Saturday, September 24, 2016

partial integrals of the infinite equations and more

now in mass when velocity hits infinity mass is zero then also mass is the partial constant in the velocity to zero from infinite equation see what hapens is the equation suggests that d(mv)/dv is m and the partial is m as a constant and same for v and u equation where d(uv)/du is v etc. see 2*u*u/(1+u*u) is 4*u/sqr(1+u*u) then (sqr(v))/u is dv/du then (d(uv))/du is v is sqr(v) then v is zero not one because then both formulas up there would be one and dervative of oone is not one but derivative of zero is zero when derived thus it is partial constant intregal when integrated now m is not to infinite but zero also m is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) then dm/dv is -v/((1-v*v)^1.5) then --m*m*m*v is dm/dv then d(mv)/dv is m then the (d(mv))/dv is -m*m*m*v*v is m then m*v*m*v is minus one is v*v/(1-v*v) then -1 plus m is -1 then m is zero integrated is partial constant integrated now the u and v are both velocities that switch together but not in velocity and mass case now the 1/sqrt(1-f*f) f is force force is the same for all then all build at same rate mass one exponent ahead force middle and acceleration one exponent behind all with whatever function which must be the same for all three heads and the exponent rule by m is e^(mv) etc. now a particle on another etc. is compound particle and another revolving around another complex all these particles same amplitude wave same frequency and same wavelegnth and phase shift because they have to agree and the waves are layered right on each other in compound particle now v increases then 1/(m*m) and 1/(m*m) to counteract increasing 1/(m*m) then increase m then r increase m as well as velocity then net decrease is back to one m then m*v*v/r then force decrease by square invert and when I say linear or square sometmes I mean invert so force decrease by square to make q have to stay the same now in gravity and perhaps other forces the particle is so few in cylinders that it makes more hollow spheres ouutward and inward to keep it linear thus twice mass linear to increase and go m*m*v*v/r then force is larger at a given 1/(r*r) then q changes by a linear because go qq linear so both q's are changing to square but the 1/(r*r) then each q is linearly increasing now the force with v1 remember the velocity can be v1 or v and when v1 but v and v1 not linear because (m*m)/(m*m) anytime there is a linear in the numerator in mass counteracted by denominator the denominator is not linear and this is for anything also when numerator to counteract denominator it is linear but not velocity to c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is always accurate also if v is sine then v1 is cosine with feta as linear then both behave the same now when v decreasing twice ore then increase when increase by 1/2 then the m*m will always be same ratio to 1/(m*m) and the 1/2 can be one unit now when decreases velocity increases then the square cylinder effects cancel then r decrease to decrease m as well as velocity but one invert m since velocity net increase now when switching the velocity now when switching velocity and radius everything reverses and radius switch because anythng of distance is intregal of velocity to switch perpendicular compliment also thus increase mass down small and up large always increasng and same with time momentum and energy!!! but when reversing them the mass changes so that m*v*v/r then if mass and radius increase v decrease if mass and radius decrease v increase thus q the same no matter what except in weak fields like gravity now sometimes when I say reversing I mean switching and the distances like radius amplitude wavelength frequency etc. and velocity switch at 45 degrees but for mass time energy etc. velocity does not switch until 90 degrees and same for mass time and energy not until 90 degrees for mass time and energy etc. now simple particles are hollow spheres with one layer of cylinders ad in gravity the little ones are easier to push then linear less upper then lower reproduce then the up equals the downs linearly thus linear ratio of gravity or any weak field to mass also which are top layer pparticles and which are underneath depend on a lot of things I talked about n cylnders and fields etc.

Saturday, September 10, 2016

make the kozak equation more powerful and other things

now in the intregal of d(xy) and intregal of integal of dxdy then x*x and y*y then intregal of intregal of 2x2y dxdy and integal of 2xy d(xy) then the intregal effect is triangle slope to 1/2 then intregal of intregal of 2xy dxdy and intregal of 2xy d(xy) and you can cancel n's and x and y can be anything and if the n changes in such a way to do this then they both are equal because at any instantaneous point the n will be a constant then add together for them both to be equal!!! thus you can use anything for x and anything for y each seperately thus this equation works regardless!!! also say x and y and z then dxdydz and triple intregal so ddd(xyz) then intregal of intregal of intregal of dxdydz and intregal of d(xyz) see you just gave them both an intregal this any function and any number of functions different or the same!!! also dd(xyz) then d(dd(xyz)) or ddd(xyz) then intregal of intregal of intregal of dxdydz and intregal of d(xyz) so it works no matter what!!! now each instantaneous point is a triangle with n and function and the x and y and z to whatever is to a hypotenuse so regardless of n1 and n2 ad n3 to whatever the intregal will make same situation thus and function and the x and y and z are all one before the n1 and n2 and n3 etc. then x and y and z become whatever to make it work and however many etc. now one thing in kozak the asymtote is linear then mv is square since both are integrated etc. and Aw is negative square and negatve of whatever Aw is if not the same when negatified then force will counteract both anyway and the only way for not the same is different spin function for spin not to be velocity if spin is same as velocity and not a different function then the same if the same then the mv and -Aw same etc. so when tangential of spin velocity same function then both same otherwise different now the reason tangential of spin and velocity line the same function linear is because of the constrainted dimensions we live in!!! now in the tracer the force and mass increase together then kqq/rr (r=m=f) constant then mvv/r but in fields when q is constant then go rmvv etc. but there may be exceptions!!! now when mass and force are inverts q is constant when mass and force are not inverts q is not constant and I am talking of actual force without distance factored in or one divided by distance squared or anything with distance so tracer is velocity by whole thing but particle is velocity of the results of tracer in a circle they are treated the same but tracer is treated a lttle different from circles as n circles is rmvv and tracer is mvv/r etc. but if tracer and particle then treat the tracer part tracer like and particle circle part as circle like but really they are both going to go the same eventually now in universe is 1/infinite and infinte to make it finite!!! now in the tracer the velocity is always the same but in phase shift and field the velocity is not the same so velocity decrease then increase for tracer but in the particle the velocity must agree with mass then it increases the way I said before but the velocity for field in the end is bigger to counteract mass and to please the situations and mostly the mass does not increase wthout net increase velocity but in tracer the mass changes wthout velocity because velocity cannot change in tracer now the phase shift that is the changing velocity and is relation by the velocity in the switching system so in tracer it is m*m to m but in field that is cancel by the cylinder number then velocity increase in the appropriate manner thus the phase shift along axis for particle and the c along curve for tracer and for particle and tracer it's tracer side is treated like tracer and particle side like particle also the tracer agrees with the particle through everything!!! now in sin(mv) is m you will hit 1/2 by dmdm then you will get another 1/2 but sqr(tan(0))/2 then dv is (tan(0))/2 then the area in tangent because you integrated is 1/2 thus tan(0) is v and take it from there also when m is tan(mv) or (sin(mv))/(cos(-mv)) then the v/sqrt(v*v+1) divides by itself to get one!!! then everytime m is tan(mv) or tan(mv+c) (c is a constant) then m is one then m will be tan(v) and tan v is one then it suckers it into 45 degrees or pi/4 radians also in time travel in this parallel universe it never happened in another it did then back in time to do it in the other parallel universe and it goes musical chairs also when going back then in a another travel but not with you in the time backward but in the ship forward in that parallel travel and you are skipping through a large number of parallel universes per time each one with you in the ship each one with you in the ship and the ship that was already there why that is you!!! so you can indeed go back in time and the forward in time similiar situation so anyone who says the other you would appear in backward travel or forward travel is over looking all this now remember in the tracers they keep average speed constant and the are the circulars in the particle also tracers in curves at light speed always now correction in m is e^(tan(v)) then M is intregal of m then M is e^(v*v*cot(M*M*v*v/8)) and anything similar in sine to cosine and vice versa tangent to cotangent and vice versa and secant to cosecant and vice versa now A to B is m is e^(A(v)) then M is intregal of m then M is e^(v*v*B(M*M*v*v/8)) then also r1 stays zero then m0 stays zero until the end that is why radius is always finite but mass is and the end infinite also go m*v*v/r then when both v's are zero then when r1 must be zero*zero but then v increase linear then go m*sqrt(infinite)*sqrt(infinite)/r then r1 will be infinite but then it  goes zero*zero*infinite or finite times zero or zero also in v is sqrt(c*c-(c*c/(m*m))) is v then (sqrt(c+(c/m)))*(sqrt(c-(c/m))) is v then v is sqrt(sqr(infinite)) or (1/sqrt(2))*sqrt(infinite) and mass is finite until the energy and everything at light speed by the tracers so r1 stays as zero and at r1 is zero*zero at (sin(0))/zero and zero *zero times infinite and sin(0) not zero and this is needed but when going divided by r1 then one zero but when one is cancel to one then two zeros to keep r1 zero etc. so since mass is radius then to radius mass is always one also remember velocity is 1/r because r is mass so the number of zeros in v is number of zeros in r if the number of r's in the denominator is the same as the number of v's in the numerator but two v's to one r is the way this situation works!!! now in polarizer whatever you do to derivative circuits you do to main circuits as well and vice versa!!! and then do this to all the circuits in polarizer and everywhere and use everything everywhere and the new large circuit of accelerators minus the magnets and plates etc. and minus all systems except signal and relay systems and everything else use that also everywhere now the tracer and field circular of particle with the radius and mass and etc. the stories are the exact same with exceptions now when force decrease and mass increase then q constant when both increase or both decrease then it is proportional to each now for increase by square when mass decrease linearly but also you are going qq for force so each q for linear of force etc. then kqq/rr verse kqq then if q and radius change in proportion go kqq/rr if qq constant go kqq etc. refer to past information so force is constant then m*v*v/r verse r*m*v*v force the first for kqq/rr the second for kqq in derivative is constant and once integrated is a square not linear because two bodies attracting or repeling not one even in cylinders two interactions at all times in all cases thus everything works see force is to be constant at instantaneous since you freeze it to concentrate on that specific part where the derivative is a constant slope line except in kozak equation but in kozak you can average it to a line back to a constant and all this goes for everything as well with possible exceptions!!! now when going m=x and v=(-1/x) and intregal of m dv to intregal of 1/v dm then nm=v then the line is a derivative and n is a number and m is direct to x because currently on m then m and v are by the x and -1/x relations perpendicular like so on the axises then 1/v is 1/nm then go intregal of v/n dv and intregal of 1/nm dm then switch to x and for x/n go 1/(x*x) or intregal of 1/nx dx and for m just go one then intregal of 1/nx dx and  those are equal since they are the same thing thus intregal of m dv is intregal of 1/v dm but only if m and v are perpendicular!!! now cycloid is circular and v and v1 have a sine and cosine relationship v to sqrt(c*c-v*v) where c is one to cause trigonomtric function and sin(20) for phenomina with distance properties velocities etc. because the cycloid is sine*sine then that requires a whole rotation to say that sine for sine*sine or sin(x) to cos(2x) etc. now light is pure tracers then the universe is being traced!!! also the recent proof of 0*0 is m*m-1 etc. to 0 is mv is linear to make an