Tuesday, June 28, 2016

clarification on everything and new things

 now the vdm/sqr(1-v*v) is tan(m) then dmdm/(1+m*m) then 1+m*m is e^(m/(1-v*v)) then (1-v*v)/(1-2*v*v) plus one or (3*v*v-1)/(2*v*v-1) then hypotenuse sucession rule says you are going tan(sqr(infinite)) which is still one then 2*sqr(infinite) is pi/2 etc. and if moving one radian per second then in infinite seconds at pi/4 then etc. if accelerating one per radian second square then sqr(infinite) then still pi/4 etc. now for 3*infinite 3pi/4 etc. and for infinite cubed the same things will hapen to still a one also the distortion theories works only wiithout kozak acceleration manner so if going kozak it is a different story also m is 1/sqrt(1-t*t) then mass is 1/t1 then mass is now -'t' I perpendiculared it twice and asulote value where time gets less as mass grows so mass is tied to time to increase linearly when time decreases linearly thus it all works!!! now time to move is negative because t is running out so when it takes minus infinite time to move the mass is infinite!!!! also this is all different in kozak conditions!!!!! now also why is tan(cube(infinite)) one well the infinite square is one if times by infinite but an infinite causes a one then those ones the v*v is one if v is one now these tricks can be used to get tan((infinite)^n) is one then one can use the tricks backward to get tan((infinite)^x) so no matter what it is one now for e^x being one then one will get (3*(e^v)-2)/(2*(e^v)-1) then when v is zero then one to pi/4 etc. then it goes tan((infinite)^x) where x is linear increase one to one slope which means the pi/4 increments for each movement instantaneously but infinite number of pi/4 increments or sqr(infinite) thus still one!!! so in exponential e^(infinite) when v is zero it is one to pi/4 if velocity is infinite then the limit is arctan(sqrt(3/2)) also remember for (3x-2)/(2x-1)) whether x is v or v*v or e^v make sure to square root the entire formula also when velocity is negative infinite than arctan(sqrt(2)) now the reason is in negative you are adding 1/(e^v) units instead of e^v units and even though they are both ones the limit approaches are from different perspectives to make the limites different now anywhere where taking out a T or 't' or putting it in do the same thing also in m*v is constant I really mean the velocity inside the ship then the momentum is constant from a frame looking inside the ship or within the particle etc. also a lot of times I mean otherwise and if I mean otherwise just go from sqrt(c*c-v*v) to v1 or the other v or the other velocity now by kozak equation c*c*ln(m)/m is (1/2)*m*v*v then derive both by time but mass is time then a little algebra says (1-lnT)*c*c/(T*T) then lnT is always one since the times changes with it then replace and (c*c-v*v) is p then dT/dv is cv/((c*c-v*v)^1.5) then cv/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is p (p is power) and that is mv or constant so power is constant in the ship when relativity gets ahold of it with constant force then what force is what power!!! now c*c/(T*T) then integrate back to energy -c*c/T is E then -1/T perpendicular to actual velocity of ship as whole then T is m to m*c*c is E no matter what!!! now ln(m*m)/(m*m) is v*v/(c*c) also sqrt(c*c-v*v)/(c*c) (other v) or zero when velocity is c in the ship then ln(m) has got to be zero now the remaining 1/(T*T) changes ties one but changes time zero is always zero!!! now the reason about cylinder m*m effect each cylinder still same mass if only considering the m*m cylinder effect also why 1/(m*m) well you want v*v which is 1/(m*m) because of increase velocity in cylinders of particle now for e^x go invert intregal and make the intregal a linear L with a forcer invert like in arcsin(x) to get sin(x) and if e^(Kx) then linear L is Kx I may have said this before then the input becomes e^(Kx) like in sin(x) where input becomes K*sin(x) now to get sin(Kx) just make frequency Kx it works a little different in e^(Kx) because the linear is always increasing in e^(Kx) but not in K*sin(x) and the unit in the subtraction 1-x*x in sine is K*K-(Kx)*(Kx) thus that is why it works differently!!! now always make the attempted input Kx in sin and exponential function!!! then go ln(ln(x)) by function twice then linear force to e^(e^x)) etc. or put the e^x in as X and go ln(X) with forcer invert systems but X can also be x1*lnx1 then x1^x1 but that x1 is e^x or x^x etc. then function within function units etc. then make expo!!! then go x^x where the exponent is x^x etc. then x^(x^x) etc.

Friday, June 24, 2016

review of time theories and relativity and other things

now F is v*v/r so then if r is twice and 1/(r*r) is F then F/4 is v*v/r then E/4 is m*v*v then if mass is same then v is half thus r and velocity are inverts and so the other velocity then r is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then r and m are the same then m*v*v is kqq/r then kqq/r is m*v*v then divide by qq and take out r then m*v*v*(sqrt(c*c-v*v))/c now one r is two q's as in 1/r is q is worth 1/4 so one r requires a q to multiply by 4 but with two q's they need only to multiply by 2 then mv is a constant then ck is v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) then K is c*c/(v*(sqrt(c*c-v*v))) also when going ln[(c+v)/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] from ln[c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) plus v/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] then just add the numerators becuause they have a common denominator then divide out sqrt(c+v) to simplify the fraction then the other velocity switched wth the first velocity then at end I reswitch it also an extra c is omitted until the end and at the end I put it back now why do bth q's gt taken into acount when one is still well to a third both are moving frames thus both q's now remember this now when things are standing still the whole path is out the it travels then the whole path around the circle now remember this wors for cycloids spirals and anything circular and spiral is really circle but it is spiraling when the whole thing is moving now the whole path must line the circular waves up in the circle but remember the waves also have motion also this all works with circular and center force what about straight line no center force well the straight line is an infinitely big circle and the center force is infintely far away and still finite then that is really a finite indeterminate with circular infinite times zero force to make a constant for the K1 is c*c/(v*(sqrt(c*c-v*v))) thus it works for special relativity as well as general relativity and ofcourse any combination as well as everything else!!! now the distortion is [sqrt(c*c-v*v)]*(1-e^(-v)) is sqrt(c*c-v*v) because other velocity effect but inside the exponent it already switched then zero*zero is zero so distort is (1-e^(-v)) then (1-e^(-c)) but remember c is really c*infinity then the distortion is really one at sqrt(c*c-v*v) is zero!!! also the capacitor system is like a battery with capacitors releasing energy to the machine how ever fast the machine wants the energy now the capacitor system can have a freeze circuit with the unit current doing anything one wants or any of the circuits I ever said and do to it anything I said in the past to make it an effective circuit so do any combinations of anything in the past to make circuit do anything now for all pulsers and powersteppers make all insulation so that it does not insulate so effectvely and make capacitors all so they do not capcitate very effectively so make the ohms tiny and the capacities of the capacitors tiny and make the signal layers larger and make the ratio of before pulser or powerstepper to to after then the ratio of signal layers of before smaller than after and before insulate larger than after and capacitance of capacitors before smaller than after and capacitance to ratio is initially one to one and ratio of layers divided by insulation ratio is ratio r is ratio then r from before to after then go r*r for after is times all capacitance and make capacitance systems identical but r*r*L for after L is number of layers before but in general  for before and after lots of layers low insulate high layers tiny capacitance in top layers or wherever one is to put them then if pulser want to delay larger then capacitors in terms of time and huger currents will make capacitors fire even quicker now in the capacitance q/v is c so if capacitance is tiny then for same current times time voltage is huge also do not forget to go 1-e^(-(t/(rc))) or something like that and solve for negatify add one ln(e^(-(t/(rc)))) negatify times rc (r is resistance and c is q/v or capacitance) or maybe it is just e^(-(t/(rc))) then start with ln(e^(-(t/(rc)))) or something like that take the capacitance to make the voltage huge maybe put a large capacitance on main wire or something to make voltage  huge or step the voltage way up and then have capacitors and circuits and freeze circuits and other things other than the pulser or powerstepper make current large also then the delay time will becme tiny also you can make the systems ready ahead of time then when they fire the big delay time is gone and the little capacitance delay time is dominant and I suggest to use this last method only because the whole point of all this is to make the delay time tiny also remember simple ad trick simple rectifiers everywhere on pulsers and powersteppers!!!! also in the powersteppers and pulsers do to the new capacitor delay what you did to original delay tme in coils also that is the whole point to make waves huge!!! also to get capactance on one side to time to the other connect with two layer signals with a capacitance system to syncronize them also use simple or trick to go in the direction to this capacitance system also in powerstepers and pulsers make the delay larger then original