negative because ln(cos(-x) is ln(cos(x) now ln(1+sin(-x)) well keep it like that and switch back to go ln(1+cos(-x)) or ln(1+cos(x)) otherwise it will not make sence to go ln(0)!!! then switch back now for now go cos(-x)/sin(-x) then keeps negative so everyone adopts (-x) THIS HAS BEEN A CORRECTION!!! now in the function machine a unit beginning and end attached to signal with another to function circuit or attach a unit to branch to signals of another unit and then the body unit is attached branch to another unit etc. but also you can take a body unit and attach that to signal running unit or to signals of body unit with a unit for body the endless possibilities and this is each head is a new body!!! then the derivative lines curve!!! now -k+ln(m*m) is e^(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) by intregal plus constant effect then ln(m*m) is e(m*m*(v*v-v*v))/(c*c)) or 1 then 1+k is e^(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) then c*sqrt(ln(1+k)) is m*v but c*sqrt(ln(1+k)) is a constant!!! now in the v1+(a/2)*(sin(2x)) IS the average axis velocity and changes with v1 and the rest of that it is the average velocity for tracer that stays the same also in e^(-t/N) go g*e^(-t/N) (g is one in orignal equation) but if not do that also distance in terms of time is therefore Ngt-N((m/k)*(g-g*e^(-t/N))))^(1/N) now you must go N-2 then anything square or under for v it will not work also for the 2u/(1+u*u) then v is 2u*e^(-v*u*u) then the partial intregal to constraint v because you want u for a given v and blackholes are finite but the activities are kozak patterns because or the circular nature to induce circular substitution characteristic of kozak equations now in tracer go c+(a/2)*(si(2x)) then c s light speed and v1 is cx/y then for engolfer cxx/(yy) etc. now higher frequency increases v1 not decrease and for increase go plus y-x but x/y is constant and decreases axis speed but x and y are not constants also in light no x and no y thus photon is always light speed!!! and tracer is always light speed on the average!!! also different frequencies can have same axis average speed and tracer always same lght speed!!! now when I say -ln(csc(20)+(cot(0)) or -ln(cos(20)+(cot(0)) or anything like this I either mean -ln(csc(0)+cot(0)) or -ln(csc(20)+cot(20)) or something like that also use a constant in x/y and y-x and anything now in cos(v) plus sin(v) in sin(v) go d(m*m)/(m*m-1) is d(-v*v) then go dm/sqrt(m*m-1) is idv then iv is arccosh(m) then m is equal to (e^(iv)) plus (e^(-iv)) all devided by 2 then for cos(v) go d(-m*m)/(1-(-m*m)) now -m*m at bottom and top because of (1-sine*sine) is cosine*cosine and the 1+sinh(iv) is cosh(iv) to account for the one then d(m*m)/(1+m*m) then dm/sqrt(1+m*m) is idv then arcsinh(m) is iv then (e^(iv)) minus (e^(iv)) all devided by two then added together is e^(iv) is cos(v) plues sin(v) thus I defined an imaginary number with a real number!!! also i is sqrt(-1) also remember the conversion thus e^(iv) is cos(2(pi)v) plus sin(2(pi)v) pi is ratio of diameter to circle the i in pi is not the same as the i in iv the i in pi is just a letter!!! now for y-x divide by a constant larger then one see the curve wants to speed the wave up because of difference and use constants in everything where necessary!!! now in the when u is zero then 2u/(1+u*u) is zero as in 20/(1+0*0) or 20/1 or 20 or 0 where 0 is zero also you want u at a given v to get the velocity as in partial integration then the u at v is partial derivative then p is partial then pu/pv times dv/dt plus pv/pu times du/dt then it is such that the angle in one end makes one end zero and other times one (cos(pi/2) verse sin(pi/2)) because u is perpendicular then perpendicular again to v and it is going in the v favor then at velocity is parallel u is parallel to v the thus the situation also in going v go cos(0) or one!!! also in y-x divided by constant greater then one it is simple (4v-2v)/k where k is larger then one to add to the velocity also x/y is always 1/2 also a higher frequency is larger v thus the angle or axis velocity is higher!!! which is different from ratio of length to axis!!! now when going d(arccosh(arccos(x)))/d(arccos(x)) times d(arccos(x))/d(x) times d(arccosh(arccos(arccosh(arccos(x)))))/d(arccos(arccosh(arccos(x)))) times d(arccos(arccosh(arccos(x))))/d(arccosh(arccos(x))) etc. then for invert function invert all derivatives to get d(v)/d(sec(v*v)) times d(v)/d(sec(v*v)) times d(v)/sec(v*v) times d(v)/sec(v*v) etc. then d(sec(v*v))^2n etc. then because you are integrating each whe you should be integrating the whole thing the Kozak vector rule says you can go (sec(v*v))^2n etc. then when v is one go 2^n etc. for dimensions etc. see arccosh(arccos((x))) is really F(x) is really z where F(y) is really -1/y then go d(sec(F(z)*F(z)))/dz times d(sec(x*x)/dx then z is really F(x) then when you do that you must use the Kozak vector rule to integrate each seperately because the functions are such that the normal equals the area and the functions are perpendicular all becauuse the chain rule says to simplify but to do that you must go perpendicular!!! now do not get confused -1/x is perpendicular to x but THAT perpendicular is just a coincidence!!! now when going c^I/sqrt((c^I)-(v^I)) where I is infinity then go e^m*m*((v-v+(v^2)+(v^4)+(v^8) etc.)/(c*c)) by c/sqrt(c-v) times c/sqrt(c+v) times c/sqrt((c^4)+(v^4)) etc. then that is e^(m*m*(v^I))/(c*c)) then m*m is sqrt(0^(I)) or sqrt(1) or 1 then (c^I)/sqrt((c^I)-(v^I)) is one!!! also in k*q*q/(r*r) is m*v*v/r then kqq/r is mvv then q is proportional to mass thus ck/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is v*v*d (d is really r) then ck/(v*sqrt(c*c-v*v)) is v*d now dt/dv (since t is mass pattern wise) then that is c*c*v/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)^(3/2)) is really 'a' then 1/a is really t*t*t*v/c then d*t*t/c is 1/a then d is really c/(a*t*t) then go v*c/(a*t*t) but distance is also a*t*t thus a circle thus v*c is ck/(v*sqrt(c*c-v*v)) then go dt/dv to turn from t to v then t*t/2 is (k)*ln(v+sqrt(c*c-v*v)) thus sqrt(2k*ln(v+sqrt(c*c-v*v))) is negative time by intregal constant then by attraction!!!!! see the intantaneous was the equation to be integrated!!! also c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is really c/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)) now why is distance constant well the radius of a circle does not change but in the change then it is integrated where the circle is and instantaneous state now if kqq/(r) where q didn't change then c*v*v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is kqq/(v*t) then intregal of kqq/(v*v*t) is intregal of c*v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is intregal of k*q*q/(v*v) is intregal of c*c*v/(c*c-v*v) then intregal of kqq/(t*t) dt is intregal of c*c*v*a/(c*c-v*v) dv/dt dv then ln(c*c-v*v) is kqq/t then sqrt(c*c-c*c*(e^(-kqq/t))) is v!!! thus it approaches c as t approaches zero but at t is infinity sqrt(1-x*x) is one thus x*x is zero thus x is zero!!! in the other one when v (v/c turned to x) so when v is c then time is zero then at time is infinity then (x+sqrt(1-x*x) is zero also go x/sqrt(2) because the instantaneous derivative is x then the height or intregal is x/sqrt(2) then x*x/2 is 1-(x*x/2) then x*x is 1 then x is one or v is c!!! for attraction it is -kqq/r for repulsion it is kqq/r so when time freezes the speed will be zero if charge does not change but if it does it will bee c!!! Um I think speed is c so charge does change!!!! thus fields and sister fields will