angle linear to cause trigonometric patterns of behavior!!! also the distance shrinks with speed but the sqrt(c*c-v*v) switches with the v to c and the distance is all around and I am talking of length shrink when I say distance in this case then the sphere shrinks but it follows what the radius want to do to stay in proportion wth radius and switch because at 45 degrees then 20 or 90 degrees which is switch and for 0 same thing but at the actual 90 degrees etc. now in an object the switch is at 90 degrees for all which is what radius wants except in all the situations like cylnders tracers and particles etc. the situation of two bodies with fields particle or particles in each body then nothing switches until 90 degrees then you see typical general or special relativity!!! now remember velocity at 45 degrees switches for distance radius amplitude wavelength etc. but not until 90 degrees for time mass energy etc. also the following is D phenomina: when going v*v then v is (goes to) constant times sqrt(infinite) when going v it is infinite times constant in both cases v is linear increasing and when v*v as opposed to v you are spreading out the infinite this was D phenomina also D phenomina is only in certain situations!!! now when I go M is e^((v*v)*trig(M*M*v*v/n)) it is for tan and cot only for sin and cos M is e^((v^4)*trig(M*M*v*v/n)) for sec and csc I go M is e^((trig(M*M*v*v/n))) and to sin go trig is cos to cos go sin to tan go cot to cot go tan to sec go csc and to csc go sec all for trig etc. then trig is sin or cos or tan or cot or sec or csc etc. trigonometric functions and n is 8 so some of these functions can possibly be errors play it by ear!!! now 2v*(e^(v*v)) is 2*Mv M for only that not the whole thing then intregal is -M+MlnM is M*M*v*v then -1+lnM is M*v*v etc. so the original formula in terms to this is right!!! now how can M be e^(v*v) well v*v is x and it was originally e^x then integrate e^x dx is e^x or e^(v*v) so it all now makes sense!!! so if you square m the M will be m*m etc. so anything you do to m the M is opposite in terms of m then if you derive m then M is intregal of m etc.!!! then with this you can integrate anything and derive anything!!! also remember the M replaces m in the original equation now the lone M on the left side of the equaton is M but the M on other side inside function is each ln(M*M*v*v/2) so ln then sin then e^ for functions from inner to outer then M is intregal of e^((v^4)*cos(v*v*sqr(ln(M*M*v*v/2)))) also for derivative circuits the parallel counterpart of the derivative circuit is to be left bare with just wire now have every in derivative circuit have and out derivatve all with one parallel main wire the at end have a diode against current then right after a diode for current and at very beginning of entire derivative a circuit and at very end of entire circuit a circuit then combine the two circuits to add them and each of these is not a parallel circuit but right off of derivative circuit then main wire underneath all this and these circuits (not main wire) will contain anything you do to derivative circuits for each circuit or combined circuit depending and with exceptions and this will make derivative circuits correct HUGE CLARIRIFICATION the diode against current is at end of first derivative circuit and the diode for current is right after the diode against current and every first derivative current is right before a derivative circuit second and for current etc. now for mass radius and similar situations go x0 stays as zero and x stays as infinite then x*x0 changes say m0 is zero then m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) v is at c then m*m0 where v is between zero and c and changing and at zero v then zero*1 or zero and similar for r and r1 and anything now in sqrt(c*c-(c*c/(m*m))) is v etc. and that stuff when I say sqrt(sqr(infinte)) and sqrt(infinite) times 1/sqrt(2) I also mean sqrt(sqr(zero) and 1/sqrt(2) times sqrt(zero) and for infinite take the zero v and go -1/v is v1 then take absolute value so v1 for infinite and v for zero since the switch in v1 and v does not happen until 90 degrees for mass time and energy etc.thus it works now in r*m*v*v or m*v*v/r you can multipliy by 1/(v^4) then 1/(r*r) to get the zero's and the infinites since one r has effect on two v's then you can do zero as well as infinite etc. now perpendicular v calls for perpendicular r then -1/r then absolute values because multiplied a even number of times then it completely makes sense!!! now integrate m dmdv and 1/sqrt(1-v*v) dmdv  then drop the dm's on both sides the m is sqrt(0*0+c*c) in kozak situations so because c is the unit then at 0 is zero then m is e^(mv) and at zero feta m is c then (ln(1))/1 is zero v then (ln(m))/m then v is ln(sqrt(0*0+1))/sqrt(0*0+1) now integrate to get the m*m*v*v/2 type then (ln((m))) or zero to all the following go to but back to mv then sqr(ln(sqrt(c*0*c*0+c*c))) to get the speed then sqrt because it is a hypotenuse effect so ln(sqrt(c*c(0*0+1))) is v then that is not the velocity but velocity is really c well the velocity I see is the one where work is less necessary when in kozak mode and energy also less necessary and mass is less necessary it is sqrt(0*0+c*c) or not infinite!!! now 0*0 is really c*0*c*0 and feta is 0 is not necessarily zero and c is unit or one also one is really light speed etc. also note the 1/v effect as in the sqrt(c*c-v*v) is velocity then c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) where c is one then it really is m is 1/v thus it all makes sense and even the perpendicular plays in as -1/v to negative to 1/v so we are really getting the perpendicular for mass it all makes sense!!! so negative perpendicular by kozak equation is when mass is sqrt(c*0*c*0+c*c) now m is c/sqrt(c*c-v1*v1) c is one m is 1/v now in the lnm is mv well (d(lnm)/dm)/dv then that is d(mv)/d(mv) then dmdv is d(mv) by kozak rule then d(1/m)/dv is one then dv/dv is one since 1/m is v then indeed lnm is mv and m is e^(mv) as long as 1/v is m then if mv is linear then lnm is also and intregal of constant is linear then m is exponential and v is added together invert or de-exponential and to make linear v is really intregal of acceleration or 1/(e^x) thus this theory works as well as other theories!!!! now if not kozak condtion then 1/(1-v) is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) then 1-2v+v*v is 1-v*v then 2*v*v is 2*v then v is one or zero then the perpendicular must be the other of the two since the velocity in one is really v1 then sqrt(v*v+v1*v1) is always one or really light speed then the radius from the circle is c so initial and final is light speed but it is always light speed but at the same time it is changing!!! now m*m*v*v/2 is m*v is lnm in kozak for tracers (for non tracers or traceers the behave as non tacers the non tracer side o it then v is going to change) so mv is it's own derivative then mv is e^x the since m is e^x then v is constant but it is changing because mv is linear so for tracer it is one for phase shift wave particles it is between zero and one and one is c is light speed now in kozak condition the v will stay one but particles wave phase shift higher then light as in changing v is higher then it is sqrt(v*v-v1*v1) is light speed then the cosine is now negative (the velocties and trigonometric functions are a little off) now in kozak the cosine  is now angle negative cosine and these formulas are obviously kozak equations then the shift is light speed for mass not infinite!!! now the way time travel works is go asymtotes linear when going past only then back in time and linear is K(x) and it could also be K(K(x)) exceed parabolic but in horizontal back cannot happen only forward see it is value rate of value then rate of rate of value etc. and this can be for any function also in time travel now K(x) is linear asymtote etc. and to exceed the asymtote actual value in horizontal asymtote cannot be infinite but the speed rate of change in linear can be infinite also the sine*sine/x waves in accelerator when shifting the frame always absolute value then whether forward or back no change but when moving arephase shift and if magnetic frames going fast then the magnetic frame says you are going fast also waves in circle there is a limit for given tracer rate in particles in accelerator to how fast but straight line no limit for given tracer rate now time slows down to zero then starts up again and acceleration is exactly backwards to c then 2c then 3c etc. so time travel is doable but the right accelerator type with a hollow cylinder then put it inside the car and time travel away!!! now when using the function machinea circuit that self feeds is where the installation of function is the function or feeder circuit then the self feeder with one the build to K(x) then K(K(x)) etc. or feeder then this is FE(x) then two of them together is FE(FE(x)) then the square makes faster accelerator of x/(n+1) from (x^n)/n! the increase is x/(n+1) then square is (x^n)/(n+1) etc. then this whole feeder system I told before will definitely go into infinite slope then in zero or finite infinite value also K(x) means Kozak(x) which is builder function for clarification now to go faster than light the tracer up and down closer to light speed but wavelength and phase shift longer then the height or amplitude also Aw then if constant linear inceasing that means w is larger for the same A then speed faster linear proportion also remember in the cylinders intense field not necessarily slow down time but a spinning battery in air verses one n water see it slows down the motion and the whole process including aging but that does not really change time!!! now motion does effect time see the tracer up and down like in a wave but a line instead the the hypotenuse is velocity squared and rate up squared but tracer is same light speed so it slows on the up and down by c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) which is derivative of angle or axis of wave!!! thus confirmation that it works now I think I proved this a while ago also remember then the invert is sqrt(c*c-v*v) so time is effected by motion also more mass on the same object is more time since they behave the same and they are in proportion or invert proportion depending on what you mean amount of time or rate per time now the aging slows down then mass decreases to restore the same time!!! but motion can make net increase in both mass and time!!! now the medium of space determines the inertial force so if space harder to move through then more mass but slow down to same mass and as well time now when it comes to energy creation or anything the story depends on the asymtote and all asymtotes treated the same for anything and asymtotes meaning the approach to a graph depending on the builder kozak functions now build means f(x) then f(f(x)) then f(f(f(x))) etc. f is any function now since mass is q then the barriers go down as atom is cooled to zero degrees Kelvin which the experiments say!!! see ln(kqq/(rr)) then q is less then r boundary is less so the theory follows the experiments and vice versa!!! now tracers have mass and change in mass why not light well the waves cancel then the derivatives cancel then the arcsin(v) functions cancel and those derivatives cancel then c/(c*c-v*v) cancels -c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) for mass and time to make them both zero also when going r*m*v*v be carefull I am talking of the infinite r since force is constant finite because infinite force would mean the whole universe is undergoing a large force and q is the same and velocity goes to zero then and mass goes to infinite so then at m*v*v/r same thing so the actual r is r*r1 but the one with mass is r that is infinite now for m is e^(dm/dv) try m is sqrt(1-4*sqrt(4v)) and then go 4*v*sqrt(1-4*sqrt(4v)) and take it from there and keep it in that form the whole time now treat 4v as a unit but when deriving the larger one you go d(4v) then you have to put a 4!!! now in the larger one 4v s not unit so put the 4 then the split the four into two 2's one for each term and make the 1 in the radical 1/2 then you have it!!! now when using an equation do not substitute in the equation with the same equation also 4v and the radical are derived seperately thus for one the 4v is a unit for the other it is 4 units also in sin(dm/dv) is m then ddm/(dmdv) is 1/sqrt(1-m*m) then multiply both sides by dm/dv to get ddm/(dmdm) then go ddm/(dmdm) dm dv is dmdm/sqrt(1-m*m) then -1/dm dm dv to -v is -sqrt(1-m*m) then v is sqrt(1-m*m) then the feta is dm/dv then m is (sqrt(1-v*v)) but then dm/dv is v/sqrt(1-v*v) is feta c is one then so dm/dv + 1 since mass is one at rest and is supposed to be zero is mv or feta then m is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) when then mv is m then v is one but the 1/sqrt(1-v*v) suggests that it changes then in feta it stays the same in tracer moving sine but in the linear axis the velocity wants to increase or decrease velocity see go v1/sqrt(1-v*v) go to keep it the same but no v1 is change!!! see 1/sqrt(1-v*v) - 1 is zero then mass is constant non zero and velocity is zero but then that is where the v1 comes in then v1 is one then v1/v1 then one also in the curve the tracer can change mass because it is not linear axis it is in the curve and even at constant velocity it can change mass for earlier reasons!!! now remember 1/(1-v*v) is m*m is e^(m*m*v*v) c is one then -ln(1-v*v) when going times 2v then 1-v*v is e^(-zero) instead of e^(zero) then that is the same then still v winds up as zero when at infinite!!! now when I say r=m I mean the part of mass m approaching infinite and the part of the radius r approaching infinite and this is because when farthur out the acceleration is less for the same relativity force constant before 1/(d*d) is factored in then this infinite mass is linearly greator with linear increasing of this infinite radius and when I say force is mass I mean the inertial force but the other force and mass has relationship like I said before so take all I said into account and all information earlier and later information see I am trying to follow light speed but it is twice as hard because I am not accelerating as much the mass must be greater also I am so stubborn in a larger circle in staying at light speed that acceleration is less then mass is greator and force kqq/(rr) where q is constant when not taking into account changes and 1/(d*d) or 1/(r*r) not taken into account in infinite approaching r and infinite approaching m then force cosntant the less acceleration and more stubborness as a result is indeed greater mass and greator energy huge clarification in velocity to zero from infinite 1/v1 is m then 1/m is v1 then 1/(1-v*v) is 1/(v1*v1) zero is m*m then 1/(m*m) is infinite then infinite is (v1*v1) but go 1/(v1*v1) is zero since switch to v1 then go -1/v for perpendicular of perpendicular see it was originally 1/(v1*v1) then v1*v1 but go 1/(m*m) back to 1/(v1*v1) and in terms of v1 is perpendicular (I am switching it) then the v is zero again see it went from negative infinite to positive infinite see 1-v*v when v exceeds 1 it is switched then it truly goes to zero at infinite and one is speed of light or unit is c