delay in coil so no mess up but in the column or regular or any power converter I want side by side and delay smaller then original delay system and all prepared to take out original coil delay system to make waves incredibely closer together to overlap extremely close together!!!! then when powerstepped then if nose to tail huge energy!!! or really huge power!!!! HUGE CORRECTION the capacitance to insulation for each layer is inverted the capacitance to layers is inverted the powerstep ratio is p then the ratio from capacitance after to before ratio is p*p the layer ratio is p the insulation ratio is p and the after divided by before is p but in pulsers in powersteppers and alone and whatever step and one to one the radio is always one to one for insulation layers and capacitance otherwise everything s identical in pulsers and powersteppers with other exceptions now in pulsers p is one in powersteppers p s whatever the powerstep is approximately see the circuits will bring t to exact powerstep thus now these things are exact now if there is no original delay then there is still a capacitance delay just the same also now the delay and powerstepper power and pulser current are now all exact!!! now everything except p in powersteppers is the same with possible exceptions also for unit current insulate the wire two for freeze in after and wire one in unit current before is not insulated and ire two and wire one come off of the same wire with the same unt current and an option is to series things instead of parallel to get infinitely exact!!! but if insulating number two use parallel circuits also you can branch or series to before and after and to side by side pulsers or powersteppers and for side by side in converters do it to pulsers or powersteppers or both or you can make before and after side by side and sequential the same or different between each other or all different or only some different or sets different set of anything or same or different for anything so everything identical with exceptions in everything also the unit currents can be anything and use wavestarter for linear with sine wave machine then amplitude regulator by constant layer signal being small and then arcsine to linear and ofcourse the linear increases instantly in a definite when the powerhead wave increases when a wave makes it around then you can syncronize the powerhead with the side by side converters by identicalness and by same number of side by side as powerhead circle and do as original unit in converter side by side and column converter but one can now do this with them and the powerhead to make everything right now for excitation go r*m*A*v*v and r and m and T and A are directly proportional so each can be made constant by the other one if  the combining linears turn to zero change or constant also light is different in constant because coeffecient for frequency inside sine function difference and for phase the coeeffecient for phase is both inverse proportionately larger for decreasing radius and larger frequency for same reason then velocity and frequency are also directly related also the cylinders are related to radius by a square and all radii of everything the particle the distance of particle everything annd in direct proportion and for all these other factors in everything again all related direct proportion and finally everything for cylinders again in everything again all direct proportion all ths is true with possible exceptions and so these formulas can be manipulated but must be manipulated according to the story of the specific given situation so go to it!!!!!!!!!! also specific ad general relativty are the same except special has an infinite radius and zero force to just make a constat times general relativity!!! now direct proportion can be negative as well as positve and so can't inverts now v is invert of A etc. now the particle shrinks to 1/(m*m) then 1/(r*r) then velocity shrinks by radius then then r*T*m (m for speed) then larger energy and same for excitation r*m*A*v*v and when T is larger then v is effected to make mass larger because of m*v then that cancels a v now in this case time if considering time then a velocity disappears with a t or a T see if velocity increases a T will cancel it but if decreasing a 't' will help it but if neither then t*T or one so just go r*m*A*v*v when messing with time slowing down or speeding up the energy rate s given then integrate the linear to a square but in m*v*v veloicty that it effects is a square!!! see if time is a constant it s not effecting anyone!!! now in the past I may have used T or 't' in the wrong places then just correct it and no that T is for increase and 't' is for decrease makes sense as in if T is used in a decrease then go 't' and multiply by two decreasing m's or m*m for each v to correct it and if 't' in increase then go T and divide by two increasing m's or m*m for each v to ajust all of it and if I treated 't' as T or treated T as 't' then just replace the variable and you will see the situation will be satisfied!!!! now if the same the no 't' or T but that is if the same usually I am talking of increase or decrease so have at it!!!!!!!!!! and notice a little bit ago how both energies agree to increase or decrease together and that is how it always is with possible exceptions again have at it!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now n the powerhead all simple and trick simple rectifiers make the energy go clockwise or couterclockwise and all powersteppers in powerhead all point clockwise or counterclockwise and keep everything pointing all clockwise or all counterclockwise to keep energy increasing in power now one can program with n side by sie to make delay time 1/n with n side by sides with powerhead at beginning and the wavestarter is the injector and make n (orignally 4) as a huge number as with powerheah powersteppers the power circular to wavestarter and wavestarter never turns off it keeps injecting also first powerstepper in powerhead for beginning of first side by side of power converter second powerhead powerstepper to  beginning of second of side by side power converter etc. until last to first again also everything exactly identical with exceptions now the harder the power step the more power to make all before go faster with whole process also the particles then are receiving energy faster than giving if off in relay because of powersteppers and powerheads then energy must be getting created but again only past light speed to respond to inbalance also in relay and other thing and everything use powerheads then take branch and derivative rectify then in a larger wavestarter then sine that etc.  and have the power converters with the powerheads and the powerstepper to make waves that make light etc. but in non light powerheads do the rectifying wth other possible exceptions etc.now the powerheads are rectified then wavestarter from powerhead now when the wave of the powerhead will dtain the wavestarter wave and the another it all works!!!! now the unit currents are capacitated also with same rules also if wanting to synconize everything have insulated currents unit currents and all the top layer currents and all maximum weak currents go through one capacitor circuit as in different capacitors series them parallel them into only one capacitor system!!! also insulation can be resisters as well and inductors and thier partner capacitors (these are other capacitors just for inductors) make the sine waves but the powerheads and wavestarters and injectors make the inductor-capacitor units get a lot more power then put these waves into places to use them like the wavestarters and the powerhead is derivative rectified and put into the wavestarter again to recycle with the inductor-capacitor units and it aall works together and to get linear waves do the arcsine system also for powerhead you can use liear or sine waves I prefer sine waves and if negative then have two identical system one negative one positive now in the resistor the perfection system which includes freezer circuits as in some inverters are freezers will make it exact!!! also you can use these inductor unit systems anywhere where you want to increase power as in use all ideas everywhere!!! now how can there be acceleration in a circle but not give off energy well the cylinders when keeping the same condition do not change see speed wth changing direction will go (1/2)*A*B*B ad B is E/c then also cB is E then (1/2)*A*E*E/(c*c) then A is a square then just changing direction energy does not change in these conditions especially a constant speed circle see speed manipulates E and B and A now in ellipses the area will change speed and area so that again energy constant but if changing altogether the cylinders will react to any change of energy or vice versa and in an ellipse the area sweep rate is same for all parts of ellipse now far away the velocity is less by radius then equal sweeps and just change the derivatives from sectors to sectors each with a right traingle where hypotenuse goes from end of first line of first sector to end of first line of next sector to make infinite many sectors or sections of ellipse or circle and zero areas to approach a limit to get the same thing thus it all works and cooperates!!!! now v*v/r but the force has to be v*v/(r*r) and E/r is force thus v changes proportionate with radius becuase energy is proportional to 1/r then 1/(r*r) is force but energy is to be constant then m*v*v/r since energy is proportional to 1/r also then force would be m*v*v/(r*r) because Fr is energy then v changes with r thus it all works also this works with velocity and radius only because you are combining radius effect and velocity because you are finding relation to velocity and radius when working with energy it is m*v*v is k*q*q/r etc. now in sin(x)*sin(x)/x pattern in all the acceleratorstimes by x sqrt arcsine derive