change in proportion to mass now c/v is sec(0) and c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is csc(0) then c*d(x)/d(0) is -sin(0) then negative for attraction then intregal sec(0) then ln(x+sqrt(1-x*x)) minus ln(x*sqrt(1-x*x)) all divided by x therefore it is minus ln(zero)/x or ln(infinity)/infinity which is zero so left with x*x/2 is 1-x*x/2 and ln(1)/x is zero slight correction but still it is charge and fields and sister fields changing as I already said also conclusion is 2*k*ln(m-v1) is t*t where c/v is -v1 perpendicular and m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then if m is one and v1 is zero then t is zero and if m is infinity and v1 is c then t is infinity then this one is true and fields change now in ln(1-x*x) is kqq/(t) then 1-x*x is e^(-kqq/t) then when t is zero v is c Um possibly and when t is infinity v is zero Um no so the charge and any field must be changing THESE WERE CORRECTIONS!!! now the second is true time is zero when v1 is zero and mass is one and time is infinite when v1 is c and mass is infinite Um yes!!!! now if intregal of t dt is ck/(v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) then go t dt is (1/c)*k/(x*sqrt(1-x*x)) then dv/dx or c then 2k*ln(x+sqrt(1-x*x)) is t*t then take it from there!!! also a circle for instantaneous circle not actual circle!!! now some of the c's may be where they should NOT be so I am correcting it and some may NOT be where they should be now if c*v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is kqq/(v*v) then x/sqrt(1-x*x) is kqq/(x*x) see the x is v/c then dv/dx is c then cancel the c's then integrate by dx thus it all works!!! because the c's cancel out and now I think I have it fixed now k is 8.988 times 10^9 if I said any different I said wrong now ln(m-v1) is t*t/(2k) then m is e^(t*t/(2k)) plus v1 the v1 is sqrt(c*c-v*v) then turn one of the t's to m since m and t are both c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and make the exponent negative by attraction and not repulsion then e^(-mt/(2k)) is m-v1 then antikozaked is m is 2k/(2k+t) minus v1 then and any time I go from m is F(v) to m is G(mv) or something like that it is kozaked if the other way then antikozaked anyway if time is zero then go 2k/2k and if mass is one which it is then v must be c!!! now both sides of the equation turn from sqrt(c*c-v*v) to sqrt(1-x*x) then the c's cancel on both sides then mass is one at time is zero then when v is zero mass is zero when time is zero thus it all makes sense!!! also when mass is one v s c!!! but the time would have to be zero!!! now in c/sqrt(c*c-a*a) instead of c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) etc. you want intregal of K(K(x)) because acceleration asymtote is a liniar instead of horizontal thus an intregal then K(K(x)) times K'(x) also in pendulum the sin(a)*ln(sec(x)+tan(x)) 'a' is negative and reverse intregal to keep it positive but then sin(a)*ln(1+sin(-x)) plus (1-sin(a))*intregal((sin(-x))/(cos(-x))) then reverse intregal then -sin(-x) then sin(x) then (-1+sin(a))*ln(cos(x) plus sin(a)*ln(1+sin(-x)) then plus two by plus constant intregal then this whole this is added to (1-sin(a))*ln(cos(x)) plus sin(a)*ln(1+sin(-x)) thus zero plus 2*sin(a)*ln(1+sin(-x)) but then switch it back to get 2*cos(a)*ln(1+cos(x)) then the two from constant effect to 2 plus 2*ln(1+cos(x)) then then max it pi/2 is 2+2ln(2) so this is the pendulum and light speed equations also the (1-sin(a))*ln(cos(x)) the sin(a) and reverse and intregal of (-sin(-x))/(cos(-x)) now there are no intregal reverses and no reverses sign of 'a' and there are no reverses of sign of x but there is the ln(cox(x)) then (sin(x))/(cos(x)) that becomes negative ln(cos(x)) because when switched it is negative thus (-1+sin(a))*ln(cos(x)) then switched back is (-1+cos(a))*ln(sin(x)) see I did the intregal once when not switched and once when switched first I integrated then I switched then integrated then switched back thus the entire swing forward is 2+2*(sin(a))*ln(1+cos(x)) is 1+ln(2) so whole swing is 1+2*ln(2) constant add integrate effect see I made it twice then twice more then 1/2 again because of the thing I had to do to cancel out the problem thus 1+2*ln(2) final times 2*pi*sqrt(L/g) thus final answer now remember how particles in basic reality stay in a circle to stay lght speed with respect to each other then the collapse would change it and the explosion would change it so the circle stays against collapse and explode unless it is infinitely fast to establish a new circle now move to non reality then wave non reality thus te waves conntrol these things and must be a whole number of waves to fit and only certain whole numbers because the energy and barriers everything must agree also remember the rc is because further away light speed acceleration is all the smaller meaning the mass must be greater then go all the way to wave non reality for everything now in the 'a' is g-(k/m)*(v^n) then go from dt to dv/da then dv/da times -(k/m)*(v^N) is -(k/m)*(v^N)/-[(k/m)*(d(v^n))*(dvdv)] or v/N then the dvdv is for g and 'a' where 'a' becomes dvdt but g is dvdt times dt/dv or dtdt then v is gt-v/N see dv/da is a negative to minus the v/N then take it from there etc. also is it possible that the universe is moving in orbit to a larger system or binary to a smaller or larger twin universe or are we one big blackhole or even a cylinder or point or point turning into a cylinder etc. now go v*v/(v*v) then go -(k/m)*v^N times dv/da divided by dvdv then multiply whole equation by dvdv and v/N divided by dvdv then multiply then take it from there now if x*y then K(x)*K(y) if x/y then K(x)/(K(y)) and if x*F(t) then F(t)*(K(x)) t can be x or y or anything etc. also the pendulum earlier was simply corrected now when I really mean is 1+sqr(sinh(x)) is sqr(cosh(x)) and the squares instead of liniars to make it right now in the K(x)'s and K(y)'s addition as well as multiplication etc. also when antikozak do same of what you do to the m that is alone and when kozaking do them the opposite etc. there are many ways and equations for this

Monday, March 7, 2016

review corrections and new theories

in increased frequency the curve derivative parallels the axis that much more often to increase speed along axis now in frequency go [sqrt(c*c-z*z)]/c where z will decrease then go c/sqrt(c*c-z*z) where z will get larger and the minimum is where the eccentricity is sqrt(k/2) then then k is when one paticle is infinite mass when zero then zero mass when in between non-zero finite mass now in relay when I say expo(whatever) I mean the unit currents of all the freezer circuits all over the relay in rcycles everywhere except the insides of the power converters and other exceptions also in recent -x+lnx I really ment -x+xlnx now in negative intregal of s dc and intregal of c ds derive first by dc and second by ds because perpendicular then -s is c and -mvs is mvc as long and line is a normal and is perpendicular to area now when going c/(i*sqrt(v*v-c*c)) then it progresses to m*m is e^(m*m*v*v*i/(c*c)) then square root and re lable as m and v then m is e^(mvi/(c*c)) then dm/m is i*dm*dv/(c*c) then d(m*m)/(m*m) is -dm*dm*dv*dv/(c*c) then dm/(m*m) is -dm*dv*dv/(c*c) then -1/m is -m*v*v/(c*c) then 1/m is m*v*v/(c*c) then 1/(m*m) is v*v/(c*c) then 1/m is v/c and c/v is m then c is the unit thus invert velocity so pass light speed will invert the velocity then everything happens on other side invertly as in c/sqrt(c*c-z*z) now becomes sqrt(z*z-c*c)/c but the z changes or may not change also in a way to make velocity before