Wednesday, August 31, 2016

huge new theories and explanations and other things

now mass is negative above light speed and everything that is true for light speed is true for any of the asymtotes like linear for K(K(x))  K stands for build or kozak build or other builds as well but in this situation the ln(m*m) is m*m*v*v/2 equation is K(v) etc. now when tracers are at light speed they could be any mass why did I say one well the truth is one of whatever mass depending on indeterminant value limit approach also light is zero field force right at light speed negative above and positive below if that is the asymtote so then why does light bend well the light particle (not the tracer) slows down when passing the field because space is changing n terms of relativity then light is slower so it attracts gravity and other fields and repels like a particle also!!! now in kozak situations it goes by that asymtote etc. now in the light the particles are mass zero at light speed instead of infinite then the indeterminant is different then light is a little different at slow down mass increases and at zero mass is still indeterminant but mass goes from zero to one because from cos(0) where at light speed cos(0) is zero and at zero cos(0) is one and one of whatever frequency etc. and 0 is not necessarily zero but instead feta also in velocity at 45 degrees go Kv*sqrt(c*c-Kv*Kv) or even Bv*sqrt(c*c-Av*Av) and Av and Kv between zero and c or light speed and apply everything to cylinders and first traacers except go times infinite so in a blackhole the light slows down to zero and because of the indetermiant everything is reversed so light is one mass and time is zero so it freezes because of sin(0) etc. now the light slows down then bends then slows down more then bends more so then the force is m*v*v/r or force required becomes K*m*v*v/r then the kqq/(r*r) is K*m*v*v/r then kmm/(r*r) is K*m*v*v/r then km/(r*r) is K*v*v/r then km is K*v*v*r then then mass is proportional to v*v*r and velocity is slowing to zero and radius is decreasing by velocity decreasing then the square de-exponential decrease then m is approaching the whole v*v*r to increase to one then exponential increase by invert then linear de-exponential decrease so at photosphere it all freezes to zero and nothing moves!!! now remember radius switches with sin(20) or cos(20) etc. now amplitude frequency wavelength and radius is sin(20) or cos(20) and mass time and energy is cos(0) or sin(0) and velocity is sin(0) or cos(0) and cos(20) or sin(20) both etc. now when amplitude increases frequency in certain situations will decrease and in other situations may increase etc. and vice versa in amplitude decrease and wavelength inversey proportional to frequency etc. huge correction radius is by cos(0) then radius approaches zero but mass likes it at infinite then zero*infinite indeterminant then definite see it starts as infinite times zero then at 45 degrees it hits a perfect square then to zero times infinite or another indeterminantsee go r or R is radius that controls mass but r1 is the other circumstances or force bringing it to zero then R*r1 is the actual radius indeterminant to finite value for particle that is small see R goes to infinity and r1 goes to zero and correction before cos(20) the r1 is the r and for after cos(20) the R is the r then amplitude radius and 1/frequency and wavelength all follow actual radius and in the same way go 'a' and A1 and same exact story and for radius again same exact story and for these the zero part call the shots before cos(20) and after the infinity part calls the shots and they call the shots under control of the equation now mass goes to infinity then v is to zero then inverse effect see mass was suppose to go to zero by -1/m or -1/infinity but the inverse of velocity flipped it again to infinity then the reason mass and time go -1/x is because of perpendicular but velocity switches midway only for the designated things and it can because of cos(20) but for mass and those designated things it never switched until cos(0) so now mass can switch by -1/m because it does not have a compliment like velocity with v and sqrt(c*c-v*v) which is v1 now mass is to infinity at c then everything does the opposite and it all works opposite from c to 2c then from 2c to 3c the whole thing starts again but it all depends on the asymtote for this it is horizontal for linear go cx 2cx 3cx for K(K(x)) K is kozak go cxx then 4cxx then 9cxx now for ccxx then the kozak involves multiplying by c as n K(K(cx)) etc. also combos in this dimension the combo is sine and constant objects traveling in staight lines at constant speed and things cycling as I said before thus all these corrections are now made now how can they be inverts but one is c and the other is infinity because it switches between v and sqrt(c*c-v*v) so at c it is reeally zero and once switched the v1 does what the v did also the constant of mv changes and goes linearly to infinity then at v is c mass would be infinity now basically the mass attracts more and more to infinity it does neither then other side repels (or repel to attract) now light goes zero and backwards because it slows down and zero mass etc. now the horizontal then 2c is in a parallel dimension or n*c is parallel dimensions and same mass staying in motion or not now linear K(x) then when accelerate object by one then release then it accelerates itself by one as in acceleration is what velocity was and velocity is what distance was in terms of mass then K(K(x)) then acceleration of acceleration was what acceleration was etc. also constant force changes acceleration in K(x) etc. then in K(x) is linear non parallel dimension but K(x) with added constant to e^(m*m*v*v/2) then those would be parallel dimensions and same with two K(K(x)) just add a constant for parallel dimension but also curve must be same shape and constant for parallel dimensions between parabolas and to get e^x curve then K(x) to K(K(x)) so now the kozak function itself is kozaked!!! and this s done by taking a function sequence machine and the beginning and end branch all to the derivative signals in installation machines installing functions now combos is add the kozak functions and the sine just go sin(v) is m and do it the way I showed how except do not derive sin(v) then m is ((v^2)*sqr(sin(m*m*v*v/8)) plus c because of 1+sin(2v) and c is unit to get linear and cycle dimensions with speed of light in this dimension!!! now how does something accelerate itself but not create energy I mean it does but how well the dimensions of length width height and time well now length turns into dimension A and B width C and D height E and F time G and H so now you have eight dimensions and for exponential an infinite number of dimensions as in 4 times 2^(n-1) the n at exponent is infinite or sine is cycle with same for any situation etc. now function to derivative signals of another function machine those functions to derivative or first machine to those functions and derive process and integrate also now this is kozak of kozak of kozak functions etc. so now e^(x*x) for asymtote etc. so now 4 times 2^(n-1) n is infinity squared in this dimension and combos can be any number of dimensions of anything now kozak then the following 2u/(1+u*u) is v is e^(-v*u*u) then both sides are partial n terms of u ad v is constant and that works as long as both sides are d(uv)/dv so integrate both sides to ln(1+u*u) is (-1/v)*e^-(v*u*u) then e^((-1/v)*(e^(-v*u*u))) is 1+u*u or 1 is 1+u*u or u is zero then 2u/(1+u*u) is zero also now c is one then 1/sqrt(1-v*v) then 1/(1-v*v) is e^(m*m*v*v) then multiply both sides by 2v and integrate then ln(1-v*v) is (1/m*m)*e^(m*m*v*v) then exponent e to both sides then 1-v*v is one with a little algebra then v is zero then mass is at one again so when mass hits infinity it is one when velocity hits infinite it is zero but how then is it c in tracer because tracers are zero mass at rest and the velocity in tracers is not the velocity approaching infinite see in tracers there is a zero at top as in m0 times 1/sqrt(1-v*v) and if the tracers were not light speed then there would be no infinity at light speed so intial mass is always zero until light speed see in non tracers at rest the mass starts at one so initial mass is never zero in this case!!! now c*infinite tracer is c*infinite speed second is light speed and third is axis speed which can change so then the engolfers go axis speed relative then that is why engolfers can make all kinds of shapes and energy levels in the atom now the third tracer is also non tracer actual particle!!! now if initially increasing it switches from sine to cosine but if initially decreasing it switches from cosine to sine and if it is direct proportion with (and no integrating or deriving) distance then it switches at f(20) otherwise at f(0) and 0 is feta the angle not necessarilly zero and velocity is the only thing that switches at both as in at f(20) then again at f(0) where 0 or 20 goes to pi/2 etc. and f is function of cosine or sine also some of this stuff I just typed may be error so corrections now remember mass is one s really one unit of the indeteriment which is any finite value now when at 0 is pi/2 mass is when infinite goes to one then back when switching if the switching stops as 0 is pi/2 mass is finite and for the surrounding it only approaches as well as other things switching at that point it all only approaches infinite not reach infinite now when on other side of switch and feta is still increasing thing move away from same infinite they were approaching and it is sometimes negative infinite and sometimes positive infinite etc. now how in the world does r go to zero times infinity well simple r is 2*sin(0)*cos(0)/zero to approach 2*cos(0) for (1/2)*E (m*v*v is E) or sin(20) then sin(0) is zero and cos(0) is one but divided by zero the zero times infinite!!! also in container explosive keep the gas density as liquid density also make sure to take in then powerise then resine after rewavestarter etc. to whatever frequency and amplitude etc. also say if making the blocks hollow and putting charged sunstances inside in polarizer then the temperature hits the ions and the light also hits the ions then the ions make light then otherwise same story of the polarizer is the same!!! (sin(0))/zero is to one when feta goes to one then the other side cosine becomes sine and vice versa then (sin(0))/zero times cosine again but now they switched so initially before switch leaving infinity times zero but after then what left zero goes to infinity and what goes to zero left infinity etc.!!! as in (infinity,0) for 2*pi to pi/2 then (0,infinity) etc.!!!!! now huge correction the sine wave in cycloid rotation of tracer is increasing above and below light speed to c+band c then in speed wave c+b at top then c+(1/2)*b*sqrt(2) at forward node then c at bottom then on next backward node then c+(1/2)*b*sqrt(2) then c+b at next top now first multiply by p/2  then subtract p*b/2 from speed wave then speed multiplies by p=b*sin(0) or p=b*cos(0) then c+p*b/2 then c then c+(1/2)*b*p then c all linear and because of the -p*b/2 it is now c+(1/2)*p*b then c then c+(1/2)*p*b then c etc. the because the wave effect cancels also make wave speed go same or sin(0) and cos(0) and then plug this all in to the system then some things are constant the rotation the slide etc. some things are not as in speed of tracer along wave etc. but tracer speed along wave is sin(0) or cos(0) because of the waves behaving