Wednesday, July 29, 2015

the life particle and other things

now any particle with the angle of wobble changing the function can be anything of f(x) but x must always be infinite to zero to negative infinite to zero to infinite etc. and this is for any particle including the life particle which I talked about at the end of the last post before this one also the reason is because particles are circular hence the sine properties also each particle possibly represents a dimension because the possible directions of the cylinders is effected by dimensions like one direction one dimension two dimensions infinite directions three dimensions infinite cubed directions fourth which is time then the timing sets the course of which fields attract each other etc. so four forces of nature to four dimensions!!! now in m equal sin(m*m*v*v/2) the antikozak of that is m equal sec(v*v) now why well arcsine(m) is m*m*v*v/2 then 1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) is mv then intregal of (v*F(v)) is 1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) then derive in terms of v and also m is F(v) and aTb is a to the b then {-m/[(1-m*m)T(1.5)]} all times dm/dv then v is {1/[(m*m-1)T(1.5)]} all times dm/dv then dm/((v)dv) is dm(dv*v) is [(m*m-1)T(1.5)] then 3m*[sqrt(m*m-1)] is ddm/[d(m)*d(v*v)] see I derived them both to dm because of the differential equation then 3/(d(v*v)) because set the dm and v equal and get a three then reset their inequalities and this is 3m*[sqrt(m*m-1)] then d(v*v) is 1/(m*(sqrt(1-m*m))) then v*v is arcsec(m) because d0/dx is sec(0)tan(0) then dx/d0 is 1/(m*(m*m-1)) or 1/[sec(0)tan(0)] anyway m is sec(v*v) then go(1/2)*2*v*sec(v*v) then (1/2)*ln[sqrt(1+m*m)+(m)] but according to the kozak formula the intregal of (1/2)*ln[sqrt(1+m*m)+(m)] is such that m is sine(m*m*v*v/2) where v is sqrt(arcsec(m)) so this is the intregal of (1/2)*arcsinh(m) so if m is sine((1/2)*m*m*arcsec(m)) then you have the m*m*v*v/2 equal intregal of (1/2)*arcsinh(m)!!! now also remember the both signal magnets and both relay magnets are energy supply to the relay system now also passive plates and passive magnets almost the same treatment also the disk magnets are particularly useful if the accelerator is huge to squeeze the magnetism of the central toward the outer for the particles now intregal of arcsinh(m) is m*arcsinh(m) plus sqrt(1+m*m) then the solution is m equal sin(m*m*v*v/2)!!! now you can change m and v to anything and in intregal of m*v (dmdv) equal intregal mv d(mv) the dmv/dw cancels out so you can freely change it!!! w is whatever now sqr(cos(0)) is e to the [sqr(sin(&))*sqr(cos(0))] (turning m into cos(0) and v into sin(&)) kozaked is cos(0) is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) or cos(0) is cos(&) then 0 is & then when the circular substitution happens enough then 0 and & are equal and sqr(cos(0)) is e to the [sqr(sin(0))*sqr(cos(0))] then 2*ln(cos(0)) is [sqr(sin(0))*sqr(cos(0))] then 2*ln(cos(0)) is [sqr(sin(2*0))/2] then -2*tan(0) is 2*sin(2*0)*cos(2*0) then -2*tan(0) is sin(4*0) obviously 0 goes to zero and both of the expressions are zero so just some things you can play around with in these equations also in the function machines you can use all ideas and the old fashion method of compounding functions as well now if wanting intregals like IIIIffff(x) then have a recycle function machine whose functions are just integrators and from the function machine to the integrator function machine and then that never rejoins the main function machine if wanting five functions then five intregals etc. then have a five and it rejoins etc. now in the arcsin(m) situations I assumes that m was sqrt(M*M-1) and M is the original mass but say M is m then you are integrating the ln[sqrt(m*m-1) plus (m)] which is impossible to integrate but with kozak method you can as in m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) and then go m is sin([m*m*arcsec(m)]/2) and you can do anything with this with any equation also do to all plates passive and active what you do to their corresponding magnets passive and active with exceptions now active plates do what active magnets do and passive plates do what passive magnets do with almost the same circuitry for both also in m is sin(m*m*v*v/2) you cannot replace v*v with arcsec(m)!!! also