simple rectify thenyou will get a lot of energy even if x is only a little then however you do it in past information in this blog is fine but if you need x do it that way and you will get a larger x and energy profit also try the derivatve rectifier for everything with exceptions now if you have any questons or concerns or even opinions negatve or positive email me at KozakSm17@hotmail.com now in all straight currents be sure to put in the expo functions also for plates multiply by velocity of particles and for everything with exceptions I mean in and out as well as in circle to equalize the energy since charge does not increase without mass and merely by velocity and whatever you do to magnets you do to plates and vice versa alll with exceptions see  mass increases with charge and magnetism by velocity if mass is virtually constant only increases magnetism!!!!! also the disks in the disk maagnets and plates the plates increase when particles head toward center so use everything at all times with possibly exceptions now go expo(cx or Fx or Lx) is then that is expo then expo is v in and out then v in and out integrated is v circle or vc then sqrt(sqr(vc) plus sqr(ve)) and all this is total v and expo is ve then expo balances with centripital force also remember in and out by sine*sine as in expo of sine*sine but that is in the sine function of larger sine*sine etc. now some of this may not be accurate or earlier information may not be accurate play it by ear ow use the kozak polarizer that turns light into electricity the way I said and it will be anywhere where electricity is needed and anywhere where light is produced and in all accelerators have fusion light made into electricity by the kozak polarizer ad then that electricity goes to the accelerators where the batteries are and use any invention or equation or idea or anything anywhere now when using T or 't' in a constant velocity energy relativity system if you used 't' then take it out and divide by one more m to get a 1/(m*m) and for T take it out and multiply by one more m to get m*m to get it all to work now T is proportional to mass and 't' is inversely propoortional to mass remember that!!! now remember how T is 1/(1-m*m) and m is 1/(1-T*T) well for m substitute then 1/(-m*m) then substitute to get sqrt(T*T-1) then substitute back to m again to m/sqrt(1-m*m) then m*T is m then T is one and a similiar proof cuases m*T is T or m is one which explaines why everything oves at the unit speed as light speed and mass is always the same at light speed!!! now the change in m*m or 1/(m*m) come from cylinders to make a square change and the single change is  from square cylinders  to square change but mass to increase or decrease because of speed of cylinders and larger radius is more mass but smaller velocity less mass but then the thing is less by time then then the whole thing agrees with amplitude!!! now suppose mass and velovity are seperate functions with a relation I mean treat them seperate then c*c*ln(m*m) is m*m*v*v/(c*c) then 2*m*dm*2*v*dv all divided by dm is c*c*2/m (both in terms of m) then d(v*v) is c*c/(m*m) then -c*c/m is v*v tthe ngative from negative momentum for every positive momentum then take absolute value then when m is one c*c is v*v or v is c and when mass is infinte v is zero or c*infinite (in these situations when I say infinite sometimes I mean c*infinite) but that is really c or light speed!!! now when I say c I mean light speed!!! with maybe exceptions

Friday, June 17, 2016

how to reverse kozak equations and other things

now m is sin(mv) then 1/sqrt(1-m*m) is in terms of mass then m/((1-m*m)^1.5) dm/dv is in terms of m then in terms of v then all this is dmdv then in terms of mass then velocity then (1/2)*dmdm or (1/2)* (d(m*m)/dv)/((1-m*m)^1.5) is dmdv then (dm/dv)/((1-m*m)^1.5) is dv then integrate the left side 1/[cube(cos(x))] times dm/dx to get 1/sqr(cos(x)) then integrate to get tan(x) or m/sqrt(1-m*m) is v then m*m/(1-m*m) is v*v then 1/(m*m) is 1+1/(v*v) then (1+v*v)/(v*v) is 1/(m*m) then v/sqrt(v*v+1) s m thus it was reversed or antikozaked also for m is -cos(v*(dm/dv)) just go dm/dv to get get sin(v*(dm/dv)) times dv*sin(v*sin(dm/dv)) times dv etc. but dv is one then dm/dv to the nth is (sin(v*(dm/dv))) to the nth then sin(v*(dm/dv)) is dm/dv then dm/dv will equal v/sqrt(v*v+1) then m is sqrt(1+v*v) the are many things to be done with these equations now if going sqrt(m) is sin(v*(sqrt(m))) then v*v/(1+v*v) and if sin(v*sqr(dm/dv)) then v+arctan(v) then if (1/v)*sin(mv) then v/(1+v*v) and for derivative m in above situation is ln(1+v*v) etc. also whatever you multiply the equation with you multiply the kozak equation by and vice versa for also division subtraction exponent everything because the kozak is only doing what the equation told it to do now the 1/2 appears on both sides of the equations because going m*m*v*v/2 in the kozak equation then in these kozaks also then the 1/2's cancel also when going sin((e^v)*sqrt(m)) is sqrt(m) the same process goes to (e^2v)/(1+(e^2v)) then if sin(v*(sqrt(dm/dv))) is sqrt(dm/dv) then dm/dv is (e^2v)/(1+(e^2v)) then m is (1/2)*ln(1+(e^2v)) etc. there is a lot of operations one can do with these things etc. now imagine a super conductor holding a magnet by reflection but without the properties of the super conductor the magnetism is not worth anything same with mass particle imitating mass now the mass particle has no formula for pattern of angle of wobble so it can mimic the other cylinders in other basic particles and the wobble has no pattern because the cylinders do not spin along the axis of the body of the cylinder (not the axis of wobble) anyway the cylnders are basically dead but they come alive with other cylinders and everything is imitated the width the wobble the hieght everything!!! also when more than one particle is imitated the then the mass particle makes layers with closest imitating closest then next closest to next closest etc. and DNA effect and reproduction makes more cylinders to form these layers or for fewer layers destroy cylinders etc. now when going dz/dm then f(dm/dv) will turn to f(dz/dv) because it is now all in terms of z just like in f(m) to f(g(z)) by dv/dz but inverted because derived not integrated see not intregal y dx but dy/dx the dx inverts and derivatives just switch and then -cos(z*(dm/dv)) then dz/dv multiplied to get -cos(z*(dm/dz)) then dz becomes one then the whole dm/dv to the nth is (sin(z*(dm/dz))) to the nth thing except it is now dm/dz to the nth to get (dz/dv)*sin(z*(dm/dz)) then integrated in terms of v to get m is the same f(v) it would have been with the following -cos(v*(dm//dv)) except f(z) instead also when going dz/dv then (dm/dv) to the nth all times dv/dz is (sin(dz*(dm/dz))) to the nth then all the dm/dv units switch to dm/dz units by function effect or dv/dz to the 1/nth for each spread out then function effect is where one replaces a variable with another but in terms of what it equals in terms of other ad this is standard calculus then go dz/dv on other side of equation is (dm/dz) to the nth is (dz/dv) to the nth or just dz/dv times sin(z*(dm/dz)) to the nth by function effect but it does not really matter you are going to raise everyone to x to the 1/(nth) anyway and dy/dx to the nth is really (dy/dx) to the nth so now z is treated exactly like v!!! also the function effect holds and the z effect holds to not make dz/dv multiply out to n number of them because multiply by dv/dz for both sides etc. but not to worry it is going to go 1/nth anyway now when mass does bot change and charge not change and kqq/r but on q is the "unchanging" frame then kq/r then if q changes then mass compensaes just for that linearly then if both change kqq/r mass compensates for that also and for lght with no mass no change in q's because no relativity then newtonian is for light change A*v*v then cylinder number shrink by square but closer by K/(r*r) to cancel it and when electron gives off more cylnders then light photon not happy because cylinders too far away and field too strong but distance too far but velocity too slow then will collapse also m*v*v is K/r then r*m*v*v to constant then no mass and  then it caves in by amplitude see what happens is both are linear then one will meet the other then the meet is closer to center if more energy since more energy makes velocity's effect increase by square so energy is higher then the decrease in square of cylinders makes it lower instead which is what it should be because lower energy state in atom now in relativity it is all different as I said before as in r*m*v*v*m then increase see in kozak equation increase the mass then velocity will decrease and remember in relativity it goes sqrt(c*c-v*v) and in general sometimes v can really by sqrt(c*c-v*v) and in light without atom simply go A*v*v see no collapse because no messed up energy states and no messed up meet of squares and linears now mass is proportional to radius but with no mass it s simply a smaller constant times radius since mass with just fall right into proportion also this proportion stuff works with anything proportional like radius to amplitude etc.  also sometimes without mass radius constant is zero!!! also this zero stuff works with anything proportional like radius to amplitude anything now all this energy and cylinder stuff just now I was talking about electrons and particles and photons now in electrons and particles r*m*m*v*v then frequency decrease in relativity then mass increase and then r increase to higher energy levels ad decrease to lower energy levels so then if mass changes it goes r then velocity compensates to lower energy state then if mass not change then cylinders squared decrease times m*v*v*A then lower amplitude higher velocity lower energy state also remember cylinders always follow amplutide squared then amplitude is linear but increase in energy by A*v*v decrease but