as mirror positve at 90 degrees and v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) is distance in wave but feta moves twice for one distance etc. and then wave is sin(0) or cos(0) but speed wave is cos(0) or sin(0) etc. otherwise the wave would be choppy and the movement of particle would be choppy so everything is c plus (a/2)*sin(2x) etc. and it makes sense because now everything is working cooperatively and agreeing now speed does this because the tracer spins like a regular particle or like a photon and so the mass by rotation changes sine wave wise and the angle is half by two oppositely rotating tracers but same with twice friction as particles then the speed is twice and 1/2 by two and 1/2 particles instead of one so c plus sin(2x) is everything because that is the dimension so now everything is still true just multiply speed frequency ratio to axis wave frequency instead of 2:1 is 1:1 otherwise everything else is the same also c+b greater then than c+(1.2)*b*sqrt(2) etc. now tracers really have average as c but not always c also in tracers are same becuase the wave cancels making it like a photon then two rotations one opposite then the friction is twiice to make it back to sin(0) or cos(0) so listen to early information way in the past on this as well!!! now anything with direct proportion to distance with no integration and no derivative follows same exact pattern as radius with possible exceptions also the following s true on neighboring cylinders the cylinders when spreading apart increase in mass and warp space more to make new cylinders to keep their mass the same because more mass is more energy and ofcourse when gathering the reverse happens otherwise the cylinders would keep moving away but where did that energy come from or go and the distance between cylinders is always infinitely small and all this true on neighboring cylinders an so isn't the following now if a cylinder escapes then there is no making or destroying cylinders since that cylinder has its own energy independently and possibly the distances in neighboring cylinders may vary or be the same in a lobe otherwise the same but may vary or be the same between particles and all this is true on neighboring cylinders thus warped space is energy!!! now what happens to radius of particle of tracer of distance from other particle of all radiuses etc. all are connected and get same treatment also the length of a lobe is tiny number between one and zero times radius from particle to sphere axis also the shape wobble axis change rate general speed and rotation rate and all characteristics of cylinder determine particle size and all characteristics of particle also when a cylinder in another out if in same state of energy because otherwise unwanted change of energy!!! now at 1/infinite dimensions can be anything since infinitely small is equal no matter what also the reason particle and cylinder cannot be changed is it would take infinite energy to change it remember zero*infinite is finite change also when I speak of particle or cylinder I am referring to all or every one of the characteristics and cylinder is why particle stays the same!!! but remember you can make a particle transfer but cylinders stay the same so you just cannot make a particle change on its own when it is cylinder verse cylinder then the finite change etc. but cylinder verse cylinder only if they have same angle of wobble and are parallel in instant clicks or constantly or else no force and no cylinder transfer of energy now in the integration of kozak equation to prove mv is constant the integration for one side is a constant or zero dmdv or k dv or kv and then it is increasing constant by v which can be anything and remember these kinds of integrations for anything now force is 1/square when mv and Aw are linear increasing by the two v's thus this for constants is so far everything!!!! now if all going in reverse then mv and Aw decrease linearly and force increase by a square etc. and decrease can mean 1/(x*x) or two decreasng x's multiplied also in radius with two seperate particles feta divides by 2 because of situation then go sin(0) to cos(0) for all distance related phenomina including radius amplitude of lobes and lobes and waves share the same stories and and also mass energy time go from sin(0) to cos(0) for everything now since that happens radius looses a trigonometry function as well as any distance or anything that used to go sin(20) or cos(20) then radius goes to infinite because no zero and mass to definite because no infinite so when no switch the radius looses cos(0) but mass looses sin(0) of course all divided by the zero also for radius take out cos(0) all because mass starts at one times definite value and radius starts zero!!! now when doing this mass and radius in these situations were initially sin(20) also mass is always at infinite well remember m0 then m0 wants it at zero so m*m0 is actual mass and for radius r1 wants it at zero etc. so now everything is finite but mass is infinite regular then how well that is when m0 becomes finite non zero like in m0 times c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) etc. now m0 is always 1/infinite values and r1 also since it corresponds to m0 but m0 gets non zeroed but not r1 or energy would be zero without mass being zero!!! now everybody follows this pattern of story and pattern of behavior some 45 degree switched reversed some 90 degree switched also the reason for the r1 and m0 is because the m0 is starting as zero and multiplying and same with r1 because radius zero is already finite energy!!! thus 1/infinite moves is finite energy moves but when at finite it changes like mass because m is r thus mass and radius related and all to energy now at beginning one has sin(0)/zero or one well not to worry at very beginning the m0 and r1 have not multiplied yet so why the division of zero well to explain the infinite factor is mass and radius and energy now in most cases mass is cos(0) now times m0 also the swiches in other situations changes mass ad radius relationships and between r and r1 to m and m0 as well but m always winds up as cos(0) at first then the other at second in these switches for everyone and the swiches are the 45 degree switches now the 90 degree is for mass time and energy in all situations now the force between two particles the situation changes like this and does all this because the two seperate spins and energy!!! now the mass can be zero or one at start as long as radius picks the other trigonometry function also r1 stays infinitely small because m*v*v/r1 then r1 is zero squared and with finite velocity with square root effect because of linear r1 is now just zero!!! because v*v1 is r1 then v is sqrt(r1) then the square effect is v is r1 now in these cases I am not talking of equalities just relations ad proportions by zero and infinite!!! now what I am saying is r1 stays as zero m stays at infinite m0 stays at zero and r stays at infinite all of these the whole time except at the last moment on the c the m0 is non zero finite only on v is c but cosine is for things that start large and go small or decrease and sine is for things that start small and go larger or increase now the mass will decrease at radius decrease in the two particles and this is the only relation where both radius and mass are f(0) where it is 0 and not 20 so both radius and mass take the same trigonometric function now for mass increasing when radius decrease before switch radius takes f(20) and mass takes the other function but only f(0) and finally radius increasng when mass increasing after switch both take the same function but remember f(20) for radius and f(0) for mass and remember the switch switched the trigonometric functions around so now whatever is picked the other is picked instead or rreally the same one speaking from the swtiches point of view so remember the mass does not switch at 45 degrees but at 90 degrees the radius at 45 degrees also remember whatever radius does anything of distance wavelength amplitude does etc. and mass time and energy does whatever mass does as in anything of mass or time or energy but this means same excect treatment and story also in the two particle thing do not divide or multiply radius by zero or infinite and do not divide or multiply mass by zero multiply mass by zero or infinite but radius now has it so m0 does not give out because a trigonometric function helps it to zero and velocity and radius have the same exact story with possible exceptions and at radius zero mass is one or still finite so mass is still finite so in the two particles mass finite no matter what!!! also mass is zero in the other situations when radius zero so remember divide both trigonometeric functions each by zero at 0 and now also when it comes to 20 then divide both sin(20) and cos(20) each by zero and for mass divide both sin(0) and cos(0) each by zero etc. now m0 does not start out as a non zero multiplicative it muliplies at the beginning as well as all the way through now it goes function1*function2*function3 the first two are not trigonometric functions and maybe not even the last one since v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) where v is linear and v or sqrt(c*c-v*v) as well and the first two are mass and radius and mass is time now when m0 approach non zero in this but in light it hits non zero suddenly this is because light has no infinite or division of zero but remember m0 is always zero until the end now mv is c/(v*sqrt(c*c-v*v)) because they are both constant and mass is energy as in m*v*v is mass is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) also now when integrating c/(v*sqrt(c*c-v*v)) one gets  ln(v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) plus 1/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) then e^mv then 1/(1-v) is m but then m is e^mv then m is exponential when v is de-exponential but mass is 1/v so it all works then mv is indeed linear and for similiar reasons Aw or Av is also linear now 1/sqrt(1-v*v) dv is m dv then 1/v is 1/sqrt(1-(1/(m*m))) then m dv is arcsin(v) is 1/v dm is m/sqrt(m*m-1) dm then the sqrt(m*m-1) is arcsin(v) then 0 is arcsin(v) then 0*0 is m*m-1 then 0 is v/sqrt(1-v*v) is m then 0 is mv is linear thus 0 is moving at linear rate to everything changing!!! now why well this is a sine wave dimension to integrate twice to get a constant as well so this is the proof!!! now in the particle accelerator there is a kozak machine without magnets plates or magnets and no mvv or velocity or mass or magnetism etc. and no 'r' and no 'd' and no sine functions or any cosine or trigonometric functions etc. only x and the x is the function machine and to the relay directly into all x's of relay from the signal and it still has insulation and signals x and with a freeze circuit and it is unit current and relay is main current also otherwise everythng else stays the same and keep expo and replace magnetism and mass with expo's and keep the whole function machine for signal system and relay system and only signal system and relay system now exist but other systems still exist just not the ones for the magnets plates and particles also the finished x goes into x's for relay and the relay forms signal system only in this particular machine by a direct circuit with insulation and all relay x 's directly receive from direct branch from entire signal system and the entire signal system is used I call this the derived accelerator machine and the function machine is for both signal and relay machine in this and original accelerator now used the derivaed machine on the accelerator and everywhere and on the last function machine modification creates infinite power in finite time and for finite time!!! now cb-ca and d-a the cancel is where the parallel circuit connection cancels the effect of remote as I said a while ago now thall relay x's recive freezer from branch relay in accelerators ad everything else as well and defnitely use simple or tricks everywhere where energy wants to perhaps back up and use it anywhere period also in derived accelerator exclude whatever is not needed because of particles magnets and plates thus energy is circulating but not increasing just circulating faster but energy is not actually created since the same power will cut out as well as it formed!!!! so now since power flowing in faster then out of particles then the particles are infinite velocity but not mass it is finite mass because of kozak nature see m is 1/v and because velocity gets the increase domination!!!!! now v was 1/(e^x) why did v add these terms and integrate well mv was a constant to integrate to linear then if m did it would not be a linear and velocitiy is the independent variable thus that is why now the same for Aw where A is kind of like the mass and w is kind of like velocity but remember these are for constants now in Aw the velocity switches at 45 degree so then it reverses and same for mv at 90 degrees also go d/(d+a) or d+a-a and cb/(cb+ca) or cb+ca-ca now take all this into account and Aw is not  to be Av as in don not go Av go Aw and remember earlier information now ah oh the Aw decrease linearly before switch no problem the radius relation to mass is negative before switch and amplitude follows it as well as wavelength etc. remember I am talking of constants in linear behavior in Aw and mv thus it all makes sense etc.