equal 1/v after because of the other invert theory thus time will go to zero then decrease mirror graph backwards now in m*m is e^(m*m*cos(0)) I really mean m*m is (cos(0))*e^(m*m*cos(0)) now either go d(xy)/d(t*t) which is (d(xy)/d(squares)) or dd(xy)/d(t*t) which is (dd(xy)/d(t*t)) the number of tiy gaps in the dd(xy) is the number of squares in the area thus where ging [dvxdw] you go d(m*v) cross product first and dot product second now m is sin(mi) then dm/sqrt(1-m*m) is mi then dmdm/(1-m*m) is -m*m then -ln(1-m*m) is -m*m then 1-m*m is e^(m*m) then replace ad rename 1-m is e^(m) then sqrt(1+e^(2m)) is length of curve then sqrt(1+z*z) where z is m-1 then partial is z*sqrt(1+z*z) minus intregal of 1/(1+z*z) then z*sqrt(1+z*z) minus arcsinh(z) all divided by two now invert is where (4v+2)/2v is 2+1/v and the 2 becomes zero becuase the minumum changes it by 2 see the frequency will after the minimum the frequency decreases the velocity because the velocity wants only light speed and so the axis is trying to increase liniarly so then the ofteness will hinder more then help also minimum is sqrt(k/2) so things get really phenominal!!! now in -mvs and mvc I really mean -MVs and MVc M is value of m and V is value of v anywhere else when I say m I mean m and when I say v I mean v with maybe more exceptions also when time goes to c*sqrt(2) it goes c/sqrt(2*c*c-c*c) then it goes to one then when speed hits 2c it starts all over as c/sqrt(c*c-z*z) so sqrt(1) to sqrt(2) to sqrt(4) to sqrt(7) to sqrt(11) etc. as in c/sqrt(c*c-z*z) then c/sqrt(2*c*c-z*z) then c/sqrt(c*c-z*z) then c/sqrt(2*c*c-z*z) etc. now you can go sin(x+a) where 'a' is the wave difference between amplitudes and also injection into power head freezer also go 2*(sine*sine+cosine*cosine) then add waves then arcsine then derive then invert then bring to zero by diodes and larger currents just large enough to take out the light waves then the waves are gone but the sound wave did not invert that much so it remains then re-invert to get sound waves then the sound waves lost some of themselves and light waves gone also in the rifle or liniar accelerator be sure to go a*sin(v) where v increases and 'a' also increases but make 'a' 1/v thus the light will change frequency also in energy d(d(v*t*t)/d(v))/dt is d(d(v*t*t)/dt)/dv is 2t then the v must be t then mttvv is mcc because c*c/(c*c-v*v) times (c*c-v*v) then dv/dt is 'a' is one then m is t is v and 'a' is one then then mcc is fvvtt (f is force) then fdvt is mcc then fdtt is mcc then d(fdtt)/d(tt) is mcc (by tt because partial derivatve goes to fd then fd is d(mcc)/dt then mcc is really the total energy accumulated in the speeding up thus Einstein was definitely on to something!!! now the intregal of intregal of AB dd(xy) then go intregal of intregal of AABB/2 dd(AB)/(dxdy) or dAdB/(dxdy) now dmdm is dd(m*m) but the number of intregals goes down one then d(m*m) is equivalent to dmdm also d(0)/d(s) is 1/sqrt(1-s*s) or 1/c and d(s)/d(0) is c then c times 1/c is one and x*x dy/dx is 2x and dx/dy where x is sqrt(y) is 1/2*sqrt(y) or 1/2x then 2x times 1/2x is again one etc. it is always one!!! also when going e^(m*m) (where v is c) then m*m is e^(m*m) then m*m is e^(e^(m*m) then m*m is e^(e^(e^(e^(m*m)))) etc. then the liniar climb is c per second squared now is there a minimum well derivative is m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) (the derivative of sqrt(c*c-v*v) is -v/(c*c-v*v)) anyway go cv/[(c*c-v*v)*(1.5)] it is positive with a minimum thus the one is a minimum see how much of this over how much time so the velocity literally goes liniar since the mass and force stay constant proportion thus liniar velocity increase or constant acceleration then if m*m is e^(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) where v is (1/2)*c then the acceleration is c/2 per second etc. and acceleration c per second squared that is the minimum energy required now the head goes like the body then the acceleration is all this changed to 'a' with the acceleration one unit function for v is c also the rate of build is also important so if building faster the the minimum drops like all the other values!!! twice as fast build is acceleration 2c per second squared for the original minimum then the one to one is half as much!!! and if the function is not e^(x*x) but something else say e^(e^(m*m)) then the z being functioned on is now F(z) or e^(z) then the head is (e^z)!!! then the rate is F(z) thus the energy can really be messed with!!! now when I said E is pc plus mcc I really ment E is K plus mcc see pc is really (1/2)*(mvv) then if doing perpendicular movement in sine wave or spiral then go FTv or pc then the vectors go sqr(mcc) plus sqr(pc) is sqr(E) now in the corrections now acceleration is [(1-v*v/(c*c))^(1.5)]*F/m then {[sqrt(c*c-v*v)]^3}/(c^3) times F/m is all acceleration then 1/m is [sqrt(c*c-v*v)]/c then [(c*c-v*v)/(c*c)]^2 times force is acceleration then f/(m^4) is acceleration then f/[(mt)^2] is 'a' then sqrt(f/a) is mt then sqrt(fa) is mv then fa is (mv)^2 the attf is instantaneous fd (tt because the square effect of (mv)^2) is the total energy then the instantaneous situation is f/m and the total acceleration is f/(m^4) so in derivative it is still acceleration being force/mass!!! CORRECTION!!! now the rate of build reduces time then head building changes time per increase the v changes increase the when building the head it makes c/sqrt(c*c-a*a) instead of c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) etc. and the function head type makes the acceleration or acceleration of acceleration etc. depending F(x) instead of x thus this all works together to mess with energy and time!!! now in the g-(k/m)*(v^n) is 'a' then da/dv is -(k/m)*n*(v^(n-1)) then g*(dv/da) plus v/n is dvdv/dadt or dv then v is (gt and the dv/da is -1/[(k/m)*n*(v^(n-1))]) gt plus d/n (all in terms of t) then negatify both sides (-v+gt)*n is d then this is (-a+g)*n is v then '-a/n' is d(a)/dt then 'a' is e^(-t/n) or really g-(k/m)*(v^n) is e^(-t/n) but a little algebra will solve velocity in terms of time then ((m/k)*(g-e^(-t/n)))^(1/n) now remember the v1+(a/2)*sin(2x) then the average axis velocity stays the same but the v1 changes with frequency also go fm/(m*ttt) then integrate to velocity then distance then the derivative I took then f/m!!! now in cos(0)*e^(m*m*cos(0))) go 1/y then divide by cos(0) then 2*csc(20) then integrate to get negative or -ln((csc(20))+(cot(0))) this will make repeated intregals as well also go v is velocity in magnetism go AB is dE/dt then f/(qv) or (kqq/(r*r))/(qv) times A or area or r*r then kq/(v) is power or Fv then derive to get kq/d is Fa then kq/a is fd or E then kq/a is (1/2)*sqr(kq/v) then 1/a is (1/2)*kq/(v*v) then v*v/kq is a/2 then r*c*v*v/((rc)*(kq)) thus a/2 is ma/(ckq) then 1/2 is m/ckq then m/q is constant which means mass and charge are proportional liniarly in some twisted way!!! now kq/sqrt(c*c-z*z) is power then we are going in terms of realtivity as well as just nember of particles and relativity especially if I derived it thus when mass get's larger toward light speed or for whatever speed thus when closer to speed of light change and magnetism increase in liniar proportion to mass!!! now the cylinder time lapses so that it looks like there is more than one cylinder same for finite tracers but with finite tracers or really waves or really lobes now the time lapse for finite tracer is 1/finite with finite number of appearant finite tracers and the cylinder is 1/(infinite) with infinite number of cylinders but cylinders are 1/(infinite) hard