that increases energy now the cylnder square just follows in proportion to amplitude in terms of energy but sometimes the proportion is zero and is not a factor!!! now in light photons same properties as particles just no mass particle in photon and when I talk of velocity I mean the velocity of the whole particle in general and the effects of that on cylinders etc. but now if cylinder change is a square how linear proportion well the go cylinder increase by square then mass increase by linear by mv effect then v*v energy effect then perhaps also sqrt(c*c-v*v) effect thus mass increase linearly with amplitude then the zero constant effect now suppose M is intregal of m dz then cos(z*(dM/dz)) is dM/dz then M must be sin(z*(dM/dz)) then just go for that dM/dz also if just v then treat v as z also what if ddm/d(zz) with only outer function derived twice then just take the end formula and integrate twice and if I(I(dzdz)) and outer function only integated twice just derive end fomula twice and end formula and function is sin or cos or -cos etc. and end formula is what m or dm/dz or ddm/d(zz) or I(mdz) or I(I(dmdzdz)) equal strictly in terms of z etc. outer function is function(z*(dm/dz)) is m etc. is equal to there is a whole lot of things that can be done to these equations now what if m is (1/2)*(sin(2*z*(dm/dz)*(ddm/d(zz)))) then sqr(dm/dz) is (sin(z*sqr(dm/dz))) then end formula then sqrt that then integrate that and the answer all can be done with these etc. now remember when light goes through a field the lack of inertia does not matter light has mass just no mass particle to show it but it will still react to gravity or any field bent space if it has that field so waves bend also remmember the time in light the waves to zero then the ticker on the sine wave vertical there is no vertical because waves cancel then time is not a factor!!! now in dervative  of kozak equation go dm/dz times dv/dm to get to z with the two derivatives first by m then by z so derive so flip to dz/dv then integrating left side is really right side is in terms of v by going in terms of z!!! now dm/dz for first dervative and dv/dm for second derivative now dv/dm because going to other variable to invert dervative and dv because dz is only for one derivative step see in intregal when converting the conversion only lasts one intregal then it would have to be activated again well same with derivatives except all backwards and integrands and non intregal derivatves as well (integrands are intregal dervatives to integrate by like dy dx then dx is integrand) also the fractions will invert in the derivatives etc. now remember you can go d(m*m)/dm and turn m*m into m because replace m*m with M then go from M to m this can happen!!! then integrand becomes d(m*m) already wth a dm to integrate in the first place oh no now it is d(m*m) then call everthing else m*m instead of m then the same result but with a currrency of m*m then square root all the m*m's and you will have m function!!! also m*t*A*v*v for particle in special relativity for general relativity particle go r*m*t*A*v*v*m because mass is controled also by radius etc. so in these cases listen to all information I have given some of it may be wrong or it may all be right also m*m for the v*v but then square by cylinders and also for kqq then mass is effected to cancel the q's take all information into account some including this information may be wrong all may be right now if Y is outer function and X is dm/dz or dM/dz or dM/dv or dm/dv or anything like this F(X) is Y not F(Y) no matter what!!! if I said otherwise I said wrong as in correction now when going d(arccosh(d(arccos(x)))) then it goes -1/m then the minus of the arccos(x) then 1/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) then because of two functions it is d(v*v) then sec(v*v) is m!!! now two functions 1/sqrt(1-m*m) and 1/sqrt(m*m-1) the 1/sqrt(1-m*m) is canceled by the previous sqrt(1-m*m) and it stops at the given arccosh(x) then it is sec(v*v) etc. now v*v because the two not one functions!!! now in the kozak equations there was never an extra 1/2 or extra 2 to begin with also now huge correction the initial outer function does exact opposite of the f in sin(z*f(m)) so if dm/dz then initial outer function integrated but only the outer function if sqr(dm/dz) then intregal of sqrt(outer function) then if 6m then 1/6 etc. all if one sde is just m if both sides catch these functions then keep if as sin(z*f(m)) and sin(z*(dm/dz)*(ddm/d(zz)) then sqr(dm/dz)/2 times ddm/d(zz) then ((dm/dz)cubed)/6 etc. now if dm/dz is F(outer function) where f is inside with z*f(m) and f is invert function of f in order to uncover it then uncover to G(m) or left side after makng invert function and invert order to the outer function then go invert G(m) to end formula to get m now the following then -cos(z*(ddm/dz)) is dm/dz then solve for dm/dz then integrate as if going in -cos(z*d(G)) where G is dm/dz then sin(z*d(G)) is d(G) then solve then to get rid of G go intregal of end formula now no matter whit is doable if dddm/d(vvv) or sqr(ddm/d(vv)) or dm/dz times ddm/d(vv) times dddm/d(vvv) to rewrite as second order squared halfs then dm/dz squared then cubed to get to the 3rd divided by 12 or the single third order by integrating three times with end formula then also the first order squared divided by two I did 3rd 1st and then 2nd respectively so it can all be solved now if left side is m then the outer function gets hit with the f function to another equation all together but if outer function is prepared then it is simply sin(x) many possibilities!!! either way you want left f(m) to equal right f(m) then undo the f(G(m)) then undo the G etc. and G(m) is left function now in m is dm/dv then then dm/m is dv then lnm is v then e^v is m hey it works!!! also say m is e^(v*(dm/dv)) then dm/dv is e^(v*(dm/dv)) by similiar proofs then 1/(1-v) is dm/dv then m is -ln(1-v) etc. and kozak equations represent build always antkozak is annilyzing the equation by singling out mass and it works!!! HUGE CORRECTION!!! when going for example dm/dz times ddm/d(vv) times dddm/(vvv) then when integrating the integrand it simple integrates the equation only one has to do integrand in special way so it is really d(sqr(dm/dz))/dz then the following the sqr(dm/dz) is h then d(sqrt(h))/dz in terms of h then 1/sqrt(h) the two's cancel because 2 for the 2*sqr effect and 1/2 for 1/sqrt effect then dz/dm is (cos(x)) where x is ((z*(dm/dz)*(ddm/d(zz))*(dddm/d(zzz))) then it was integrated only once so do opposite to outer function to get sine then dz/dm is end formula then invert it and integrate it also the derive to cos(x) then invert then derive because G(x) to outer function then undo to get csc(x) then m is -ln[(csc(x)) plus (cot(x))] for end formula now take into account all information I gave now the m starts as this then goes to sine then important the d(dz/dm)/dz is end formula then integrate invert integrate again also also remember e^(z*(dm/dz)) the options are there to as in e^(n*(z*(dm/dz))) will always happen no matter what with exceptions now in kqq then mass increas and sometimes in q and/or m the v works to make it turn into a constant sometimes but sometimes not depending on situation now in m*v*v is kq/r then m*m*v*v is kq then if r is m then m*v*v is k then but sqrt(c*c-v*v) is m*v*v then kv is v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) then ka(r*r)is v then ma is kmm/(rr) then 'a' is km/(rr) then v is kkm or constant then kk is v*sqrt(c*c-v*v)/c then constant K is v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) then c*c*K or the following K1 is c*c/(v*(sqrt(c*c-v*v))) then take it from there!!! now go c times d(sin(0))/d0 times sec(0) times csc(0) then the csc(0) then -ln(cot(0) plus csc(0)) is Kv then e^(-Kv) is ((c/v) plus sqrt((c*c-v*v)/v)) then e^(Kmvv) is c*m plus m*m then  the mass unfolds to the following 1/(1+K*v*v) plus 1/(1+(K/2)*v*v) or something like that so reconsidering the constants mass is 1/(1+v*v) now the velocity is effected by amplitude as a square as well as frequency but m*v*v is kqq/r and r is proportional to amplitude then amplitde only effects energy linearly thus higher frequency and lower amplitude  by same amount is higher energy also acceleration is r*w*w and r*w is v and v*v/r is acceleration then force is m*r*w*w etc. then FD then D in axis curve relation same then again more frequency and less amplitude by the same amount is more energy now in the mass if mass effected by velocity by c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then T is 1/t and t is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then constant because actually m*r*w*w is really m*T*r*w*w thus it works now amplitude increases with frequency at newtonian level because when frequency decreases with same curve speed amplitude must increase also in (a/2)*sin(2x) or something like that I am talking of relativity at newtonian it is the same except 'a' increases when x decreases and 'a' and x are each different in newtonian from their counter part in relativity mass has no say so except it is a constant depending on particle etc. also the relativity has a say so in light but it is kept at constant because light speed is constant also the minimum speed of particle is where relativity is gone and same speed since amplitude and frequency keep tracer at same distance with same speed and in light the axis speed is light speed in newtonian so minimum speed for light is light speed for electron is a certain speed and for proton still another speed etc. now in newtonian level when energy increases amplitude decreases frequency increases and for relativity when energy increases amplitude increases frequency decreases former A*v*v latter m*m*A*v*v because in relativity mass and velocity are inverted but in newtonian mass is constant!!! now the reason for this is the time is also