Saturday, August 20, 2016

the powersteppers and pulsers and other things

now in the last post right before the split and on each parallel cirucit right after split and on each parallel circuit right before meet and on the circuit right after the meet and before and after all other circuits in pulsers and powersteppers use simple or trick simpe rectifiers and when I say use trick or simple rectifiers everywhere I mean everywhere now I want all unit currents coming from main current of before current in pulser in powerstepper before split and I want them all with insulation to keep energy requirement input small and increase radical like exponential or something like that  etc. and everything applied to pulsers and powersteppers is optional for most and apply all ths to relay system etc. now I prefer to only go by amps ratio and insulation the same etc. but if you want use these options to make more power in the pulsers and powerstepper powerheads and everywhere else and relay system can also use individual sine and linear powerheads etc. now whether the cylinders are parallel or not the relative speed in first tracers are c*infinite or c in higher tracers second and third but it is like in a rope the perpendicular wave has no effect well same for non parallel cylinders and tracers blow it up to three dimensional so non parallel means the other cylinders would seem light speed times infinite or just light speed but in parallel it would actually be c*infinite or c also if two tracers are going c to each other then the speed of the particles would be smooth for earlier reasons and that would be the axis relative speed thus things get really interesting now the finite or infinite number of cylnders second tracer is exactly like the infinite small one cylinder tracer except one cylinder average speed is c*infinite and infinite number of cylinders average speed is c only and sine wave because the tracers cycloid in circles to make the dimensions go sine and this is for everything now in dark matter there is straight no waves because cylinders always repel and attract because always parallel although still circling and sine but always parallel to no apparent circular activity thus huge energy in dark matter and no waves or light also no actual waves and no lobes because parallel is constat repel or attract not wave but in clicking it is repel and not or attract and not to make cycling wave to reduce energy now a click will hold the cylinder from infinite to finite and the non click region is 1/infinite and the click region is 1/(sqr(infinite)) [or 1/sqr(infinite)] then the waves go 1/(infinite) because the cylinders wobble an infinite number of times in and out of hold to time it right but the cylnders are going infinte making the lobes and all waves finite now in the second and third tracers go finite and waves finite ad everythng is finite when not refering to cylinders which are c*infinite so in the wobbles the woble s infinite fast when the timing of clicks is finite thus finite divided by infinite non click and click is infinite/(sqr(infinite)) etc. now 2*tangent/(1-sqr(tangent)) or 2*sine*cosine/(2*sqr(cosine)-1) which ever makes sence see sin(nfinite) and cos(infinite) the answer comes out 1/zero for 90 degrees at 2*infinite after 45 degrees infinite etc. now the first second and third tracers are not exactly alike but are similiar with exceptions and this is a correction now in general relativity where radius finite and force finite and non zero then to special relativity where everything is the same as general except radius is infinite then all properties of general are also in special with exceptions including discrete energies that is why light is discrete energy and electrons also discrete energy in straight line special relatvity and special and general relativity same wth exceptions in terms of everything including energy and discrete means definite values with no in between energy now why is discrete energies still finite in special relativity well it is really 1/infinite changes because the radius is infinite making changes 1/infnite but to radius that would be finite since radius is infinite now in length of sine is (cos(0))/2 plus 0 then 0 is really 2v also in axis the ratio must be 2 or cos(0) zero for agreement on energy and maybe sin(20) for length of cosine and from positve to make it right then one cycle energy two cycles etc. to discrete energies and 2 ratio because (1/2)*m*v*v so (1/(1-z)) times dz/dv times dy/dv then times dv/dz to get sqr(dv/dm) times sqr(dm/dv) with the kozak proof of dmdm/dv is sqr(dm/dv) and then dydy/(dvdv) is dmdm/(dvdv) then square root both sides then times first side by dv/dz to get then the original sqr(dm/dv) to get one time dm/dv then intregal of dm in terms of dv is minus cos(2v))/2 plus 2v and v is the length of the axis which is pi/2 if height is one on sin(x) x is one to one linear and you can go sqrt both sides because these are integrands not values although they represent values and you can exchange one for the other also why is dv/dz for right side but dy/dv for right side well for first you want both sides in terms of dv and for second you are just multiplying a value or integrand to get the correct intregal for right side so for left it is a value for right it is an integrand to get correct intregal etc. now remember the d(m*m)/dv is the same as sqr(dm/dv) by kozak vector proof and correct these errors if they are errors etc. also when integrand then all constants go to zero and in z+y when I siad x*x when I said x to zero I really ment dx*dx and dx to zero now apply the polarizer to the frequency of light per turn motor and apply the thruster method to the accelerator and apply all those methods of magnetic thruster and accelerator light and particle for accelerator and magnetic thruster apply all those methods to polarizer and apply polarizer to accelerator and magnetic thruster etc. and apply everything to everything now in barrier theory you go E*E but then divide both sides by sqr(k*q*q) frst but this is still a square because sqr(k*q*q) where any square is a positive then go ln(K/(r*r)) and e is E/(k*q*q) then treat e as E to get it right when k is positive anyway to get barrier theory right but also q increases when r decreases by the force but in the other situation r decreases as q decreases but according to force the first situation so if going K/(r*r) then you are doing force so even when mass is decrease force is increasing then the q*q is increasing when it comes to force but mass decreasing then it is very possible mass is sometimes the negative or invert of fields!!! now when assuming the function at a specific point or instantaneous then k*q*q/(r*r) then q would be constant when assuming force is 1/(r*r) then use r*m*v*v when assuming not that then go m*v*v/r when not taking 1/(r*r) into account also instantaneous could be the difference between two points etc. also r*m*v*v when m decreases linear force increases by a square etc. because v to invert m verses m*m cylinders and then r makes m decrease but velocity back to the same so no increase in that etc. or m*v*v/r then again force increase by a square when mass decrease and the only difference is now r is increasing etc. so remember centrifugal it is m*v*v/r but fields it is r*m*v*v etc. the first is where centrifugal the second is assuming field force and centrifugal are both equal etc. now certain things can be thought of as inverts but sometimes negative to positives and direct proportions but sometimes positive to positive also decrease radius to decrease mass and radius is invert to make mass decrease linear and k*q*q/r then k*m then m going down then invert q going up but also down because q is m then q*q in certain situations is constant and this might be a correction now sometimes when not involving k*q*q the q's are constant in general relativity and special relativity but sometimes when involving k*q*q the q's are proportional to mass see when in general relativity with particles and special relatvity with particles because force inverts the q as well it is all constant but if function of m is set equal to other function of q then q must change because q is really mass but if just involving mass then that is it otherwise when involving force and mass q is the same then k*q*q then q changes but involving force and energy q is constant as in some situations q is constant some situations q varies where involving force with mass in relativity it is the same and sometimes even perhaps mass is 1/q so it depends on the situation now in cos(v) is m then kozaked is [m*sqrt(1-m*m) plus arcsin(m)]/2 is m*m*v*v/2 then similiar to sin(v) is m is minus [m*sqrt(1-m*m) plus arcsin(m)]/2 is m*m*v*v/2 then m is cos(v) plus sin(v) is arccsin(m) is m*m*v*v/2 then m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) then e^(x) is m then ln(m) is x then x is v*v then integrate to v*v/2 is ln(m)/2 then [-m+mln(m)] is m*m*v*v/2 then e^((m*v*v/2)+1) is m so e*(e^(m*v*v/2)) and so since e^(v*v) then dx/dv then 2v*(e^(v*v)) then integrate to get e^(v*v) is M or intregal of m then go sqr[cos(v)+sin(v)] or e*(e^(sin(2v))) then take the multiple constant e's out then e^(m*v*v/2) for e^(sin(2v)) then m is 2*cos(2v) then the term is M now composite kozak is m is e^(v*v*sin(m*m*v*v/2) but the 2v*(e^(v*v)) and 2*cos(2v) effects cause M is e^(v*v*sin(M*M*v*v/2)) then m is e^(2*cos(2v)) then M is intregal of e^(2*cos(2v)) so the kozak approximation to get intregal of e^(2*cos(2v)) just make the cycle and it is like a series only it is a circular approximation and you do not need a series of expressions just one expression!!! now kozak meaning cos(v)/v then cos(v) then sin(v) then that is sqrt(1-m*m) then integrate that mass formula also I said cos(v)/v then (1+sin(2v))/(v*v) for sin(m*m*v*v/2) is m then go v*v*sin(m*m*v*v/2) is M so now it is e^((v^4)*sin(M*M*v*v/2)) to get M or intregal of m or intregal of e^(2*cos(2v)) thus now it works!!! now in the (1-e^(mv)) theorieseverything remains true even with the modifications and the universe as a whole would shrink in distance then mass is infinite for whole universe total not for each particle so since mass is infinite then the universe is infinite when inside and 1/infinite when outside or really out of the universe s in other dimensions and vice versa so when past light speed then in much larger world!!! now m is [1+sin(2v)]/(v*v) then m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) then go m*v*v then that is v*v*sin(m*m*v*v/2) then the new m is [1+sin(2v)] then the new m is old m times v*v then the new m is v*v*sin(m*m*v*v/2) then the derivative so now it is M instead of m or M is v*v*sin(M*M*v*v/2) etc. then M*v*v to get (v^4)*sin(M*M*v*v/2) then finally [e^((v^4)*(sin(M*M*v*v/2)))] is M etc. also go e^(x) is m then 2*v*(e^(v*v)) is m then e^(v*v) is M and work from there!!! then (ln(M))/2 is v*v/2 then -M+Mln(M) is M*M*v*v/2 then -1+ln(M) is M*v*v/2 then e*(e^(M*v*v/2)) is M then composite the functions etc. now the other way is say m is (e^(sin(mv))) then composite function is simply substitution to make it work and keep mass along on left side of equation so you have the truth and no mess up in function all this for kozak and antikozak also earlier information says m is sin(mv) antikozaked is v/sqrt(1+v*v) and (e^v) antikozaked is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) then compose to 1/sqrt(1-((v*v)/(1+v*v))) or sqrt(1+v*v) is antikozak of m is e^(sin(mv)) and what I did with e^(2*cos(2v)) is kozaked so the antikozak of m is e^(sin(mv)) is the rate the parabola is increasing in length if v is constant moving one unit or really c also in composite you want the right formula now the speed of a car along a parabola when v increasing constant unit is when m is e^(sin(mv)) so m gets closer and closer to speed of car but now the build is when it build function and it will but when the right initial value is put in the build approaches a definite value and in these cases that could be any value but in some certain initial values will make it build and run away like in most cases I