to accelerate whereas finite tracers are 1/(finite) hard to accelerate (cylinders are 1/(infinite) tracers) the strobe effect is when out of phase by a certain amount to make it look like the waves or cylinders are moving then the cylinders phase shift by finite and strobe phase change is infinitely fast by nature of time lapse then the tracers get a 1/(infinite) phase change thus the finite waves appear to move finitely fast and smooth motion and the cylinders appear to move infinitely fast and each can go clockwise or counterclockwise now time lapse is the cylinder moving ahead of itself time wise to make it appear to be in more than one position same wth tracers and number of positions for tracers finite number but for cylinders infinite number!!! now the angle of wobble shift should always be F(sin(x)) or F(cos(x)) x is one to one liniar now when making other particles they copy and are right in phase do to "DNA" passing effect also many types of these now for life or "FORCE" particle the function is F(x) x is anything thus infinite number of different types of life or "FORCE" particles thus the right mixture is an individual!!! now in the spiral when only spiral or only cycloid the limits are finite also in the axises of large tracers or really original particles to waves or lobes to huge engolfer version of particle same stories also they axises get perpendicular then the angles are the same between all axises of the same shell also when the lobes of huge stop (for any particle not just protons and electrons) anyway of huge stop then that means a zero minimum then that means a barrier is reached also the small particles and cylinders cannot have different energy levels otherwise the cylinders are also zero to make mass altogether zero!!! also the engolfers can be zero since it does not mean the tracers and cylinders are zero and remember the tracers go h as a minimum then the cylinders go minimum h*infinite ad for max c for cylinders and c*infinite for cylinders also in orbitals the cylinders go a relative to tracers at orbital level cylinders are opposite the outer engolfer but tracers same and at subshells the clockwise to clockwise then switch to clockwise to counterclockwise then the shell is everyone is opposite then also the lobe sizes determine distance and the same kind of story happens in nucleus then n magnetism sometimes the agreement is narrow as in the cylinders and tracers for both all go the same way thus magnetism also there is cylinder tracers finite tracers and large particle finite tracers and that is it thus these theories can be applied to gravity magnetism and nucleo magnetism but remember what I said about these!!! CORRECTION the tracer lobe height is always 1/h the distance from radius h depending on the particle and h is usually huge also the engolfers lobes are the same size as the tracers lobes also the cylinders when switching and the tracer when switching in gravity they never happen right on each other until a large distance and there is only one barrier thus the gravity is not discrete energy levels and same in nuclear if that is the only barrier also in a perfect sphere the cylinders at all ties attract or repel to make no finite tracers thus dark matter has rediculously strong reactions since cylinders always parallel but the cylinders still go infinitely fast with a smaller infinite number but the product is much more finite energy!!! also the lobes point from the center because of repeling effect but still distance from axis times 1/h thus the surface of a particle is wavy but it is much easier to see an atom or even a particle then these waves!!! now these waves are light waves in a photon particle but the waves in light can get to meters in length and high amplitude but ofcourse these have no mass and ofcourse lack the mass particle now the slowness is when frequency is lost and therefore velocity but amplitude is larger until the velocity is zero but the amplitude is to average t a slowest velocity see the wave cannot dip below the line otherwise it would be gong backwads!!! and v1+(a/2)*(sin(2x)) where the v1 without wave influence is c or light speed also light stays at light speed because it does not listen to the waves but when the waves are touching the bottom to amplitude adds to velocity frequency adds less velocity in light since sqrt(sine*sine+cosine*cosine) then the waves only get so large in wavelength and frequency then the relativity tells less to be added to and amplitude increase whole thing in reverse but from v to c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) also no mass means the waves are ineffective in its velocity of average speed of light!!! now when I say intregal of 1/(m*(m*m-1)) is arcsec(v) or intregal of 1/(m*(1-m*m)) I really mean arcsec(0) is intregal of 1/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) and possibly this in other situations also in these situations I may sometimes mean 1/(m*(1-m*m)) or sometmes mean 1/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) etc. but usually I mean intregal of 1/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) also all these formulas integrated of not sqrt or not m*m-1 or 1--m*m are possible also in (1/(x*x))/sqrt((-1/x)(-1/x)-1) then (1/x)/sqrt(1-x*x) then with an i go (1/ix)/(i*sqrt(x*x-1)) because square of x negatifies to get sec(x) then in arccosh of arccos is (sec(x))^(2x) the 2^x!!! and after both at once s -1/x thus he dimension theories!!! now in each of all powersteppers treat all the same including before huge amplitude tiny frequency sine wave to after sqrt(sine*sine+cosine*cosine) with maybe exceptions for all treatment of power steppers also in the brain waves the radio machine can be used to track distinct brain waves and only respond to say the Presidents brain waves!!! also the nsulation can be equal to the layer signal level of insulation so that the power head will copy the waves exactly!!! but do not forget you can use many sine wave machines to inject into the power head or combnations into the power head!!! now when going s*s is e^(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) and z*z is e^(s*s*v*v/(c*c)) the first situation attacks the first body and the second situation attacks the second body or first head see go e^m then e^e^(e^e^m) etc. because the s is ahead then way ahead etc. also v determines what liniar is approached thus everything has there own determination!!! now how is v=2u/(1+u*u) well (v0-u)/(1-u*u) whch means go c/sqrt(c*c-u*u) then times mt is c*c/(c*c-v*v) then 1/(1-x*x) then you want the diffference so V0-u for how much velocity changed then the (v0-u)/(1-v0*u) and c is unit then u is negative then (v0+u)/(1+v0*u) then v0 is u then the start is u thus v is 2u/(1+u*u) so if starting at u or really the velocity c at stationary and add the velocity then with the proof you can say velocity is zero when reaching infinite!!! now if one radian per second in a circle and starts at 2pi or zero then at infinite time it hits pi/4 radians and if circle and one radian per second squared acceleration then infinite time then t will be at pi/4 radians and etc. since t does not matter how fast ones in tangent add and in an ellipse or any shape still pi/4 radians since the amount does not change radians as in twice distance 1/4 force then m*v*v/r then m*v*v/r is 1/4 then 1/r means 1/8 then m is twice by rc and v is twice thus the angular is the same!!! now rc because when twice distance the angular acceleration is 1/2 by radius then velocity same by relative same then mass is twice!!! becuase angular is