c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or follows mass to make smaller frequency and to keep time and velocity in proportion working right larger amplitude for energy also everything is linear or linear invert to make energy correct!!! also gravitymagneticgravity electromagnetic nucleuomagneticnuclear all waves and fields behave the same with exceptions and some of the exceptions are effected by the nature of the particles and emitters also particles are also waves all particles now in ln((c/v)+(sqrt(c*c-v*v)/v) for perpendicular go ln(c/sqrt(c*c-v*v))+(v/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) then turn that into ln(sqrt(c+v))/(c-v)) the way I did before then e^2v is (c+v)/(c-v) then -1+2c/(c-v) is e^2v then 2c/sqr(c-v) is 2e^2v then the extra c from before then e^v is c/(c-v) then take it from there I already said all this go ln(sqr(c+v)/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) or ln((c+v)/(c-v)) then e^v is sqrt[(c+v)/(c-v)] then e^(2v) is (c+v)/(c-v) is e^(2v) then -1+2c/(c-v) is e^(2v) then 2e^(2v) is 2c/sqr(c-v) and the c from a little bit ago comes into play then c*c/sqr(c-v) is e^(2v) then c/(c-v) is e^v but now the [1-e^(-v)] is v/c but remember 1/v turning into 1/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and sqrt(c*c-v*v) turning into v well [1-e^(-(sqrt*(c*c-v*v)))] is v/c then v is c then that huge thing goes to zero and v/c is one since because in ship everything is normal as one but from frame it is velocity zero and mass is 1/v since mv is a costant thus mass is infinite but in ship it is rest mass!!! thus fields and everything infinite or zero in frame but all rest same in ship so the values of mass in sun however it is moving is the same as long as we are moving in the galaxy with the sun and with the galaxy etc. it does not matter!!! also when velocity changes in ship approaching the same thing happens to velocity of ship as whole as does velocity in ship except it is the other velocity thus the c/(c-v) is e^v but again other velocity then c*(1-e^(-v)) is sqrt(c*c-v*v) then if v is 1 then it is really c*(1-e^(-sqrt(c*c-1))) then if velocity is c-1 then velocity is really equal to c*(1-e^-sqrt(2c-1) so when velocity is these slowers this is the velocity also when I say amptitude I mean amplitude of single photon or amplitude single particle now when mass and velocity are inverts of each other I am talking of inside the ship now the whole light vector get's distorted like that then simliar triangles says all lines distorted same because when messing with the hypotenuse and same angle then same distortion but the angle changes to make distortion different but at that instantaneous angle same distortion thus v*(1-e^(-v)) is sqrt(c*c-v*v) so the hypotenuse and everything fits together and these distortions are for velocity of ship with respect to frame and for other things as well of this nature also when velocity of ship goes it wants to be light speed and zero so the compromise is these equations light speed to freeze velocity but freeze it to decrease effect but freeze decrease to increase velocity to increase freeze and everything also how is c*(1-e^(zero)) distorted well the answer is the actual velocity is infinite!!! and the invert of the distortion is mass see infinite force times distance to c but mass is infinite still because accounting for velocity only distortion of velocity which is compensated by the mass and energy linearly increasing by mass and velocity well by velocity by m*v*v so the velocity is c*infinite like with cylinders!!! now distortion destroys velocity faster increasing velocity but not the exponential starts as tiny rate then increases to one at zero exponent thus the distortion times velocity times c is all c also the c/(c-v) is e^v this is a kozak transformation thus the kozak equation really does go past light speed and this eqation is really an intregal is almost identical to the kozak equation thus the mass will not quickly pass the kozak effect back down to light speed but insttead stay pass light speed in another dimension then the whole thing stays and does not reverse because intregal means it is permanent then the speed in the cycloid and spiral like I said bea while ago!!! now mass never get's distorted because it is time which can be different because it is a dimension so mass compensates for velocity inside ship only if assuming time does not change which it does but mass does not compensate for this distortion because it is not the real velocity only the appearent one!!! as in what we see is distorted reallity not the real thing!!! so in the dark reality the particle tracers and light photons are moving infinitely fast with respect each other or may I say c*infinite so everything is the cylinders that is the very make up of everything hey that makes sense!!! now cylinders are infinitely small to prevent distortion now if everything is infinitely fast that makes it zero!!! and mass is finite so energy is zero so and time is zero which means time is travelable and energy is creatable and mass is manipulable because the zero multiplicately connects all the values so 1,000,000 times zero is 1 times zero!!! now the u is zero at infinite but what about v which is 2u/(1+u*u) then at infinite or zero v is zero so system favors zero also the particles and photons are wave still particle move and wave move particle still in the ship phenomina thus wave and particle as well!!! also where is maximum well  a little algebra makes derivative of 2u/(1+u*u) or (2-2u*u)/(1+u*u) the is zero and a little more algebra says at one the ddv/d(uu) is -1 if v is one and ddv/d(uu) is perpendicular to the v height at that point and -1 is perpendicular to 1 then the energy is consistent and everything is consistent only at one which is c because c is the unit!!! so tracer particles light speed and wave curves zero or wave curves light speed and tracer particles zero!!!

Saturday, June 11, 2016

the huge correction of m = sin(dm/dv) and other things

now in dm/(arcsin(v)) is dv then arcsin(v) is dm/dv then go (dv/dm)/sqrt(1-m*m) for each side then ddm/d(vv) in terms of dm is (dv/dm)/sqrt(1-m*m) times dm/(arcsin(v)) then (1/4)*dd(m*m)/d(vv) is 1/sqr(dm/dv) or 1/(2m(dm/dv)) but the dm in dm/arcsin(m) is dm/dv then m is e^(m(dm/dv)) then m is 1/(1-(dm/dv)) then dm/dv is 1-(1/m) then (m-1)/m is dm/dv then mdm/(m-1) is dv then m+ln(m-1) is v and take it from there now the kozak equation tells what will happen in non kozak conditions but if competing against kozak conditions finitely then the velocities times and masses  and anything will change see any fixed function or anything not expoentially building is zero/finite competition but at zero/zero the competition is finite to mess with mass velocity and time and anything now to get 1+sqr(tan(0))+ln(sqr(tan(0))) or something like that whatever I said a little while ago then get sqrt(sqrt(m)) is e^(cos((d(sqrt(sqrt(m))))/d(-v^4))) to get 1/(1-v*v) then I sqrt both m's on both sides to sqr the 1/sqrt(1-sqrt(-v)) then -v*v*v*v to make -v*v from sqrt(-v) then 1/sqr(1-v*v) plus ln(v*v/sqr(1-v*v)) or the tangent formula and to get from sqrt(2-sqrt(-2v) in the first place go 1/2m completely first before anything at the top so reverse function of what you want with 1/sqrt(1-sqrt(-v)) and to v function of what you want to dv for v also remember the v*sqrt(2-sqrt(-2*v) or something like that to derive is sqrt(2-sqrt(-2v) plus v/sqrt(2-sqrt(-2v)) or m plus sqrt(v)/m is m plus (1-m*m)/m then derive by v and integrate by m to get dm/dv then ln(m) is dm/dv then 1/sqrt(2-sqrt(-2v)) becomes m is e^(dm/dv) cosine because dm/dv in e^(dm/dv) see how this all works and all the stuff you can do with it now you can only go mass is sqrt(1-sqrt(-4v)) then only 1/sqrt(1-sqrt(-4v)) in the event of a derivative and rember d(mv)/dv then v*sqrt(1-sqrt(-4v)) also sqrt(1-2*sqrt(-v)) is the same thing but keep it in the former one  then and take this correction into account for everything now both sides are going in terms of mv then intregal of d(mv) in terms of mv then I derived in terms of v instead of integrating in terms of v then in terms of dm/dv  but one integral becomes a derivative to cancel the second intregal thus the dm/dv and this works for anything HUGE CORRECTION mass is sqrt((1)-(1/4)*sqrt(-2*(1/4)*v)) see bring the two to the bottom then operate with mass with the two turning into 1/4 in radical of denominator  and then velocity is plus v please add this correction to everything involvng it!!! also mass is not negative!!! and positive mass works with equation which is a good thing!!! also it turns into m plus (1-m*m)/m thus intregal of 1/m or ln(m) thus it works now in any variable in function machine or anywhere in the any accelerator or thruster the "one to noe linear" would be CX, LX o FX the captalization may not be in the original way I named it also in 1/sqrt(-v) then go v/sqrt(-v) then go sqrt(v*v/-v) then sqrt(-v) and then put in the constants etc. now in m is 1/sqrt(1-f*f) then go m*m*v*v/(2*c*c) then square to cancel the two and v is c then this is done to all the heads and the first body and all the bodies the heads turn into also remember the energy is such that m*v*v/r is k*q*q/(r*r) then v*v is (k(q*q))/(r*r) then k*q*q at instantaneous is constant then velocity is doing the right thing thus it all works now in c*c-v*v is 2clnm the c*c-v*v is negative by the -v*v then v*v-c*c is 2clnm then at v is zero m is e^(-c/2) so it is not zero at complete rest and so at -0.16 degrees kelvin the mass is still there so then at zero times c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) it would always be zero but at c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) where v is c then it is not zero so then e^-(c/2) mass is actually zero mass see the c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) when v hits c then starting mass is e^-(c/2) instantly!!! see the -(c*c-v*v) is the other