have talked about but now you know that the build of m e^(sin(mv)) now the speed of the car will speed up for v axis and v axis will slow down for speed of car so the speed agree this is where the kozak equation comes in now they agree or try to agree on the same speed because v does not like zero ad car does not like infinite!!! now in m*v*v/r then r decreases and m increases then v increases but then v decrease (for tracer) to cancel the cylinder number mass square increase effect then mass increase and frequency higher by smaller radius thus frequency to mass also when velocity v and v1 shift then it goes the other way then v decreases then increases and to cancel the cylinder mass square increase effect now in velocity of non tracer the constants change then take into account the distance squared as in m*v*v/r divided by 1/(r*r) to get r*m*v*v then r decrease and mass increase then v*v increase to make force increase by square but if mass decrease and r increase then v*v decrease but when velocity v1 to v switch it goes the other way also remember mv and Av or Aw counteracts force to make everything make sense because when mass increase v increases to increase constant and when Aw then when velocity increase and A decrease then w is square effect then Aw increase constant see Av and Aw are different see A is r and go v increase then rw or Aw increase constant so remember the cosine and sine rule wth sqrt(c*c-v*v) or v1 and then v etc. now when switching then v increases to increase mass instead of decrease and then it expands instead of contract for cylinder effect to cancel etc. and that is what I mean by the other way and in non tracer velocity the velocity switches so velocity increases instead of decrease then mass increase instead of decrease and cylinder effect cancel velocity effect and radius increase and force decreases by a square instead of increase now m increase when velocity decrease then m*v*v but times A*T then energy increases and m*v*v*A*T then energy decreases but in satelite effect the cylinder effect is gone so now closer is mass decrease and farther is mass increase then m*v*v*A*t for energy and between T and 't' represents the switch of velocities so all this is cleared up so switch then again it reverses but in this case you no longer go cos(2v) which is related directly to cos(v)*cos(v) you go cos(v) because the square of number of cylinders is not a factor anymore so past light speed the energy ncreases and mass increases clooser to the attract and both decrease apart then the attract is really repel and repel becomes attract then in a blackholeon inside the attract would be repel and the object would get spit right back out so it stays on the photosphere!!! but there is no gravity net force inside well that is because if two things were inside they would repel see a blackhole works like a gravitation van der graugh generator and inside is just space but it would have to go past light speed buy gravity energy transformation!!! now listen to all this information and listen to all earlier information and listen to all the information I ever gave and ever will give!!! now in all cases go T*m*A*v*v or t*m*A*v*v and v or v1 before any switch v after any switch v1 or sqrt(c*c-v*v) and this perpendicular switch will make T as -1/t then 't' is minus (sqrt(c*c-v*v))/c and T is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) so so take absolute value but remember the repel happens to attract and vice versa so keep minus in mind and for 45 degree switchers in angle again keep minus in mind now in tracer cases when mass increase then velocity same then m*v*v then energy increase in axis velocity cases when mass increase then T*A*m*v*v where velocity decreases and mass increases energy but in switch then velocity will now increase so in energy decrease go t*A*m*v*v now in satelite cases mass decrease when velocity increase and vice versa so T*m*A*v*v for mass increase and for vice versa go t*m*A*v*v aso v can be v1 or v well i think that covers it all!!! now when going opposite way of relativity to decrease it without the particle size taken into account but only position in satelite effect then when going r*m*v*v the v*v increases and mass decreases and 'r' decreases then force is constant without 1/(r*r) then q is constant also if 'r' is increasing then m is decreasing then velocity is increasing then force increase by a square then q is increasing and decreasing then it is constant so toward relativity it all reverses then still q is constant and when velocities switch so doesn't 'r' then 'r' increases mass only in some cases then and velocity slows mass it is just a switch then also when going take square of cylinder particle size into account then so what that just means more cylinders the same thing happens to each cylinder thus q is constant so k*q*q/(r*r) mass increase q force drop ituare so q liniear but only linear for the satelite or cylinder thus just go k*q/(r*r) so that covers that thing now in distortion equation or barrier equation and anywhere where only force is n play or anywhere where oonly mass is in play q is not constant but changes and in mass m is q in force it is k*q*q/(r*r) and do the same thing to all magnets as all plates and vice versa both with exceptions now r*m*v*v for the axis v because of constants now the r*m*v*v where r decreases and m increases because r you are going 1/(r*r) factor to reverse what r does to m but in m*v*v/r it should only the cylinder number factor then decrease r increases m then v*v increase then decreases m overall linear also r increasing then m increase then v*v increase to m decrease now some of this is reversing some s switch then switch is when the velocity hits 45 gegrees and then switches ad reverse just means do the opposite without switching and switch is switch velocities v1 and v and then go r increase now in r*m*v*v then it is really r*m*v1*v1 where v1 is sqrt(c*c-v*v) then v1 is decreasing but v s still increasing!!! and invert the velocity effect for certain things in the relativty like mass force energy and time and amplitude and maybe others also also intregal of e^cos(v) is M where M is e^((v^4)*sin(M*M*v*v/8)) then intregal of e^(sin(v)) is M where M is e^((v^4)*cos(M*M*v*v/8)) then that is because of arccos(v) effect and if contents are negative inside cosine function it does not care positive or negative same thing ofcourse not to worry you will get positive arccos(v) now for tangent go sine/cosine then intregal of e^(tan(v)) is simple M is e^(cot(M*M*v*v/8)) etc. now one other thing why is tracers treated like cylinder number factor stuations well the tracers ARE every cylinder or small particle in the small particle or larger particle now in the tracer itself not counting the cylinder of particle number effect go m*v*v/r where m/r is always constant then v*v is increasing or decreasing then m*m is decreasing or increasing oppositely thus it is always constant because first v increases then mass with it the v decreases then m*m with it then net is mass decreasing with larger amplitude and all vice versa and this all depending on frequency and ampltude higher frequency is more mass and less amplitude etc. now the infinitely small tracer is the cylinder and all the other cylinders same with second tracer as in the small particle and all the other particles and same in third tracer etc. now the phase shift is velocty of wave is velocity of what the tracer produces and for finite it goes sin(w+2*pi) is light speed then the phase shift is under that or everything freezes and at c/2 everything switches and sin(2v) for velocity switch since velocity is v and v1 and w is whatever wave entails see v*v1 for vertcal times horizontal or area by integration and D or distance is intregal of that and and D is length of particle tracer pathso regardless past 2*pi or c is everything is standing still which would not make sense unless kozak theory where the velocity and distance relationship changes now for tracer tself only lght speed but the phase shift can be messed with where everything else is past light speed!!! now push disk and central magnets in all accelerators and magnetic thrusters all get treated exactly the same with exceptions and central is attract increase to repel decrease etc. and push is repel for both and central repel for outward movement all with exceptions etc. now in push magnet as well as all other magnets that have m*v*v/r and 1/(d*d) which very possibly means all the magnets then for the 1/(d*d) go x*x but for 1/r go x etc. now in magnets the push simply attracts toward the center and the 'd' for magnets is how far from center and the 'd' for plates is how far from plates or how far from midway to plates and the x for radius should be to center and for magnets to center and for inner plate if farther out and for plates if farther out x is decreasing on the increase and increasing on the decrease and this would be counter x and is used when the plate is farther out then the particles now this may not all be correct so use x and counter x accordingly play it by ear and attract or repel acordingly play it by earnow lobe width or 1/frequency and height or amplitude follow the size of particle and number of cylinders and lobes except square root and for finite tracers the same thing is done to infinite fast tracer or cylinder except multiply all of it by infinite also in switch the m*v*v/r where m/r is constant in the switch it is m*v1*v1/r like everywhere else also number of lobes is changing with the cylinders except it is finite and the cylinders move at infinite speeds also the lobes can go one and a fraction for a weird example but then it is moving as though it is slower two or faster one etc. just play it all by ear and use logic and the number of lobes is proportional to the number of cylinders except divide by infinite also the lobes are really the tracer particle to make itself appear as more than one particle and cycloid into waves or lobes just like in cylinders and cylinder tracer except divide by infinitenow sin(2v) is where it at 45 hits 90 and reverses now v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) is sin(20) not sin(2v) so when I say sin(2v) or anything like it I really mean sin(20) or something like that when it comes to this stuff but the distance shrinks linearly by amplitude decrease and wavelength decrease by frequency increase also at 90 the minimum value like an extrema anyway the v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) is sin(20) and 0 changes linearly and 0 is feta not necessarily zero anyway the v thus changes linearly so the extrema and mirror is key to switch but when time for sin(0) switches and mass time energy force etc. and anything that is not velocity or amplitude or radius etc. is sin(0) and the graph is really cos(0) as well and cos(20) as well and the opposite after 90 degrees is a mirror negative thus force is negative to make fields reverse forces

Thursday, August 4, 2016

major update on distortion theory another things