in sqr(sec(x)) is e to the -{sqr[tan(0)sec(0)]} then sec(0) is 1/sec(0) then sqr(cos(0)) is 1 then cos(0) is one then 0 is zero when m is infinite!!! also say m is sqrt(1-v*v) then go v*sqrt(1-v*v) then (1/3)*[(1-v*v)^1.5] (^ is to the) anyway then go (1/3)*[m^(1.5)] then go [(15/4)^(2/5)]*[(mv)^(4/5)] all to the (2 to the v) is m then if v approaches infinite then m is one and then because m is sqrt(1-v*v) then v is zero!!! so circular movement at infinite winds up as zero even without relativity factored in!!! now sqrt(1-v*v) is sec(0) then when m or v is infinite in a circle then v is zero then m is infinite while v is zero also go what is zero to the zero well x to the x then ln(y) is x*ln(x) then ln(x)/(1/x) then 1/x/(-1/(x*x)) then x or -zero or zero then y is one thus one for [(mv)^(4/5)] ^ (2 to the v) where the exponent of mv would go to zero also the sqr(cos(0) would cancel the square effect of sqr(sec(0)) also if m is infinite then v is zero so m*zero would be finite even if v is infinite to go to zero now anything that mimics the nature of a circle is treated like it!!! thus ellipses etc. also the energy is then finite at energy is infinite!!! because (1/2)*(m*v*v) and two zeros means energy is zero at infinite!!! now ofcourse m*c*c is energy so the kinetic is zero then m*c*c is all potential then it is possible that their is nothing but potential and no kinetic at rest thus cylinders really are going infinite speed in a circular!!! so mass and no kinetic is indeed possible!!! now for cylinders the mass would be because of the infinite small size and infinite velocity to infinite small velocity thus cylinders really are 1/(cube(infinite))!!! so liniar dimensions really are infinite small in cylinders (mass to volume) also mass particle the velocity goes to infinite to the w (w is whatever) and the velocity is 1/(infinite to the w) but the particle itself has infinite more energy so the other particles are just signals!!! now no matter what waves or really lobes stay same velocity c and cylinders stay same velocity c*infinite and wobble behaves as is now in spiral and waves spiral responds n/infinity and cycloid waves respond in s/infinity time with n greater then s because waves are direct and spiral is perpendicular so a+b is constant and a*a plus b*b is constant since energy is all the same then 2ab is constant then ab is constant so if large emphasis on wave and small on spiral or vice versa then still same speed behavior but in functions both are zero time response but if changing derivative infinitely fast then the n and s pop out with no division of infinite as in f(x) then f(f(x)) then f(f(f(f(x))) (f(x) is e to the x) then eight etc. then light speed also if all wave no spiral the limit is the same and vice versa the same and when the spiral falls behind then further acceleration is further behind when not zero then this is called succession but normally and al division of infinite the particle with spiral and wave combined is always light speed now when 'a' factor that means the change is happening under light speed thus energy distruction!!! over is energy creation one is neither but listen to what I said in the past!!! see 'a' factor has also to do with the spiral and wave interaction in the same way!!! also for wave or lobe and cylinder I may have made an error just now so listen to the past information so in other dimensions or universes or both it is possible the objects accelerate themselves!!! now be carefull m/[(1-m*m)^1.5] the m/[(m*m-1)^1.5] has an i or imaginary number but which cancels a numerator that does the same thing now for d(arccosh(arccos(v)))/dv is d(arccosh(d(arccos(v))))/d(arccos(v)) times d(arccos(v))/dv then the arccos(v) copies it's sine counterpart with a negative and d(arccosh(v)) is 1/(sqrt(m*m-1)) then m is 1/(sqrt(1-v*v)) then (sqrt(1-v*v))/v then 1/sqrt(1-v*v) times the negative is now negative(1/v) then that is perpendicular in a cartesian coordinate system the more perpendiculars the more dimensions like three are three possible perpendiculars also reverse the function to and the derivatives are taken out then you have cos(cosh(cos(cosh(v)))) perpendicular to a to b to c etc. but in cosh neither numerator or demoninator produce an i and you still get sec(v*v) but you now have sqr(sec(v*v)) for