perpendicular velocity so as soon as it hits zero/zero you get e^-(c/2) or e^(-(c/2)) same thing now in the c*c*ln(m*m) is m*m*v*v then the following c*c*c*c*(ln(m*m))/(m*m) d(m*m) is m*m*v*v*d(m*m)*d(v*v) in terms of m*m but the d(m*m) on both sides then d(c*c*c*c*sqr(ln(m*m)))/d(m*m) is then d(m^4)*d(v^4) then but going from d(m*m) to 1/(d(m*m)) then d(v^4) also ln(y)/d(x) is really (ln(y))/d(x) ad d(y)/dx is really (d(y))/dx also then d(c*c*ln(m*m))/dm is d(v*v) then c*c*ln(m*m) is v*v then t*a*t*a then m*a*m*a then the acceleration and take it from there now the circular hyperbolas in the universe and the sphere in the middle the hyperbolas there is eight representing four cylinders with two ends each or four stobe cylnders one actual cylnder and the hyperbolas get skinny and the base is closer to a square tube but still a curve to approach to actual square tube and sphere approach the cube shape and the cylinder wobbles changes wobble angle etc. but the sphere is at center and the circular hyperbolas at the two rods of cylinder and the equations of sphere and equations of hyperbolas change to favor all this until the universe shapes to the cylinder!!! now in the ln(m*m)/(m*m) or really (ln(m*m))/(m*m) is v*v then sqr(ln(m*m))/2 is 2*I(v*v) d(m*m) then go the following 2*I(1/d(m*m)) d(v*v) then {[d(v*v)]/[d(m*m)*d(v*v)]} then go sqr(lnm) times d(v*v)/[d(m*m)*d(v*v)] then dv/d(mv) is lnm then d(mv)/dm to break the switch and regain mass from velocity the dfdt is lnm dm then f is -m+m*lnm then v/t is 'a' is f/m then v/t is -1+lnm and lnm is dt+1 or a+1 then t is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and v/t is 'a' and t*dt is v and dt is dv/dt or 'a' then t*dt+t is m*(a+1) but dt is one for time then m is f and f is m also dm/dv is c*c/[v*sqrt(c*c-v*v)] then go to m/v is (c/2)*ln[(c+v)/(c-v)] the way shown previously then m/v is t/v is then derivative is dt/dv or 1/a then integrate one dt then e^(2*t) is -c plus 2cc/(c-v) then 2*e^(2*t) is 2cc/sqr(c-v) then e^t is c/(c-v) then c/(c+v) times e^t is t*t also the c/(c+v) times e^m is m*m now how well remember the v*sqrt(c*c-v*v) must be carrying two different times and velocties and mass see this merely provens that one frame going speed of light toward an object going toward it at speed of light to make 2c but one frame is standing still they still are moving with respect to each other all at light speed!!!! now n newtonian it does not make as much sense because of what I said before see c/(c+v) to e^t is 2*t*t then 2*t*t is really e^t in the other perspective and the kozak equation will tell why it is 2*t*t is e^t two different times equal to each other!!! then 2/sqrt(1-t*t) then same pattern as velocity as in c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or c s one and two out to count the one frame only then the following 1/sqrt(1-v*v) is 1/sqrt(1-t*t) then t is v then how much time is used up is velocity then twice velocity time slow twice to slow velocity to half bt then time not satisfied any longer then velocity and time must reach an agreement as in an exponent of e(-x) or negative feedback system also in mass and velocity same thing thus both are e^(-x) or negative feedback system but notice how mass protects the negative feedback system of time wth velocity as does time to mass it all works!!! now technically it goes t is e^(t/2) then 2/(2-t) but the only one frame not both turns to one and the hypotenuse involved in the original proof of velocity makes only at c then 1/sqrt(1-t*t) now at less the number at the top is between one and 1/2 by c/(c+v) and it all works to a negative feedback e^(-Kx) system but remember everyone is already at c times light speed thus e^(-x) the K might be in there for other reasons but in mass not changing much then the patterns are simple but do not make sense first off all because mass suppose to change but not significantly in lower velocities then time stays the same and velocity relative stays the same there is no way everything is possibly the same!!! now these equations set the mass ad time equal to a constant and the velocities subtract out to be accurate when mass and time barely change now what really happened was m/v or c/(v*sqrt(c*c-v*v)) but c*c/(cv*sqrt(c*c-v*v)) or m/cv to e^(t/c) or something like that then c/sqrt(c*c-t*t) and c/sqrt(c*c-m*m) and c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) etc. but to time and mass c passes as one unit then back to 1/sqrt(1-t*t) and 1/sqrt(1-m*m) thus the logic falls together huge correction the t is e^(t/2) then sqrt(t) is T then T is e^(MT/4) M is sqrt(m) since t is m then 4/(4-M) then the 4 dissappears because the frame rule and then the square hypotenuse rule then the sqr(1/(1-M)) is t then the the hypotenuse rule and product rule will set it back to the famous t is 1/sqrt(1-m*m) but velocity already c then the mass is past one and time past one also well a while ago the proof said it now goes 1/sqrt(m*m-1) and as well 1/sqrt(t*t-1) and the bottom variable takes the same abuse but backwards as the entire denominator now similiar proof shows m is 1/sqrt(1-t*t) then to 1/sqrt(t*t-1) now the so 1-x*x or x*x-1 depending on situation then all these must be pleased but when mass and time are virtually a constant then only velocity varies then the newtonian properties by the equations so product of two frames and hypotenuse square and variable is reverse of function because the the rectangles  or derivative or ntegration limits are product of variable and function and rectangles stay the same to keep it equal!!! now since then m is 1/sqrt(t*t-1) and t is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then it turns out m is sqrt(c*c-v*v)/v because plug the entire c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) where t is but sqrt(c*c-v*v)/v is then c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then c*c-v*v is 2cv by product of frames and this reminds me the 2 in 2*t*t also disappears because of product so then 2*sine*cosine is cosine*cosine minus sine*sine then sin(z) is cos(z) then the 2x is z then at pi/4 or 45 degrees they are equal then they are perpendicular by 2x to pi/2 or 90 degrees then light speed direction is perpendicular to velocity!!! thus the hypotenuse effect for velocity and other equations that tie into it!!! also when the rectangles are functions whatever the length does the width does invertly because invert functions!!! also when neutrons and protons collide why does force times no distance make energy well it is some distance since the particles go past the barrier to another repeling barrier of a cylinder force or force of see earlier information now the velocity and light speed are perpendicular then how well remember the time is manipulated on the velocity and light speed as in sqrt(c*c-v*v) then v is c at light speed and manipulate time with velocity ow remember added or subtracted any size constants and multiplied or divided any size constants for everything!!! now I went (dm/dt)/(dv/dt) is the formula because I am talking about the velocity and mass at a given instantaneous time not the total time!!! HUGE CORRECTION ON sn(dm/dv) is m first 'a' is arcsine(m) then dm/a is dv then multiply both sides by dv/dm to get (dv/dm)*dm/a is dm then multiply both sides by dm/da to get (dm/da)*(dv/dm)*da/a is da then both sides by da/dm to and dm/dv for the chain of the derivatives which gets the left side to one and the right side to dda/d(vv) times da is then ln(a) is a*(da/dv) then 'a' is e^(a*da/dv) then when kozaked then 1/(1-(da/dv)) is 'a' then (1/(1-(1/a))) or a*da/(a-1) then dv is 1+(1/(a+1)) and v is a+ln(a+1) then the 'a' in that is ofcourse acsin(m) and just switch variables to get m in terms of v since it is a derivative and is automatically flipped to get the solution also 'a' will behave this way with v no matter what function it is it can be anything!!! also in the e^(dm/dv) this way of doing this is just e^(dm/dv) is m but the other older way is the kozak way then it is really e^(dm/dv) is m then e^(d(e^(dm/dv))/dv) is m compoounding or building also remember more than one solution is always possible in these differentials now with integrated both sides of the  previous equation then when going dv then dv/dm is where say dv/dv to dm/dm nothing changes on left side also with dda/d(vv) then first convert to 'a' then go dda/d(vv) same thing but backwards to same thing also why just switch not change because derivatives just switch but if y is set equal to x then even in non derivative just switch it from x to y or from y to x and do this everywhere so if just switching everything and non derivatives are present then the x and y must be equal now in ellipse the c is from focus to center d is from focus to ellipse on the same line as c and 'a' is from center to ellipse perpendicular so then a*a plus c*c is sqr(c+d) then a*a is 2cd plus d*d then sin(x)*sin(x) is 2cos(x)*(1-cos(x)) plus sqr(1-cos(x)) or moreover (1+cos(x)) times(1-cos(x)) or sin(x) times sin(x) and since these are equal at all times then that is the same as circle with equal at all times so focus lowest energy of satellite and so isn't center of circle and by these being equal that means the energy is but in an ellipse because of x velocity not being zero all the time and the y velocity also always changing this only holds true for zero energy which means energy is lowest form at the focus!!! see equivalently speaking what times 'a' is what times 'b' then zero otherwise never equal!!! and if energy is not equal then you are saying two different energies is one which is logically impossible but only logically impossible on the Newtonian level!!! also the focus is the center of mass not the mother body!!! now in the dervative switches only because dm/a is dm/da times da/a also in dda/d(vv) that also only switches because 'a' is dm/dv so the extra derivatve order step because the left side is not a derivative!!!