now whatever happens in kozak physics happens in einsteinium physics with possibly exceptions also when going sqrt(c*c-v*v) is x then x*(1-e^(-v)) is x then go x*((1-e(-mv))) and m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) now the reason for this is the x on both sides and the pattern of treatment of x go at light speed then ((1-e^(-c*infinite))) also the universe since infinite speed is zero speed is now at light speed of v but mass is not velocity so infinite then x is c and x*1 is zero or vce versa so also x is sqrt(c*c-v*v) it is simply v1 so factor in this correction because this reaction to velocity is perpendicular or sqrt(c*c-v*v) also the past proof says so thus x*((1-e^(-mv))) is distortion so thus at zero no distortion it is one but at light speed it is distorted to zero thus velocity is zero then the universe is an infinitely small point now so all cylinders are one and if not parallel then the effect is like a perpendicular if parallel then not perpendicular then if going x1 then x1*((1-e^(-mv1))) but x1 is v and all velocities are distorted the same because all are velocities but sqrt(c*c-v*v) is distance so distance so mv is a constant then kqq/r is mvv then v is m (mv is constant) then mv is c/(v*sqrt(c*c-v*v)) now integrate then mv is linear now f charge not change wth mass it still works because mass still changes with number of particles with charge then that explains the mv in the exponent above so th x is distorted like this also but that is distance ten no distance now this does not need the original theory of velocity to infinite to zero but this theory says at finite thus the universe and distance really are zero!!! now multiply only v as a variable standing alone by sqrt(2) in that certain situation for example do not do it to v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) or any part of it etc. now remember thefunction build curves the derivatives so then the perpendicular spiral and cycloid slow down less because the acceleration jumps ahead by jump theory and so then once perpendicular is moving that fast at that actual speed forward then it stays like that because nothing is slowing it down or speeding it up unless change speed forward also with cycloid the perpendicular is vertical up and down same thing then the speed of the tracer is changing but still below light speed but pattern says it will eventually go faster then light speed also the derivative fools it then the damage is permenant by inertia the if accelerated this way then only when close to light speed will the dimension fade be apparent also when mass will be less per speed so the deceleration will be that much easier to put it back  but still under light speed with a build or a spectacular function but if keep doing it then past light speed also so it goes in other dimensions but once it accelerates it is permenant but when releasing the force the shock increases the effect of inertia and it is right back in this dimension!!! but when permenant it does not have to keep out running mass!!! now when distorting go (v1)*((1-e^(-mv)))^(Kv1) because of the way the equation is see AB=A means A=ABB etc. then go B to the A but remember it goes by A not the variable inside B!!! also in blackholes the fields must be intense for such dimensional behavior now take several dfferent wavestarters with different waves sie them ad make different phase shifts to start them all at once then put in place of just one wavestarter with just one wave and put in injector or just use those initial waves to injector or change a wavestarter or a few simultaneously and abruptly in the curve where derivative is zero at the instant also in psychicness you can tell the past and future and go beyond time even because you are now seeing the whole film strip or hologram also you can change a wavestarter gradually the options are endless also deja vou  is when the path of the universe intersects where it was in the past also when I say function I mean anything paths anything also in psychic take the feeling of deja vou and multiply it by as many times as you can possibly imagine!!! now the tracer is constant speed along circle and constant speed along perpendicular of circle with one infinity division because constant speed rule of newton and sine wave cause circle and perpendicular and actual are both sine waves and without infinite factor they are identical!!! now put freeze circuits with expo unit currents negative and positve if necessary on the wire between and around all powersteppers and pulsers in entire relay system with big exceptions and use other freeze circuits with other unit currents everywhere with possible exceptions!!! by between and around or anything like this I always mean on the wire and I do not mean make connections where there are non either after built now sometimes T is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and sometimes is (sqrt(c*c-v*v))/c and same with 't' but T and 't' are inverts sometimes now in all active magnetics and active plates go d/(d+a) not d/(d+da) because you will get 1/(1+a) which will not work!!! also all magnets actve and passive have a corresponding plate where what is done to one is doe to the other with exceptions now go sqr(dm/dv) is 1+cos(0)*cos(0) then go (1+y*y)/(1-y*y) then -1+(2/(1-y*y)) then 4y/(1-y*y) is d(sqr(dm/dv))/dv times 2 then 2y/(1-y*y) then without the times two then 1/sqr(1-z) then 1/(1-z) is sqr(dm/dv) then 2y*(dy/dv)/dv then dz/dy is 1/(2y) then 1/(1-z) times dz/dv times dy/dv puts it in terms of dvdv and the other side is go dmdm dv since you are really only squaring the dm then dm/dv because other side is dz/dv times dy/dv then dz/dv equals dmdm/dv then the dy/dv to get it to dm/dv to get the whole thing to dm dvdv then it is cos(2v)*sin(2v)*sin(2v)/(sin(2v)*sin(2v)) then 2*cos(2v) because the other side had a 4 from 0 verse v then double intregal is - minus cos(2v)/2 then in double a constant appears then -cos(2v)/2 plus 2v then minus cos(0)/2 plus 0 is length of sine wave also in force and mv are constants or changing constants canceling to constant where Aw and mv are increasing linearly then force decrease square then in m*v*v/r then the changes cancel then r decreases then mass decrease then force increase by r*r so r*m*v*v then r decreases m decreases for reasons explained then v increases also dddy(dxdxdx) is ((ddy)/(dxdx))*(y) then (dddy/dxdx)/(ddy/(dxdx)) is y dx then rght side in terms of ddy because left side dvided by ddy/(dxdx) then ddy/(dxdx) on y side to get dddy dxdxdx then other side is integrated in terms of the same then dy/y is dy but factor the 1/2 in from the original equation to get dy/2 is dy/y then lny is y/2 take it from there also at r*m*v*v the costant of r or Av and mv then force takes out both of them by counteracting with velocity as in mv and Av increasing then Avmv decreasing by a square etc. then A and m increasing and velocity increasing but if v increasing more then force making velocity increasing less shrinking the constants back etc. now actual tracer velocity not change but axis velocity of particles changes and remember the constants cancel but not the actual factors so now when force divides by square to keep the velocity the same light speed but axis also the same all constants non changing but the actual values keep changing for both see in axis the velocity changes to approach light speed to the A and m changing to it all comes out to make these complicated changes now why does force counteract like this well 1/(d*d) then 1/(c*c-v*v) then 1/(v1*v1) then negative invert for each v1 then v*v now the idea is to counteract the av and mv lnears well that is why force has v*v and each linear has only one v and the force is at c*c-v*v to decrease square instead of increasing it!!! now the fist tracer is c*infinite the second is c the third s axis speed now tracer no amplitude or frequency just mv and force so that is why the changes in axis but not the three tracers in terms of traveling velocity!!! now in force it is (1/(r*r))*m*v*v/(r/(r*r)) then multiply by m*m thus r*r to get r*m*v*v is force play around with these formulas and work these out!!! force is m*v*v/r in some situations and in other situations force is r*m*v*v and in some situatons it s constant in some situations decrease by square and in other situations incease by square and ths is all for any formula except not necessarily square now take two lines and go y and z then z*z+y*y-x*x+2y*sqrt(z*z-x*x) to get line that is leg then add x*x to get z*z+y*y+2y*sqrt(z*z-x*x) then x to zero then sqr(sqrt(z+y)) then z+y then if x multiplies by 2 then the whole line does similiar triangles then integrate to make the lines smaller and multiply infinitely when zero then (sqr(z+y))/2 then anticipation is infinitely more then when it goes to a sine then z+y becomes a sine so treat like line then integrate the sine and cosine function to get function to compplete the accuracy then derive once before reintegrating then the area will become a curve then the following ((I(z+y))*(x^2))/2! then two I's and x^3 and 1/3! to n-1 I's and x^(n-1) and 1/n! and start at 1! and no I's and I means integrate and ! means factorial and like if z is sine then integrate to minus cosine and if y is cosine integrate to sine then the next term keep doing this the inner integration becuase you changed the lines to those functions also add the resulting terms and the defnite numbers becuase it is down to 1/infinity also z+y can be a+b+c...etc. now what this does is approximate a dot to dot parttern of lines in a function to a curve to mimic this also it gives the length of the curve now in a circle it is different snce all the lines are the same and say three 'a's and then it will think it is one line so way in the past I show the length of a circle t has to do with hypoteuses and radius minus the large hyptenuse and to get radius squared minus difference squared squareroot then tat resquared plus difference square squareroot times 2^n where n is a whole number to make the circle now linear lines integrate to ((z+y)^n)/n! the 1/n! already comes out of integration so no need to put it again also the linear happens but inside are the integrations happening to function on the lines see when lne is behaving like a sine you must treat the line like that then derivative is sine of a value at that point then two derivatives initially thusit starts at (((sin(2)+cos(2))^0)*(x^0))/0! then 0 to one to 2 to 3 etc. and add the terms etc. so the intregals for function then what am I doing to those lines etc. now in the nth term the y sine is integrated n times and so is z cosine etc. this is kozak series to approximate lines to a curve and this is for like a bunch of lines as aa solution the what curve will fit best but the lines cannot zigzag and it can be used for other stuff like connection of rods what curve will hold it best etc. now when going sin(2) and integrating then do not integrate z and y on inside if wanting just the lines to curve but if wanting squares to surface area then go ahead and integrate z and y on inside thus lines to curve verses squares to surface!!! and take two derivatives also when the angles change then x change without z or y and always integrate z+y as a whole on outside etc. now if x behaving as sine then sine^n etc. and sin(x) and a definite values but first go (sin(x))^n and then x increases so (sin(x))^n etc. so (cos(x))^1 then sqr(sin(x)) then cube(-cos(x)) etc. but derive first so at first it was (-sin(x))^0 etc. and -sin(x) was original f(x) also integrate the nth time for both inside and outside but in vertical way the square is parabolic then n+1 from nth intregal for inside but if other way then n+1 from nth for outside intead also if wanting initial squares to go best fit initially then (n*n)th intregal for inside vertical for outside if other way etc. so inside integrate nth and outside integrate nth squares etc. also when going dy/y is dy dx when going in terms of x for dy/y then go dx/dy to get dx dy is dy/y then lnx is lny then y is x and constant is y is (x/2)*(e^(c*x)) because of the 1/2 in original equation thus it works also this all work everything!!! see when integrating by ddy a constant formed as c then integrated again by dx it went cx etc. now in a circle or ellipses once it follows it it wants to stay in it depending on speed along curve at a given instant and the speed in ellipse varies and it will not change since the relativity does not let it so it will not cave in or expand out and if changing internal energy of particle then it can change elipse or circle and this might effect all other electrons in atom but if shells full then you cannot change internal energy so matter holds up matter for this reason and gravity for this reason the reason is energy and relativity now in curve the lines joint in possibly two dimensions but in surface area the squares joint in three dimensions and the lines connect to ends and no zigzag and the squares connect at seams and joint at corners everything joined in all this and in squares again no zigzag thus when this happens everything works!!! now in all cases whatever power z+y s raised to on the outside x gets that