each also in differentials dy/dx plus xy minus xy is x to the n then you have sin((eTx + eT-x)/2) is 1/v no negative and with sin(cosh(v)) then if v is x to the n then the infinite is e to the infinite becomes one (because infinite becomes zero) then eT-x becomes zero then sin(1/2) then conversion because the introduction of the formula of sin or cos means d of formula in terms of variable to get pi/2 everytime sin or cos is one or zero respectivelythen you go sin(pi/4) in short infinite to the nth is always for pi/4 so (sec(v*v)) to the 2*n then sec(v*v) at v is infinite is sec(pi/4) or sqrt(2) then 2 to the nth is with the nth dimension so take a line and it will measure 1/(sqrt(2)) then area will measure 1/2 then volume 1/(sqrt(8)) or really 1/2 first then 1/4 then 1/8 then dimension for or time is 1/16 then when the edges are zero the dimensions cannot go any further but this does not happen until infinite!!! so now remember the waves are c and the cylinders are c*infinite so cylinders say three point is because infinite velocity but waves are say three point because or the time dimension cylinders do not have a concept of time because infintely small mass!!! also remember when dy/dx plus xy is w (w is whatever) then go e to the x and dy/dx minus xy is w then go e to the -x also when going to infinite dimension then all sides are equal to get a sphere at zero then at dimension zero is what it is called the universe is a point and even if universe is infinite still a point because 2 to the infinite and the universe has levels but only finite levels so everything is the same except a b and c etc. are all finite and the universe is a cylinder or really a sphere with a cylinder pointing at all ends or really eight hyperbolas to a sphere and the hyperbolas are each a cylinder and in these positive dimensions one circular hyperbola then the hyperbola at infinite is a cylinder when slope a/b of hyperbola becomes zero now the reason is the inverse relation is sharper and sharper where the slope is infinite at zero and horizontal at non-zero so the other cylinders then are other parallel universes!!! also at dimension zero the universe is now a point and you start at zero by infinite then it starts all over where the universe is an infintely small cylinder or point!!! now take the sin(x) machine and go d(cos(x)) or sqrt(1-x*x) or the cos(x) machine or just derivative of sine and for example if in cos(x) I say dx sometimes I really mean d(cos(x)) in way past past present and future and way future anyway then invert to get sec(x) also x is m*m*v*v/2 then v is 1/[(m*m)*(sqrt(m*m-1))]then n+1 is m*m then d(m*m)/d(z*z) where z*z is (m*m+1) correct some possible errors in this and you get 1/[(m)*(m*m-1)] then go -1/m plus 0.5/(m-1) minus 0.5/(m+1) then go -ln(m) plus (0.5)*ln(m-1) minus (0.5)*ln(m+1) again surf out errors to get eTv is m*sqrt((m-1)/(m+1)) then surf out errors to get 1/(m*m) is eT(2v) then then m is eT(-v) then if v is infinite then m is 1/(eT(infinite)) then m*v is zero then m*m*v*v/2 is all zero then m is sec(zero) then m is one then mass at velocity is infinity is whatever mass was at rest!!! see zero mass would fade into space again so we do not want that now ofcourse infinite would fade to zero under certain conditions but under these conditions it goes to one now in space minus mass is constant is because the more space the more mass and mass plus energy is constant amount of energy then space minus mass is constant but also space plus mass is constant to conserve energy thus space*space minus mass*mass is constant then sqrt[space*space minus mass*mass] mass is tangent and space is secant then the kozak theories are in play with the expanding universe thus sec(m*m*v*v/2) then if you go through a blackhole that manipulates space the same way except contraction instead of expansion then mass will return to one and you will be in the velocity is infinity back to finite in a split second and the cosh and cos are both effects of sec's thus you will be in a world where this universe is an infinitely small point or cylinder and then a huge amount of time will pass in 1/infinity time and this universe would have completely expanded and the life of the universe is actually greater because at first cylinders stay unless the mass of the cylinder is 