Wednesday, June 1, 2016

relativity in energy levels

now in the speed of 1 to (1+sqrt(2))/2 the speed is inversely proportional to mass and directly proportional to kinetic energy as in sqrt(c*c-v*v) and v both not the same thing one or the other applies to each case energy now everything in the energy levels of atoms that applies to general relativity also applies to special relativity with maybe exceptions now for energy levels outer is more relativity inner is less relativity now in the barriers to waves the barriers set up the equalities which when kozak is the equalities of the energy levels so that is how this works now remember in particles the frequency is always increase wth less energy and with light it always decreases with less energy as in relativity always with particle but newtonian always with light as in particle always relatvity but light always standard now the reason for ths is the particle axis s a sine wave while the light axis is straight line see in straight line it is where time does not have an effect but in sine wave it does as in frequency and ampliude is not going to matter on a straight line but in a sine it will matter also remember light photon to electron or electron giving off photon is reverse as well and when I say c for tracers or anything and c*infinite for tracers or anything I mean relative as well as absolute speed and light speed is c now why does particles pass though each other well the cylnders are 1/(infinity^3) but the spacing in 1/(infinity^2) then it would take an infinite number of particles in the same spot to create a problem but the electrons do not past through electrons well the waves are both postive or both negative and all particles in sycrony by DNA effect and in light they pass through because of two zero's as in wave is nothing to zero along the axis also electron will get bigger or smaller as the wave well less cylinders because they cancel and more by DNA reproduction effect also in tracer cylinder is moving c*infinite but the traced cylinders are just like the particle tracer to the waves going under c*infinite like waves traveling under c by phase effect also the cylinders move faster wth few of them to more energy and faster with less mass etc. it all works the same in finte world and cylinder world now light has no mass because of sqrt(c*c-v*v) where going m*v1*v1 then v is c also a type of cylinder produces slight difference because the cylinder DNA effect is such that the new cylinder took the easy way to want to form how IT wants to form and the DNA cycle of all this is like a giant circular system or really ellipse system or anything where beginning runs to end infinitely perfectly also why does a photon form from an electron changing energy levels but not when accelerating an electron well in one case it is breaking the barrier and wave laws so it sheads or collects cylinders to compensate but in accelerating an electron it is not so it can form it's own cylinders also an electron is accelerating all the time in a circle then why no light well it is going toward then away then toward then away instantaneously then acceleration increases energy and deceleration decreases energy!!! now when in simple or trick simple rectifiers the  current pushes or pulls on both ends at one one set of diodes blocks the other set allows and the differents multiples but divides by crowding and build to get same currents and same with one pulling and one pushing or combination now in powerstepppers use simple or trick simple rectifiers everywhere!!! now when I say say use simple or trick simple rectifiers everywhere sometimes I mean all simple or all trick simple rectifiers sometimes I mean some simple and some trick simple rectifiers and for all other things I ever mentioned on ths blog use simple or trick simple rectifiers everywhere with exceptions now the sqrt(c*c-v*v) to v choices applies to everything!!! now when I say m*c*c plus m*v*c is E I really mean sqr(m*c*c) plus sqr(m*v*c) is E*E and take this into account anywhere where I made this error and the hypotenuse pattern is because of one phenomina being perpendicular also m*v1 is always a constant wth c as one because F*t to the same mass speed is constant and because twice mass is half velocity by inertal forces but v1 is sqrt(c*c-v*v) and so c/v1 is mass then c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is mass now for all simple or trick simple rectifiers after diodes have two branches per wire with negative and positive freeze circuits and the unit currents come from small insulated circuits from beginning currents then the freeze circuits keep the current flowing smoothly now each wire means each wire with a diode and that is it this way the simple or trick rectifiers can flow smoothly whether both beginnings flow the same or opposite also for both going same positive or same negative have two circuits one positive one negative one pushes one pulls and have two switches per wire one with each freeze and the switches turn on single positive negative single negative positive double or double negative and do this for all simple rectifiers and for all trick simple rectfiers and for tricks to both units seperately to behave like the simple rectifier but ofcourse keep both the negative and positive double means in beginning four wires two wires negative diodes and two wires positive diodes and the wires do not touch or meet except at the final bridge circuit to the finished product but single means only two wires and what you do to one wire with diodes do similiar to all of them also double means the diode wires are at all four different terminals but single means two opposite diode wires on each side merge to on wire each then at two different terminals now remember there are two sets of double systems and two sets of single systems and for trick simple double everything otherwise everything else is the exact same with maybe exceptions now a double is two wires merging with same diode and a single is two wires merging wth opposite diodes and there are two sets each now if negatve current have a whole other identical system with negative double and the switches are not with the freeze circuits but wth the identical unit insulated simple rectifiers also the switches are 1 2 3 4 where 1 to 2 and 3 to 4 is for positive single and the 1 to 3 and 2 to 4 is double ad the 1 to 4 and 2 to 3 s negatve single and make sure it all maes the current positive also in trick simple rectifier have positive simple rectifier and negative simple rectifier with one branch diodes one way and other branch diodes go other way and one goes to positive simple rectifier system and other goes to negative simple rectifier system and the switches are simple dioded currents signalng the current to switch and it can be layered but layers identical and everythng identical in anything with exceptions also in small unit current simple rectifier identical and te switches are close to the beginning terminals then energy goes one way also these systems can be arcsined derived and simple rectified to make huge current from huge frequency to abstract a lot of energy!!! now in exchange of momentum at relativity the m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and the other is c/v both by invert momentum by kozak equations then if both have same mass then A is cos(0) and B is sin(%) then these both interswitch now at newtonian the close to the axises makes it approximately liniar now when mass different then A is cos(0) B is sin(%) then C is cos(0) and D is sin(%) then A turns to D and B turns to C but the angle at newtonian is close to liniar mass interchange ad velocity is ofcourse invert as in csc(0) and sec(0) and sec(%) and csc(%) etc. also A is D and B is C and angle is liniar also energy is sqrt(c*c-v*v) and v proportional to mass then that is how energy goes thus interchange is correct!!! now multiply A B C and D all by c or light speed since c is the unit and thenn multiply A B C and D all by a b c and d respectively depending on mass for each now in relay sine*sine go square root arcsine then derive then simple rectify then sine*sine signals that then the few sine times sine then after that the second oldest signaling the newest and in freqency motor do the same exact thing as done to sine*sine relay except it is not sine*sine and also the other functions and functin machine for relay are not necessarly for frequency motor and vice versa but just sine so no squaring or square rooting and these things can be used to as many steps as wanted wherever wanted also in the new simple and trick simple rectifers use everywhere!!! also once new sine*sine in relay then put in function machine then in straight current functions and all functions etc. anywhere where old sine*sine would have gone as in treat it like old sine*sine now in freqency motor the sine new treaed like old and vice versa for both of these situations for old and new treatement for both of these and the layer signals are many and identical also the a b c and d each go to one two three four correspond from lttle rectifier to big rectifier and apply all this everywhere!!! now in the particles and light whatever happens to tracer is what happens to particle is what happens to cylinders is what happens to tracer cylinder is what happens to spiral s what happens to phase shift particle velocity all with exceptions also in light the cycloid waves or really sine waves cancel to c so c no matter what but cycloid energy varies with speed or really frequency also why does light photons get smaller with larger jump of electrons well the average speed is larger in electrons so light goes larger velocity but m*v*v then mass is smaller to control energy to a direct proportional to conserve it see in giving off another electron the mass and amplitude would be larger and frequency smaller and the time would slow down like in relativity now when an electron emits it is attracting opposite thus an electron out of phase then a cancelation ends up happening thus the wave cacelation thus a photon thus it all works as in energy now does mass really decrease with energy NO!!! it is just that if it did increase with frequency the energy would be out of proportion by a square!!! so mass regulates energy!!! now n a deexcitation of electron the m is rc and m is inversely proportional to frequency to make energy increase liniarly then m is two decreases and v is two increases but amplitude is one decrease to make energy half as much closer to nucleus now liniar becase or proportion effects also why is frequeny more energy and mass less NO!!! mass is less so less energy frequency is more by square so more energy and amplitude is less so less energy!!! also remember sqrt(c*c-v*v) verses v to energy also the phase shift and the paticle axs velocity are the same thing and the phase shift ncreases with frequency because when the coefficient (not necessarily a constant) increases it does so with the phase shifter also so this is a slight correction!!! so the relativity makes the electron faster in outer shells yes but the relativity slower in the wave phase movement in outer shells as in the electron phase shift is smaller so electron go slower and relative phase shift smaller to wave at inner shell but not actual phase shift and cycloid or electron spin is larger velocity at smaller wave but tracer always light speed but remember it is in a sine wave so average for spin is different also everything is in liniar proportion or invert liniar proportion with exceptions so spin lesser rounds per time and greater radius in spin but smaller movement velocity but more cylinders by square so higher energy at larger distance so electron higher wave amplitude lower frequency lower phase shift velocity then higher by square number of cylinders and greater radius spin thus liniarly more energy!!!! now the cycloid always goes same direction as movement as in to left is counterclockwise and right is clockwise with maybe exceptions (assume the line of travel is below the circle of the cycloid in both cases) etc. now what if the North Star is us n the past and the star mid Orions Belt