the same becuase same situation!!! now do not forget in Kozak equation negative [intregal of [intregal of AB dA/dx dx] dB/dy dy] then multiply dA/dx for inner and dB/dy for outer then negative intregal of intregal of AB dAdB and for normal do similiar as in inregal of AB dAB/dxy dxy then dxy/dAB dAB thus intregal of AB dAB thus the Kozak equation works!!! now if angular speed or whatever is the same then v or whatever must change but in relativity v or whatever changes so in these cases one was hypothetical the other real but if changing v or whatever then if v or whatever is not one then the pi/4 rule changes and acceleration or change of acceleration is part of whatever etc. so rate of adding ones in tangent is irrelevant but amout to change one is relevant!!! now in the barrier to zero shift tracers and tracing cylinders the cylinders go from infinite to zero to infinte again by nature of the change of object small by infinite now the reason x=y in the Kozak equation to set the stage for proving that mvc is -mvs is because we are assuming the normal equals the area in all typical cross product situations and ofcourse the normal is the perpendicular vector to the area now when going [dvxdw] then go d(m*v) because in two vectors ai+bj+0k and ci+dj+0k then ad and cd must be derivatives see do not go (a)*d(d) and (c)*d(b) that would not completely derive the i ad j values but d(ad) does and d(cb) does thus the formula I am saying first cross then derive to get that then do the other way and keep this in mind this is important so deriving both vectors or deriving the area as a whole as in deriving the vectors and crossing or crossing and deriving the area see dx/dt times dy/dt is d(t*t) which is dtdt same thing except d(t*t)/d(t*t) is one or one times one and for d(x*y) times dz/dt then x is t*t and y is t and z is t also then d(t*t*t)/d(t*t*t) is dt/dt or all one now if going d(2*x) then go d(2*t)/d(2*t) etc. see the cross to an area t derive in terms of the area or derive in terms of the crosses then get the area etc. also go T is t*t then d(t*t*t)/dt derived is 3*t*t then go d(T*T*T)/dT is 3*T*T the sqare gets treated like the liniars also go f(x*x) and (2*f(x*x))*(f'(x*x))/[(2*f(x*x)/f'(x*x))] or derivative of (dA/dB)*dB/[(dA/dB)/dB] or (dA/dB)*dB/[(2B/dB)] then (dA/dB)*dB/(d(B*B)) or (dA/dB)*dB/dA then A is B*B then do all this derivative in terms of the area!!! thus (f'(x*x)*f'(x*x)) now for lines it is f'(x) then together make the area (f'(x)*f'(x)) thus they are equal all gravity light electro magnetic light all light travels c by universe energy constant state because of canceling waves and spirals etc. spirals are treated like waves then one is interms of x*x and lines in terms of x in Kozak equation!!! now treat all powersteppers and all pulsers and all these the same with exceptions also in a motor the sine wave of light is simple rectified to go up in magnet north and down in magnet south then the phase variation will layer signal a current to speed it up and the current is arcsine then simple rectified then derived then simple rectified then power stepped in a power head to a freezer that allows a huge multiple of the in coming current and a rate of increase that eventually tapers off then step down pulsers then the current is signaled in series with sine wave light simple rectified then the huge current behaves as light wave and south pulses signal one huge current then the negative huge current signaled by north pulses then then the wave of the motor is simple rectified arcsine simple rectified derived then simple rectified to add to current also derive part is fine the derivative takes into account amplitude as well as frequency then all the places where I said different or used the sqrt(sine*sine+cosine*cosine) for part of the wave current is just an option also the current of motor half goes to magnets themselves then the phase difference is zero then up north down south then the wave is in sycrony with the magnetic motor spin also the amplitude is light times huge number in huge current to layer north pulses layer signal the huge current and phase difference layer signals the huge current increaser to the unit current in the freeze the unit current is from the freeze and the phase difference layer signals a small parallel off of huge current that adds to unit current now the motor can read the combination of waves but if wanting to only read one have a mini power head that uses freeze and increases power to make a small frequency also the freeze does not allow that much current in the mini power head and that pulsing makes the wave then the motor takes off now you can use gravity waves to manipulate electrons but to single out a wave do the method I said of invert and the amplitude and frequency inverted and if too large the invert turns it to virtually nothing if too small then it takes those out to zero without invert and set the standard unit to what you want then the wave that survives then that is the wave first the liniar to subtract then invert then subtract then reinvert then that wave runs the motor so the wave can manipulate electron to make light waves so this machine rus on gravity waves nucleo waves any wave!!! so the large power head steps the to huge frequency and amplitude then simple rectify then arcsine then derive then simple rectify also in recirculating huge current to magnets themselves use simple rectifiers to make energy go one way!!! now in the electric jets the turbine is narrow with many tiny blades and many wheels and the blades that are short and away from center are pi/4 radians to the air but compressor many wheels many blades extending close to center wide blades pi/4 angle to the air shaft wide for a steel beem motor shaft is one with turbine and compressor shaft blade cross section in turbine two curved circular curves meeting at two indentical sharp points and compressor the cross section is shovel shaped wth circular nature now in the waves parallel current you can take amplitude to the sqrt(s*s+c*c) option then invert then insulate then have invert layer signal the amplitude to one and do this with two identical units to both waves then amplitude one then arcsine both then simple rectify both then the phase is zero on one parallel circuit and frequency subtract one amplitude to zero on the other parallel circuit then this whole thing is the monitor then the signaled current is a current insulated then to be integrated then the integrator layer signals the huge current with supply from huge and suppply is insulated and signal attached to it for the huge current also the electron will respond to gravity but even f the nucleo waves are too small in amplitude it does not care the frequency is what matters then making a fair amplitude do the same thing as it thus the frequency is more than energy!!! also the amplitudes are only inverted in the monitor otherwise the amplitudes are preserved and make sure to get the wave to signal the huge current for huge amplitude so preserve amplitude for energy!!! also use an initial powerhead with frequency then initial frequency is low and initial amplitude high then powerstep then huge wave frequency and even larger amplitude then the intial power head will make the waves with an initial healthy amplitude then do the whole monitor integrator thing then make the phase zero frequency difference zero thing then initial power head is copying it and the difference and phase shift double parallel circuit to signal a current to the adder to the freezer unit current and the adder is really an integrator