1/(infinite^4) again or zero mass for cylinder again but ofcourse the larger universe all has a life but the time is infinitely greater so it is only safe to say this universe will stop expanding in finite time (I think I last said e to the c) but one thing the cylinders will recontract to give off mass to another point to yes maybe this universe is whatever I said in the past lifetime also in blackholes these are the infinitely small blocks or matter for the infinitely larger universe also in blackholes they are gates to the infinitely larger universe now derive c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) and get dm/dv is cv/(sqrt(c*c-v*v)^3) and then dm/(mdv) is v/(c*c-v*v) then dm/m is (1/2)*(vdv)/(c*c-v*v) then ln(m*m) is ln(c*c-v*v) then derive then 2m is 2*c-2*v then m is c-v then at m is zero see the intregal because total mass build then ln because mass and velocity are thinking exponential (2 then 4 then 8 then 16 etc. (s.infinite's)) then mass is zero because the cylinders are infinitely small but only at velocity is zero then m is c*m0/sqrt(c*c-v*v) but I always assume m0 is one then at v is c it is infinite/(sqr(infinite)) or one!!! so the mass is the mass at v is c!!! higher it explodes to infinite lower is collapses to nothing (this is without the kozak processes) now integrate to a plus (c*c/2)/2 on the left side and to a (c*c/2)/2 on the right side or switch the negative and positive now v is e to the m*v*v when at infinity because d(m*v)/dm goes to one at infinity to replace m*v with v and when switched to replace m*v with v and then v is e to the (v*v*m*m/2) and the you have to switch negative and positive also (now where I say m*m*v*v/2 or something similar it is possible in some cases I ment m*m*v*v/(2*c*c) or over c etc. for each v including this one right before this statement) now the reason to replace m*v with m is one side is dmv other is dm then the switch and then v is c/sqrt(c*c+v*v) then v is e to the -m*v*v then v is at zero again also let's see how dmv/dm does in the sec equation well go (eT(-v)-(v)*eT(-v))/eT(-v) then v is zero from infinite to zero then dmv/dm is one here also now this means the work on the sec equation is accurate now each v for some equations supposed to be accompanied by a 1/c unless you have the v is c or some other special cases now blackholes are simply holes in the universe to a much larger world in such that you are thikning of the universe in two dimensions and to get into a higher dimension do the 'a' factor over light speed to get into a twin dimension of what you are already in do it below light speed and a parallel universe do it right on light speed and can the balance of light speed ever be thrown off well the energy must be greater then the total energy in the universe as in the infinte creators then hinder it goes lower help it goes higher as in if a pole is holding a car you must life the car and then the pole will bend considering the pole is strong or not strong so if you want the universe create infinite energy in finite time the way I said now the space*space minus mass*mass is always c*c also remmeber in the kozak equation of v is e to the -m*v*v remember when velocity is infinite then velocity is zero now in the universe the reverse says when v is zero it is infinite thus the universe is zero then infinite times zero or a constant so when it reach zero that is what happened as in the balance of light speed or really zero turned into c the energy was created see the light speed balance was messed with to tip the creation of energy now today light speed c is the balance so everything went zero now everything goes c a definite change for definite energy levels see there is a God but he works infintely mysteriously see did God create life or did the Sun and Earth's atmosphere and that huge collision with that huge comet well both God worked through these things to create life and he made the life particle by natural causes so indeed energy was created naturally and by God!!! God is NOT an obvious God he is infintely mysterious because mysterious is creative and God is one creative God!!! see we do NOT have all the answers and it is NOT that simple!!! now in the integration or fraction cancelations or derivatives the constants go to one because say the liniar is increasing then