power now with curve from lines then with x when going sin(2) plus cos(2) z is cos(x) and y is sin(x) then x is at two fixed value and for surface area that follows everything a curve does with big exceptions then x is integrated 'n' times now area of squares is a+b+c for three squares and then z+y is really a+b+c and regardless of varing functions the integration rules governing these sequences hold also the addition of each progressor etc. thus it all works!!! etc. now the reason x is treated similiar to z+y is they are both functions on same graph and integrations of x at sin(x) for example because the curves to surface area are integration also when it boils down to it z+y is really the y axis and inside integrate is the third axis also the curve is like the derivative of the surface area!!! now z is h(t) y is g(t) and x is f(t) then in surface area 't' increasing one to one linear always and for curve length t is only one at all times so 2t then x would always be two etc. now use a derivative cirucit after the main diode in all dioded circuits of the polarizer and the rectfiers to all these circuits the way I showed you and capacitor constant k is zero in pulsers and powerstepper and powerheads and everything except timers also in linear powerheads to sine powerheads and use it on parallel circuits for anything with maybe exceptions also powerheads and powersteppers use all this on all polarizer circuits with all four main diodes but keep it all identical also you can take the sine and go arcsine and negative and positive and then simple rectify then to linear to linear powerhead then switches to make it negative and positive again then sine wave machine then sine powerhead again also you can arcsine simple rectify derive and simple rectify then go to a wavestarter to linear and in linear you ca go to derive and simple rectify wavestarter and sine wave machine etc. the linear and sine powerheads are communicating and reinforcing each other also they are noe on parallel circuits of parallel circuits also keep everything identical also magnetic thrusters use  electricity and ony electricity then use some from the polarizer to magnetic thrusters also make sure to use the incoming for the polarizer derivatives against the current but for outgoing the derivative is for the current the possibilities are endless!!! also inside the derivative circuit a parallel circuit to integrate then treat ths exactly like the parallel circuit off of the main diode current and main diodes are completely before in incoming and completely after in outgoing also so keep derivatives and main diode currents in polarizer identical and keep everything in polarizer and everything all identical even the series and parallel cirucits with smaller diodes or whatever you are using and in some cases like signals to main current (in layer circuit you can do both just not WITH layer circuits as a whole) only parallel no series etc. now with the unknown field and distance exponent recorded use this in the non charge mass also in intregal of dx dx to intregal of dy/y then x would be lny then y is e^x then intregal of dx dy becomes lnx because now y is the linear where x was to invert the graph also in any accelerator and magnetic thruster different number of  particles and different mass accountedfor thus same thrust and forces and acceleration and velocities back and forth and around or straight line etc. everything the same with same electricity input also the disks in accelerators when slanted can mimic the push magnet but the slatned must be wider as to inner also with the resonator radio and missle guidance systems and other inventions only one man can control the missle with his brain waves!!! also the reason why adding terms in integration kozak series is a single intregal is a curve with no purpose but additions make a curve that has a purpose to the approaching limit so the curve is now more accurate with better reaction to better anticipation etc. and this holds for everything about this and everything period with exceptions now give z+y inside and outside in the given successive term only one derivative and this is only initially and each x in the given successive term one derivative and this is only initially as well and inside and outside of z+y and integrated the same numer of times as the x and this is usual but sometimes there are exceptions also the following is probably a bunch of errors or a bunch of corrections the following I am about to say about the plates and disk magnets could be either or so listen to past information as well as this information and weigh it out now say x is Fx Lx or Cx in accelerator and magnetic thruster then disks in magnetic thruster goes (sin(x))*(sin(x))/x and the integrator techniques and other techniques used in the disk plates to disk magnets that are used in missile guidance systems can also be used in magnetic thruster disks magnets with their plates of charge but only the disk charge plates for the disk magnets corresponding to the plates of charge now at first integrator system and (sin(x))*(sin(x))/x makes forward larger and backward smaller when particles move backward by -x and negative integrating downward but a switch makes forward larger and backward smaller when particles move forward  by x and positive integration upward and an option is to make disks mimic the push and central or funnel magnets now in length of sine curve both sides are in terms of dydy then go dy/dz is 1/2y then dy/dz times dy/dv then that puts it in terms of dzdv then one of the derivatives is inverted namely dy/dz to dz/dy to make dz/dv make dvdv from dzdv and dm/dv on one side to get dm dvdv then they both agree so that was becuase of square of (dmdm)/(dv) and a dv disappeared so we need dm/dv so you have so dy/dz times dy/dv is 2y(dy)/(dzdv) then dy/(dvdv) or really both sides in terms of initially nothing then dz/dv times dy/dv then in terms dvdv then then on other side 2y*dy/(dvdv) then dydy/(dvdv) then that is really dmdm/(dvdv) then dm/dv must be dy/dv so 1/(1-z) times dz/dv times dy/dv then dz/dv times dy/dv times 1/(1-z) is 2*cos(2v) dvdv the minus (cos(2v))/2 plus 2v then minus (cos(0))/2 plus 0 (0 is feta not necessarily zero) (0 is 2v) so dm/dv and dmdm dv then to dm dvdv and dmdv because dy/dv then intregal of m dv etc. now when amplitude reverses and everything goes to reverse then that is why decrease in energy proportional to energy decreases when radius smaller etc. now 2y*dy is dydy but changing like this is only good for integrands and the number of intregals must change for it and the right number of intregals will work see 2y*dy/(dvdv) well 2y itself is a derivative so all you are really saying is dydy is dydy which is true now whatever I say about powerheads is true about anywhere where they are used and the sine can be used after of before the linear one and this is all true for anything used anywhere with exceptions now remember amplitude can reverse with or without the velocity switching then when it does it will reverse everyhing or not everything now in antkozaking m is sin(mv) the 1/2 disappears because the intregal is areas by radius sweep but angle is twice canceling the 1/2 to one now d(m*m) is dmdm and alot of stuff is only for integrands except on special occassions now intregal of intregal of m in terms of dvdv then dvdv would be the integrand or dv and dv are each integrands either way of looking at it is fine either one of both may or may not always be correct!!!!! now an option is to insulate and use the before main current to a unit current and control the small freezer in the before and also the large freezer in the after larger is signals more layers and keep it identical in each freeze but not between them also the lock can be prevented by no insulation at all also you can just use insulate or non insulate to large freezer and no small freezer and the options are endless also locks are an option as well the options are endless also you can exponentialize the amplitude of the wave by layer signal to unit current with exponent etc. and the unit currents for each can be same or different and the currents can be in series or parallel the options are endless and ofcourse this is all about powersteppers and pulsers and whatever is done to powersteppers is done to all pulsers with exceptions and in pulsers the ratio of anything in before to after is one but not in powersteppers although the pulsers in powersteppers are treated like regular non timing pulsers and timing pulsers the ratio of coil is one to one but not in step pulsers and in pulsers if no freezer in before then insulate and go to after one but if freezer in before then the ratios of layer signals and everything one to one in any pulser but not powersteppers as a whole also in pulserheads and powerheads same treatment with possibly exceptions also all step down pulsers in one powerstepper parallel circuit and step up pulsers all in the other parallel circuit in powersteppersin powersteppers and remember to use simple or trick simple rectifiers everywhere in the pulsers and powersteppers so it should all work also in powersteppers whatever I said about ratios in the past as in before this way before this listen to it also remember you can go series multiple and parallel multiple but keep series identical between parallel circuits listen to all the information ever on everything now according to the integrands in kozak the (dmdm)/(dvdv) is  the same as d(m*m)/dv also for (1/2)*d(m^4)*d(v^4) go intregal of (c^4)*ln(m*m) in terms of d(m*m) then ((c^4)*ln(m*m))/(m*m) in terms of d(m^4) then take out both d(m^4)'s on both sides of the equation then c*c*c*c*sqr(ln(m*m))/2 but v^4 is divided by 2 then so take out both (1/2)'s on both sides of the equation then square root both sides of the equation the c*c*ln(m*m) is v*v by the way right before taking out the (1/2)'s you integrated the equation both sides in terms of d(m*m) but d(v^4) with the d so it can be in terms of anything anyway then t*a*t*a is ln(m*m) then time is mass then ln(m*m) is m*a*m*a etc. also you can also go T*a*T*a which ever one works now sometimes I use more than one term for the same thing or more than one thing for the same term like the rifle accelerator and the linear accelerator etc. now correction in the amps where as many amps in after current by p as before current then use p as many layers in everything in the after current as before current in pulser or powerstepper but in the amps where as many amps in after current by 1/p as before current then use 1/p as many layers in everything in the after current as before current in pulser and powerstepper and pulsers in powersteppers treated equal as any pulser with possibly exceptions also in powersteppers the after is where the after high amp current and after high volt current meet and the before is where the before current splits into two and the before split and after meet use simple or trick simple rectifers in these places and everywhere in powersteppers also pulsers are treated like powersteppers in terms of simple and trick simple rectifiers and also in terms of everything with exceptions also remember the current determines ratio of layers not power but if wanting to you can make it go by power or p*p of even above that the options are endless and I am talking about freezer circuits and all the other layer circuits and what you do to layer signals you do to all of them and you can decrease insullation by 1/(p*p) so everything is changed invertly of proportionately to the current (to allow increase if current increase) anyway to current it would be without all of this which is what I mean by amps so if wrappings of coils is two to one then amps is twice the volts half whatever the incoming current is now if one to two then volts half and amps twice also you can increase amps anyway by freezer and other things and try to keep everythng identical also you ca manipulate layers freezes insulation anything to make the power rediculous the possiblilities are endless and in powersteppers and pulsers these possibilities are the same with exceptions