layer signal thing for unit current then the wavestarter will choose an initial wave for initial power head also to get the initial wave remember the machine that turns frequency into a direct current that also polarizes the light then simple rectify then arcsine then derive then simple rectify and this iis probably the new polarizer see to get healthy amplitude use initial power head in this and polarizer so ths is all to get energy from waves and the wavestarter will take the wave that copied the frequency and make a higher frequency higher amplitude wave then it keeps going and in the arcsine machine or sine wave machine when going a/sqrt(a*a-v*v) then 'a' is unit current thus turning high frequency low amplitude waves to huge energy by just electricity or electricity with motor also the amplitude in the initial foreign wave cannot initially be harnest so make the initial wave whatever small amplitude and the variancer will make he option of sqrt(s*s+c*c) only in monitor to make amplitude dfference zero the the rest of it and use all these inventions everywhere!!! SLIGHT CORRECTION [(dA/dB)*(dBda)]/[(dA/dB)/dB] is really (dA/dt)/(2B/dB) then (intregal dA)/(intregal dA) then rederive dA/dA then one times dA/d(x*x) then the equation is really sqr(dB/dt) but remember the t is x*x thus the area's derivative is the two lines derivative multiplied!!! now go m1 c/(c-v) and m2 is c/(c+v) then Kozak both to m*m is e^(m*m(v-v)/(c)) or one then go 1/c times one is the m*m is e^(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) HOW!!! well the answer is m1 and m2 are two different values and so m*m is 1/c and m*m is e^(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) if and only if v is zero this is why the speed distorts and changes in relativity when increasing so masses distort so when v is c then go (infinite) or c/sqrt(sqr(infinite)) from c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then in other side of light speed the c/(c+v) does all the infinite work because v is negative (when positive c/(c-v) does all the infinite work but at all times both fractions play a part) then the velocity changes when mass and energy change to get 1/c verses e^(m*m*v*v/(c*c)) or really m*m*v*v is c*c*ln(c) (I took the absolute value) then I said c*sqrt(ln(c)) is m*v then m*v but then when mass increases then velocity decreases and this makes the energy change in proportion to the proper amount!!! then constant negatified because the velocity comes in the opposite direction!!! and this explains also why time does the mirror trick and reverses!!! also the constant and everything reverses thus everything makes sense now this m and v theory suggests that v is sqrt(c*c-v*v) is v HOW!!! well v is really a*t then the time in a*t in each v is different!!! thus time slow by c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) etc. also on the other side energy and mass will decrease again then increase again etc. going through the velocities!!! this is probably why infinite leads back to zero with mass thus this is consistent with pi/4 radians at infinite!!! and velocity goes to zero at infinite because velocity is the independent variable so and ofcourse mass is already at c for initial energy now do not get confused the mv is a constant I am talkng of the velocity of the ship being v and the v inside the ship or with the ship or around the ship the ship being sqrt(c*c-v*v) then v of ship is cosine when v inside the whatever the ship is sine or vce versa now when reference one is velocity to reference two r1 is m low and v high and r2 is m high v low then but vice versa to when from r2 to r1 and r1 is reference one and r2 is reference two anyway now it works like a field since motion causes fields!!! see the if measurng from r1 lower one is less energy at r1 and the higher is less energy at r2 then ship faster is less energy in ship but ship itself more thus energy squared is constant see the lower is more velocity because the potential turned to kinetic again energy constant then time slows down in gravity because less energy so slow down and higher kinetic to slow down inside energy now mass decrease with penetrating gravity field because the fields and motion are one then fields act like motion so if internal has less energy then mass must have gotten lower and mass higher because m*v*v then remember mass and time behave the same thus when more time always more mass and vice versa!!! now energy of whole universe constant so when creating energy it goes to a parallel niverse in another dimension so if bodies closer then higher velocity and at given position the body that move to and from bodies is energy constant when taking all other reference bodies into account so increase to one field is decrease to another and all bodies taken into account so potential energy constant and this happens with kinetic of special relativity also and all this stuff proves the mass greater is greater field surround also increased field different is increased mass diffeence so mass is indeed proportional to field by a liniar and repel and attract and all fields taken into account everything now in the create energy the f(c)/sqrt(f(c)*f(c)-f(v)*f(v)) then the acceleration becomes the asymtote f(c) per second squared etc. also the new generator has a mini function machine that does body and heads and all the stuff the big one does just fewer number and in function machine when going expo go expo(cx) or expo(Lx) or expo(Fx) etc. for intalling functions also when going past the light speed barrier by 'n' amount then the motor stops accelerating to equal the frequency then oh no mass is beyond infinite to slow it back down but no problem the mass reversed itself so now in another dimension with only finite mass in the end!!! thus the motor will spin to a frequency then mass will be finite and not so big also the motor can do this without another dimension see it is only in another dimension if creating or destroyng energy since universe is constant energy if one engine detroys while other creates and then vice versa then the motor stays in this dimension and this is also good for particle accelerators and anything but sometimes you want destroy energy to decrease mass to another dimension and create create and destroy destroy is above asymtote and destroy create and create destroy is below asymtote thus make sure to manipuate to destroy for decrease mass and accelerate then manipulate to get mass back ofcourse that will happen automatically after decelerating this allows little g force to get at tremendous speeds!!! now in the velocity is a*t in sqrt(c*c-v*v) is v the 'a' is acceleration and t is time ad acceleration cannot vary because then you would be giving the ship two different accelerations and the is logically impossible so the only other thing that can ad must vary is time!!! now remember a small wave can layer signal a large current to get same frequency then simplle rectify both then arcsine both then derive large and simple rectify large (what I have always ment was simple rectify the derivative) then in another monitor make phase shift zero and frequency difference zero otherwise will increase speed of one motor and decrease speed of other or if negative vice versa and frequency and phase shift difference in this monitor first it deals with frequency to then when frequency zero phase shift constant to turn derivative then when derivative zero then phase shift to zero or you can do phase shift first then frequency etc. and you can also use this in the other monitor now then for frequency when negative you