the whole square is put in place to get the two to cancel and similiar phenomina is for anything else also when m is sinh[(sqr(m*v))/2] then m is v*v then when flipping it you just flip the result then for multiply you just multiply thus the catinary winds up being parabolic when antikozaked also in the x^(1/3) the whole square to the parabola to get multiply x^(2/3) again canceling the number constants anyway in infinitely big circle or almost infinitely big circle the parabola and the catinary have the say so!!! so when antikozaked the path is free when kozaked the path is chained!!! thus the antikozak shall set you free!!! now the energy of a magnetic field super or non super conducting is (1/2)*N*A*B*B and the power if it is changing is N*A*B charge times velocity times B all is force and N is number of wrappings and A is crossectional area and if area changes then go intregal of A or H then (1/2)*H*B*B is energy and H*B is power also the sinh(m*m*v*v/2) is m then -1/((m*m+1)^1.5)*(dm/dv) is all v then in the triangle 1/(m*m+1) is cos(0) and derivative is sec(0)*sec(0) then cos(0) then intregal is sin(0) which is m/(sqrt(1+m*m)) then v*v is m*m/(1+m*m) then arrange and get v*v/(sqrt(1-v*v*v*v)) then v/(sqrt(1-v*v)) times v/(sqrt(1+v*v)) then you wind up with v*e to the (m*m*v*v/2) times v*e to the (-m*m*v*v/2) when going back then this cancels to v*v*1 so m is v*v because m is both multiplied now this is interesting try 1/sqrt(1-m*m) [1/(sqrt(1-m*m)) is same as 1/sqrt(1-m*m) in this and all cases] anyway everything happens to 1-m*m that happened to 1+m*m with a few minuses and pluses changed then it is v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) is all m how can it be sec(v*v) and v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) well it depends on the values you put in sin(m*m*v*v/2) is m to start it also why does it not go sec(sec(v*v)*sec(v*v)) etc. well the v is squared in sin(m*m*v*v/2) and in sec(v*v) so if v*v is z then just a liniar and same for v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) so now go z/(sqrt(1+z*z)) in sin(m*m*z/2) also the sinh(x) acts like a sine in that the slopes are the same at the zero x axis also the parabola, y = x*x and the sinh(x), y = sinh(x) is the same values when kozaking them then x*x = sinh(x) with substituting more and more values then the the circle is sqrt(1-sinh(x)) in a flat surface with infinitely big circle or straight line and it has to be a center attracting it but what if the position changes like in a normal circle then v*v/(sqrt(1+v*v*v*v)) for sine and v*v/(sqrt(1-v*v*v*v)) is there much difference then when v*v*v*v is changed in sine to go from infinite to finite which is what happens then indeed the cylinders trace sine waves!!! now for direct lines there is no attractor so again infinite to finite back to infinite again to keep it sine waves also parabola curves are too like sine waves in that the x axis points and same slope also sqrt(1-sinh(x)) is circle then when x is zero then circle is one etc. but these curves are for wobble and movement of cylinders what those waves are and the answer is sqrt(1-sinh(x)) and the spheres are finite because of either infinite number of cylinders or infinite speed or both where wobble is infinitely faster and these waves are for energy levels of cylinders as in how big the particle is also say wobble is infinite to the (2/3) then movement around circle is infinite to the (1/3) to get infinite and ofcourse do it to the c then get c*infinite now the space minus mass and space plus mass are both constant only when in the same energy level these constants change when changing energy levels and space would be like secant and mass would be like tangent also the energy level shift is finitely fast like in an electrons of the atom now in the first energy levels the volume of the universe was not zero just a number real close to zero also in the cylinder the universe will get from 1/(d*finite) to 1/(d*infinite) to get a cylinder but the universe is infinite expansion to be canceled to square one as in 1/(d*finite) (square one is just an expression) so energy creation also it is possible points are shaped like little cubes otherwise no space between them to form into cubes but a cylinder bends the cubes so energy is bent space also tiny