is the future and it is in a circle so 1930's is one star 1990's s another and there is a star for every kozak second in time and we are one big circular band of stars except in three dimensional!!!! now here's amplitude in cylinder level then mass times velocity is constant then m is directly proportional to r then m is 2 and v is 1/2 then r is twice then 8/8 or one but m*m*m*(v*v) then energy increases linear to mass then amplitude and size and everything agrees now sometimes when I talk of electron spin I strictly mean cylinders in cycloid is strictly cylinders or particles in cycloid is strictly particles or both in cycloid is strictly both in everything strictly cylinders strictly particles or strictly both all cases are sometimes is spin of electron also remember m*m*m for square more cylinders and liniar more radius now sometimes two inverts or two liniars or one of each or anything of each etc. happen to add or subtract directly or indirectly or negative to positive etc. sometimes they multiply or divide directly or indirectly or anything etc. now in nuclear forces if it stopped at barrier there would be no distance so no energy emittion that is why it goes a little below the barrier and regardless of how field acts mass is directly proportional to r as in C+Krc or C-Krc at instantaneous rate if not 1/(d*d) so go d(force field behavior)/d(1/(x*x)) to get instantaneous mass where x is the force see if v*v/r then v has linear effect then v as vertical is dx etc. then the linear goes to whatever derivative of force field etc. now in waves around atom with increased amplitude and increased number of waves at the same time the linear larger velocity but frequency is lower with square smaller velocity and so lower linearly velocity all together which cooperates with the phenomina in the energy and things like that then the area of sphere makes squared number of bonds then the shells are closer in outer sphere because v decrease linearly then the area makes v*v the linear because the velocity is happennng linear and v*v/r then r is the sqrt(linear) see you are squaring the mass so v*v/r must square root but cube root since velocity wants to be linear now the shells overlap because the waves get big and the sum of squares because the volume of sphere not even area anymore also it is possible the engolfs act as tracers to some extent with exceptions so in a surface shellthe number of possible bonds is squared effect and total electrons is cubed by volume and similiar stuff happens in nucleus as in chemical except nucleus!!! now out of phase elctrons means two in an orbital then 1 3 5 7 square in subshells and then that is a shell thus it is possible to locate electrons without using electron clouds!!! now whatever happens to tracer to particle holds with big tracer or particle itself to engolfer with exceptions also the lobes will determine bonds and number of electrons that can fit in plus number electron already in the shells subshells and orbitals all together in the shell is always number of lobes of each electron in shells and subshells and orbitals now light goes higher frequency with lower amplitude then increase in energy and velocity increase so mass increase here's why because sqrt(c*c-v*v) verses v then mass hits to infinity in the revolution of the cylinders also cylinders go below c*infinite while tracer cylinder goes c*infinite now everything that happens in finite world happens in infinitely small world and infinite world etc. with exceptions in certain situations like everything else also the nature of the particle determines the radius velocity mass etc. also as cylinders approach c*infinite mass approach infinitely times the original and everything in finite world happens in infinite small world with exceptions so when particle smaller then squared less cylinders but increase mass three times once for Krc because attract is increase by Krc but the cylinders attract more than repel but repel has a steeper slope change with change of number of cylinders decrease in square when increase then repel has less steeper in opposite change then attract then mass increases away and decreases toward center in relativity and increases toward center and decreases away if minus relativity as in in parabola how fast it changes is different and how fast it increases or decreases is all different all of it is different and in relativity and non relativity completely different quantities from each other given square factor of change of number of cylinders and once for speed but speed is sqrt(c*c-v*v) or v and once to invert m in mv with sqrt(c*c-v*v) or v thus it all makes sense now mass is higher in the photons for these reasons and nature of cylinder and speed per mass determines nature of particle now the net is infinite when frequency infinite now this applies to all particles if minus relativity also the mass is by mass particle as in the inertial force is caused by the cylinders mimicing other cylinders then the cylinders have changed then changed energy to make a force for f=m or m=f but in light a negative and positive mass particle cancel to no mass particle so the cylinders then do not count for mass now also no relativity in light photon because no mass no time since particle light speed etc. also when I say minus relaltivity I really mean for light gone and for particles diminished to insignificany thus it makes sense now be carefull!!! this relativity and non relativity stuff may only apply here or it may apply to everything or something in between!!! now also be careful when I say non relative I just mean the relativity changes behavior at newtonian or slower speeds or when the particle has no relativity and no mass now in relativity mass increases with radius because slower velocity is the time factor c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or c/v and there is non of this without relativity so mass decreases with radis for reasons already given as in repel steenpess and square of cylinders makes this happen so time factor and mass factor change all this when mass factor goes the oposite way by time factor so rememberr all this is on radius as well as other things and more radius is less velocity then without time factor and other stuff like sqrt(c*c-v*v) verse v etc. that is decrease in mass with it it is increase in mass all with increase radius now mass is c/v and c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then m*m is c*c/(v*(sqrt(c*c-v*v))) then c/v is csc(0) and c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is sec(0) then multiply by c*cos(0) to get csc(0) then intregal is -ln(csc(0) plus cot(0)) then that is ln[(c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) plus (v/sqrt(c*c-v*v))] or (1/2)*ln[(c+v)/(c-v)] then derivative of that is c*c/(c*c-v*v) and we integrated by 0 and derived by v thus d(0)/d(v) then m*d(0)/d(v) is c*c/(c*c-v*v) then c*c*m/(c*c-v*v) is c*c/(c*c-v*v) or m is 1 or initial  thus with zero speed time is left alone then with huge speed time is warped and at zero time is one but when mass is zero the velocity is negative infinity or really zero then at zero mass time stands still since c*c/(c*c-v*v) must be zero also also d(0)/d(v) is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) also time is with mass now mass increases then time is proportional of that according to this equation now if mass did not increase then there would be no mass and mass is in force which is m*v*v/r which says mass increases by r and by c/v1 perpendicular thus by -1/x or by c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) see higher v1 and higher r then r says mass is more and velocity says mass is less as in r is larger mass must be large by smaller acceleration but velocity when higher means acceleration increase by square but K/(r*r) so v is that much more mass must be less to accelerate more and the cylinder is spread out circular wise and vertcal wise to create a K/(r*r) effect on fields but it is really relativity of particles then first particle moves less at a smaller angle and tracers are vertical and circular as in a square thus I proved time travel and it goes c then 2c then 3c or 'a' then 2a the 3a where 'a' is liniar if (K(x)) now example in close to 2c time breaks down to nothing then close to 3 it is huge or stand still but on either side it is always forward for any of this and constants are for (x) then K(K(x)) it is parabolic asymtotes or da/dt is constant then 2da/dt etc. evens time zero odds time infinite now the way to go back in time is go to the negative dimension in the negative parallel universe also v is sqrt(c*c-v*v) then v*v is c*c-v*v then c/sqrt(2) is v then 0 is pi/4 or 45 degrees and mass is between one and zero as is time when 0 between pi/4 and zero but between pi/4 and pi/2 or 90 degrees time and mass are between one and infinity and all this if the kozak forces are not applied also the next dimension is the negative quadrant then the negative sine and cosine quadrant and then octants then each octant has eight octants etc. also what the equation says is m*m is t*t then m is time!!! now the particles will do these time travel and dimension travel tricks but to go instantly in the past you must make the waves shift suddenly and infinity to negative infinity by the strobe phase effect now in the phase shift in sine of sine*sine of particle accelerator or all accelerators phase adds to value inside sine function then it can be anything and add or subtract as to time backwards or forwards not necessarily in that order to match them now in the circle start at zero radians or zero degrees and go one radian per second counterclockwise then at infinity seconds it will be pi/4 radians or 45 degrees now when c*c*ln(m*m) is m*m*v*v/(c*c) then 2*c*(ln(m))/m is m*v*v then c*c*d(lnm*lnm)/dm times dm/dv or c*v/((c*c-v*v)^1.5) is m*v*v or c*v*v/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then solve algebraically to get the following then c*c*lnm*lnm is intregal of v*(c*c-v*v) then sqr(c*lnm) is sqr(c*c-v*v)/4 then 2*c*lnm is c*c-v*v then when v is c then m is one but it is possible to add constants in integration thus any mass goes 2*c* ln(nm) is c*c-v*v where mass is 1/n so break the mass up the turth does not change also in energy is c*ln(m*m) is c*c-v*v then m*m*v*v/c is c*ln(m*m) then go (c*c-v*v) is m*m*v*v/c is where energy in sqr(pc) is zero at v is c because then sqr(pc)is zero as in sqr(m*v*c) but m is invert of v then it all goes to nm*c*c or new mass or m*c*c and p is mv thus it all fits together to make sense now mass is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or mass is c/v then as mass approach finite by zero mass over zero then v is zero or sqrt(c*c-v*v) is c then mass at constant of one or nm means velocity relative velocity will always be c in tracers and for cylinders c*infinite now mass is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or c/v as in sqrt(c*c-v*v) or v also when perpendicular like sqrt(c*c-v*v) and v then -1/x so that is why mass is c/v or c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and the negative is because speed in opposite direction also nm can be used where m is 1/n then nm is one so if mass to infinite then v is zero then sqrt(c*c-v*v) is c!!! also if larger perpendicular speed then sqrt(c*c-v*v) velocity relative if mass is c/v then velocity decrease to then if c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then v that is perpendicular then negative then sqrt(c*c-v*v) also the velocity is slowed by time in same formula or mass see mass and time are proportional to make it work but the v in sqrt(c*c-v*v) approach zero to get c but when going c it goes sqrt(c*c-c*c) or zero plus your speed c which makes it look like velocity of other object as well as time is zero and if c/v is infinite then v is zero now in kozak formulas get all this now in the kozak formula sqrt(c*c-v*v) becomes v and v becomes sqrt(c*c-v*v) etc. then c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) becomes c/v and c/v becomes c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) etc. so infinite mass becomes one mass and same for velocity etc.