can simple rectify diiference only as an option for and phase shift again simple rectify difference only as an option and when frequency get to so in all cases first simple rectify then arcsine then derive then simple rectify derivative then measure also if not following options then just simple rectify phase shift and make it go to zero by acceleration or deceleration ad when frequency positive accelerate engine A and decelerate B and when negative vice versa when usng options the waves will slow them down automatically if they go over and use all this everywhere in this invention but remember one slow is other speed up so if one reaches before and goes over when it slows down other must speed up and in liniar acceleration past light speed the fade will start at the beginning then do create destroy and destroy create with negative 'a' factor to keep the engines from falling into other dimensions!!! now two first monitors to measure outer waves (the same exact amplutide and frequency for each) against the motor waves both same exact frequency and amplitude and to get this measure the two motor waves against each other in second monitor and third one will measure the two outer waves against each other to make everything just right!!! now in partial monitor have two amplitudes add (wave must be same phase and frequency already) then add and take the added wre and split it in two to make the two amplitudes equal and you can use the option of sqrt(s*s+c*c) s is sine c is cosine etc. and have a partial monitor for the two motor waves and the two outer waves and in the partial monitor the new amplitude is appled to the engine where as in the regular monitor the new frequency and zero phase is appliedd but not the new amplitude thus to make it all perfect!!! now for sqrt(c*c-v*v) verses v is also talking about speed of ship verses absolute value of (c-D) D is difference where at light speed D is zero because time stands still in speed or ships c is light speed give that time slows down toward light speed or speeds up in past light speed for odd multiples of c and vice versa in even multiples of c now use all inventions theories and ideas with all other inventions theories and ideas and use everything with everything!!! now remember thr cosine and sine thing with v well mass inside is inversely proportional to sine and mass outside is inversely proportional to cosine then the energy after multiplying to get energy is inside is sine outside is cosine then sqrt(s*s+c*c) is constant hypotenuse then sqrt(sqr(m*v) plus sqr(m*v1)) is sqrt(m*m(v*v+v1*v1)) is sqrt(sqr(m*m(c*c))) then m*c then energy must be m*c*c for any mass anyway proportion and the constants for v1 and v divide out to get the energy and v1 is sqrt(c*c-v*v) etc. so the energy is constant in terms of inside and outside because the hypotenuuse is constant see in the hypotenuse being constant the vector sum of energy constant so whatever internal energy there is that is what it is regardless of angle!!! thus it is always m*c*c!!! so take this into account that when I say energy m*v*v inside and outside the same sum I mean vector wise if energy where the same scalar sums then it would take no energy to accelerate it!!! thus take this all into account and remember hypotenuse constant not actual energy!!! now be vey carefull the scalars are how much energy for how much energy then you have sine (outside) per cosine (inside) which is tangent then tangent is infinite when sine is light speed which makes sense but also the increase in mass inside is making it slow down that much more thus 1/sine times sine/cosine then 1/cosine then 1/sqt(1-s*s) then the increase is liniar by v and unit is and by unit c not one then c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) thus Einstein hit the bullseye more then anyone ever knew!!! HUGE correction when in said 1/c times c/(c-v) times c/(c+v) the 1/c is just a one but when I integrated to get c*c*ln(m) I added a constant then ln(k+1) is m*m*v*v/(c*c) then constant L is m*v/c then cL is m*v etc. now when accelerating by function machine or kozak method the spiral and cycloid respond slower then the acceleraton thus starting to go faster then c also the cycloid average speed is constant but not constant instantaeous but the spiral is instantaneous constant as well as average constant and rotation of spiral rounds per time is cycloid frequency and radius of spiral is amplitude of cycloid so spiral then is really the wave rotation to make bulges so it is all wave!!! also in the kozak equation the c/(c-v) and c/(c+v) must go to one then ln(1) to zero but in m*m*v*v/(c*c) is NOT zero so you must integrate that one with a constant added remember intregal is alway plus a constant it could be zero or any constaant value now remember if applying a kozak pattern force then going below it again then the particle goes below it again sense the response will catch up and if a bat hits a ball the response falls behind but instantly catches right back up so to get pass light speed the force has to be consistant with kozak parttern for at least a brief time or it will not work!!! now if going mvv then energy decrease liniarly then m is c/v then c/sqrt(c*c-z*z) also in jet engine use cylinders hollow to brace the disks and all the blades and use several cylinders and difference in everyway between turbine and compressor and in compressor shaft is wide but turbine wider and these connect by a elliptically curved mid shaft also in turbine and compressor the disks are very close to each other within each and between the turbine and compressor lke anything else is a difference and anything can vary in any way shape or form!!! also the compressor blades are wide funnel with uniform thickness but the urbnes are funnel shape with oval and oval shape change through blade and variations can happen but do not have to happen also blackholes maybe finite but they exceed kozak patterns to go past light speed and everything I have ever talked about can happen in a blackhole ad it can ht other dimensions I suspect they connect to the single point that the sphere connects with one of the circling hyperbolas in the universe now the T is intregal of d[1/sqrt(1-x*x)]/d[1/(1+x*x)] then T is [1/sqrt(1-x*x)]/[1/sqrt(1+x*x)] because what is the instantaneous time distortion at that instantaneous moment then kozak to get m is e^(m*m*x*x) then lnm is m*m*x*x then dm/m is 2mxdmdx then 1/(m*m) is 2xdx then the dx is relative intregal to get x*x is 1/(m*m) or m is 1/x then give the v back to x then m is c/v and v is sqrt(c*c-z*z) then m is c/sqrt(c*c-z*z) but that is correct then that proves that once integrated again you get c*arcsin(v/c)/[c*arctan(v/c)] then that is pi/2/(pi/4) when v is c this sows that when following a kozak pattern to get acceleration to be c per second squared then at light speed the time would be twice as much as absolute rest so there IS an absolute zero motion where half the value means at rest ofcourse the particles are still at c motion now when cooling down temperature the orbitals go to zero but WHY well the average speed does not change but the waves will change frequency by strobe effect to shrink see temperature means the same mass has more energy then considering all these theories that explains it the same relativity is more velocity thus time slows down and frequency does its business for same given amplitude and same given mass then waves must be larger in wavelength for same mass and same energy and while average is the same extremes are larger to increase size of wave etc. so you can take energy away