speed is first energy level then light speed for this huge energy level etc. remember the many cylinders is really one cylinder and same for particles and waves and maybe n/infinite and s/infinite where n/s maybe bigger then one thinks now for the spiral and wave past light speed it will all go backwards but past 'a' factor it will slow going forward or speed up backwards and the behavior shifts instantly the forward is sqrt(cos*cos plus sin*sin) is one or c but it turns to backwards is sqrt(sec*sec minus tan*tan) is one or c all instantly (like in universe) also the blackholes are finite in size with a lower energy level now to brake the speed of light balance just go past it and if getting infinite energy in the process use all the ways I showed you then you can blow apart a blackehole by upsetting it's w relative speed or whatever depending on the blackhole going back to light speed also sec(v*v) is from m is cosh(m*m*v*v/2) or m is cos(m*m*v*v/2) now to get infinite going past light speed one way is to use m is cosh(m*m*v*v/2) or m is cos(m*m*v*v/2) or asymtote graph for the 'a' factor or the past ways I showed you the recent past and the far past etc. now if I said sec(sec(v*v)*sec(v*v)) or sec(sec(v*v)) or anything like this I may have messed up it is ((sec(v*v)) to the 2) or really ((sec(v*v)) to the v) also remember the pi/2 factor when changing to a trigonometric function also in a blackhole to blow it apart be sure to make the beems meet at the center of the blackhole also in the spiral going backward and wave going backwards I really mean the wave going negative and the spiral turning the opposite way and the neagive wave increases progression when spiral goes increasing backwards etc. also the kozak will go cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)) then cosh(cos(cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)))) then cosh(cos(cosh(cos(cosh(cos(cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2)))))))) so f(x) then ff(x) then ffff(x) then ffffffff(x) etc. so when v*v aproaches infinite each v is sqrt(infinite because of the square effect by the kozak equation so v*v is z and m*m is M so work with that also I some places where I said m I MAY have ment M only in some places now I messsed up big time the m is v*v and then m is sinh(m*m*v*v/2) then v*v is sinh(m*m*v*v/2) then the simple parabola is the sinh kozaked so everything is true except take this into account and similiar mess ups may have happened so takethose into account also otherwise everything else is true so the kozaked function from m is f(v) to m is g(m*m*v*v/2) is always (f) to the (2 to the vth) and the and the other function is always the (2 to the vth) build of whatever function also a blackhole is finite in size but and it is regular matter but it accelerated past the 'a' factor to change the standard c relative to 'w', a lower veloctiy standard function because it si compressed also the single dimansions would each be half as much as in length, width, and height each are 1/8 for volume then with time now go 1/(16) now go cosh(cos(m*m*v*v/2) then m is sqrt(2) because otherwise you would have to make each 'v*v' mulitplied by mass but not to worry for the dimensions I keep m at sqrt(2) and this makes sence because the sec(v*v) winds up at sqrt(2) which is m and remember when going to sqr(sqrt(2)) or sqr(sec(v*v)) then go cosh(cos(cosh(cos(v*v)))) is antikozaked then sqr(sqrt(2)) as well just like in previous kozak functions also when a blackhole shoots up light the v*v kozaked is sinh then the wave a catonary thinks is the derivative is always the value down the curve so the speed would have to be the same then as the curve gets "pinched" same speed then as it goes to infinite " pincned" curve still same speed because the equation was kozaked to get to this so anyway the lines must go to zero to get infinite dimension the blackhole is finite concentration but the dimensions would be pretty high!!! and veloctiy would not be infinite but high and you would "ALMOST" get to the higher universe also in the past when I said kozaked I either mens kozaked or antikozaked and this might be true in the present and future as well also all these ideas I have been doing can be used in the inventions and everywhere now in the pi/2 the conversion is everytime a