without taking mass away thus the atoms will collapse!!! see light has no mass but has energy and mass is energy only in mass objects see a ball has much more energy when going the speed of sound without the mass really changing thus mass is energy only in internal and relativistic which are really one thing see mass is the smoke energy is the fire!!! now m is v is c asymtote then K(m) is 'a' is c asymtote da/dt is c is K(K(m)) etc. also derivative of sqrt(c*c-v*v) is -v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) if I said different I said wrong also the what going A/B is t then K(A)/K(B) is t etc. and K(A)*K(B) is t then AB is t etc. also K(K(A))/K(K(B)) is t if K(A)/K(B) is t and if K(K(A))*K(K(B)) is t then K(A)*K(B) is t and three of them multiplied together or two of them devided by the third etc. also go ln(m*m) is m*m*v*v/(c*c) then ln(m*m)/(m*m) suggests a chain derivative into the compound function then that is m*m*v*v/(c*c) times d(m*m*v*v/(c*c))/d(m*m) then then multiply both sides by two then and by c^4 then d((m^4)*(v^4))/d(m*m) is (c^4)*2*ln(m*m)/(m*m) then add the d(m*m) to the last thing and it will integrate thus (c^4)*sqr(ln(m*m)) is the thing before the last thing then (c*c)*ln(m*m) is d((m*m)*(v*v))/dm then since mass and t have same behavior then d(m*m) d(m) is (c*c)*ln(m*m)/(a*a) then m*m*a*a is (c*c)*ln(m*m) then m*m is e^((m*m*a*a)/(c*c)) so the chain derivatve and extra order derivative lead right into the inner variabe of the kozak functin or really the head!!! now the inner variable at first is just that e^x then it stays that way as the function grows e^e^x adding functions on the outside will not effect the inner variable thus e^(e^x) and e^e^(e^e^x) etc. so c/sqrt(c*c-a*a) or c/sqrt(F(c)*F(c)-F(a)*F(a)) and finally c/sqrt((F(a)*F(a)-F(c)*F(c)) thus all the possibilities!!! now the E is kqq/sqrt(1-(r*r+1)) then kozaked is E*E is kqq*e^((E*E)*(r*r+1)) then E is kqq/(r) then ln(kqq/(r*r)) is EErr+EE sum of two squares is non negative and if r to big there is a negative so it will not work but radius small enough then the operation works also the kozak equation is how the field works!!! so there is kozak activity happening everywhere with past light speed!!! so E was energy r is radius k is 8.988 times 10^(19) Q is charge now charge changes with mass but in small amounts then put that with the two r's and have initial Q as q the same situation with small liniar uder big one thus the barier really does work!!! now in the atraction force is -kqq/(r*r) and therefore energy is -kqq/r and repulsion force is kqq/(r*r) and therefore energy is kqq/r then somtime the negatives are for repulsion instead of attraction!!! now do not forget kqq q can be nuclear forces gravity anything also the same theoriies apply to gravty waves strong nuclear waves weak nuclear waves anything as in no mass light speed and same waves frequencies and amplitudes with same velocities and energies also ths explans why charge repulsion stops and nuclear attraction starts at a tiny radius!!! now when going kqq/sqrt(1-(rr+1) it is EErr+EE but kqq/sqrt(1+rr-1) then it will be -1*(EErr+EE) then the reverse will happen for repulsion thus that is why charge stops at barrier also the fields follow kozak relativity patterns that are not apparent until very small distances see it follows the fraction then the exponential equation what percentages is how tiny the distance is or huge big the distance is the distance inverted times a constant to the distance times a constant multiplied to get a true field then charge and nuclear are no different from each other and the barrier has causes it as in trapping in or trapping out energy but the enrgy is negative so once again it is still trapping in energy!!! now why is energy and mass lost in fusion well the the repel gives out as well as nuclear kicks in thus the potential held by repel is released and the nuclear strong interaction pulls it at the same time (I have been talking of strong interaction) also in fission the nuclear hold it same distance but the repeling of distance protons and neutrons then charge repel out numbers nuclear attractions thus it is as if the proton is a little farther than the barrier!!! now the barrier of charge and all nuclear forces and gravtiy and all fields even the unknown ones are exactly the same because same if they have barriers at those points the only thing different is the constants that change the strength of the field and energy and force and everything etc. at the same specific point from source etc. now kozak pattern is K and regular pattern is R the go K^(Bt) times R^(Cv) t is what point in the field and B and C are just constants and v is what point in the field and is t is sine v is cosine because fields follow square patterns and this goes for any similiar situation like this HUGE CORRECTION ON PENDULUM!!! (1/2)*m*v*v is mgh2 minus mgh1 then v is sqrt(2gh2-2gh1) then v is sqrt(gL(cos(x)-cos(a))) then go d(d)/d(v) is dt the sqrt(cos(x)-cos(a))/(sin(x)/sqrt(cos(x)-cos(a))) then (cos(x)-cos(a))/sin(x) then ln(sin(x)) plus (cos(a)*ln(cot(x)+csc(x))) then (1-(cos(a)))*ln(sin(x)) plus cos(a)*ln(1+cos(x)) then when x is pi/2 then 1-(cos(a))*0 plus cos(a)*0 then zero then (1-cos(a))*ln(sin(a)) plus cos(a)*ln(1+cos(a)) then do angle switch then (1-sin(a))*ln(cos(a)) plus sin(a)*ln(1+sin(a)) then -a for up swing then (-1+sin(a))*ln(cos(a)) plus sin(a)*ln(1+sin(a)) (sin(-a) is -sin(a) and cos(-a) is cos(a) and one minuses because of the sine negative effect from integrating cot(x) so 'a' and intregal direction both switched so switch intregal diection and angle both at once!!!) then go or sin(a)*2*ln(1+sin(a)) then 2*sin(a)*ln(1+sin(a)) then switch angle back then 2*cos(a)*ln(1+cos(a)) but add two by intregal plus constant effect then 2 is time of swing at lowest angle then 1+cos(a)*ln(1+cos(a)) time 1 times sqrt(2gL) (from beginning) then you really went v/g when d(d)/d(v) then sqrt(2L/g) then each line is where the 45 line is sqrt(2) line is sqrt(2) as long as height when longer in different angle the object is that much faster thus all sqrt(2) then sqrt(2) then pi/2 to add up the lines then 2*pi*sqrt(L/g) times 1+cos(a)*ln(1+cos(a)) for entire pendulum see the other two was taken into account by to swing then from swing count it twice now inside the ln's where it used to be F(x) and not F(a) that all stays positive now in tangnet(1+v+v*v...etc.) the dmdv/((1-v)^2) then go dmdmdv then m*m*v then mv/(1-v) also if I is infinite then in tan(1+I+I*I...etc.) then (3v-2)/(2v-1) then if going tan(1/2 plus I/2 plus I*I/2 etc.) then tangent is 3/4 then the line is five so in a three four five triangle that is your angle in the unit circle 3/5 and 4/5 and one then that angle is the angle!!! now the 1+m*m is e^(mv/(1-v)) then pretend both are m*m then z^4 (z is sqrt(m)) then z is [(v-1)/(2v-1)]^(1/4) then m is sqrt((v-1)/(2v-1)) then square m in 1+m*m then add one and (3v-2)/(2v-1) etc. now in multiplying by pi/2 for trigonometric conversions and multiplying by 2/pi for antitrigonometric conversions only do these multiples in these conversions under special circumstances!!! now in dd(xy) is dxdy and in one intregal for first formula then only d(xy) is dxdy then as long as they are perpendicular then no matter what x equals and no matter what y equals even if both are equal this rule still holds thus intregal of intregal of dmdm and intregal of d(m*m) are equivalent now in the 1/(dd(xy)) or 1/(d(xy) or 1/(dxdy) etc. do the same things but with derivatives as in if flipped to denominator then from intregals to derivatves