trigonomic function is introduced and the pi/2 is inside the trigonomic function multiplying the whole inside function also in a blackhole the c to a w because the universe is cut off from the blackhole so the speed of light changes and the gyrosopic force changes the direction and nature of the function of the cylinder when it turns so that they still make contact also in a car the according to kozak equations the m will go right back at one so the infinitly moving car mass is one like at rest but v will be zero then the u will be zero then you have mass at one and no velocity but on the inside velocity never changes at u but the v is zero then the mass stays intact thus you will simply have mass at rest and you must start all over again!!! and the nature of the acceleration will determine where the infinite car becoming velocity is zero and mass is one is going to wind up!!! now the way a blackhole is going to wind up cut from the universe is when light cannot escape then the very relativity rule is broken to cut the blackhole off from the universe!!! now somtimes when I say any of the following I mean any of the following ddy/ddx, (ddy/d0)/(ddx/d0),ddy/d(x*x) etc. see I am trying to fold up some errors and I made similiar errors like d(dm/d(v*v)) in terms of m that means (1/d(v*v))*(ddm/dm) so all but these errors are true also the d0 effect you can derive the top and bottom etc. just be flexible in a million different ways!!! now the particles are such that say degree one is infinite then degree two is infinite*infinite etc. now in particles say degree one is sqr(sqr(infinite)) then degree two is maybe mass and the mass particle is such that the function is is tan(x) and/or sec(x) to get to the angle changing with speed in spiral and wave so there are various degrees with various particles and the speed of the particles compensate for different degrees to keep particle effects the same also make one less infinite for each degree or maybe two or three to get infinite whatever speeds for cylinders etc. so the degree is say one less or two less then the degree needed to accompany the 1/[(infinite) to the three] volume cylinders or really 1/(sqr(infnite)) or 1/infinite to accompany the volume etc. also the relative speed function is determined by another function in the wobble angle change etc. also the hologram effect is different for different degree results per particle etc. now in each cylinder the spread of curvature is vertical and horizontal that makes a 1/(D*D) per cylinder everything is still true also the level of trace is different per degree etc. now for magnetics the cone is for infinite to decrease with distance to take out an 'r' thus the magnetism or sister field is 1/r while the field is 1/(r*r) now surf out any other errors also in sec(x) cos(x) and tan(x) go (pi/2)*x and in csc(x) sin(x) and cot(x) go (2*pi)*x and in {[1+sin((pi/2)x)]*[tan((pi/2)*x)]} all to the x as in (cos(x)/sin(x))*sin(x) and {[1-cos((2*pi)x)]*[cot((2*pi)*x)]} all to the x as in (sin(x)/cos(x))*sin(x) (l'hopital's rule applies here in parts of it) also everytime a trigonometric function is introduced go pi/2 times all inner function or 2*pi times all inner function

Wednesday, April 29, 2015


now in the 1-1/H the hopetenuse the time is really the one and the time is squared becuse inside a radical then integrated is time minus hypotenuse thus the same behavior in capacitance or very similiar anyway now take the kozak equation m*m is e to the (2*m*m*v*v/(c*c)) the two is becuase I am talking of two objects going toward each other also v must be integrated I'll get to that anyway then dv*dv is [c*c*ln(m*m)]/(2*m*m) then intregal of dv*dv dm*dm is c*c*sqr[ln(m*m)]/4 then intregal of dv*dv dm*dm is just v*v becuase the d(m*v) is in terms of mass and in terms of v which ever order so then I derived in terms of v then the m*v deal hooked up the m so all you got is the v's as in go dv/(dm*dv) then the dm is dv/dv then one then your integration to v now this can be done because one side is m and other side is dv*dm or (m*v) where v is integrated already so go in terms of dm but then go square for both sides one side do other side do and hence we have [c*(ln(m*m))] is 2v then m*m is e to the (2v/c) and so m is e to the (v/c) now v is Va plus Vb plus X so e to the [(Va plus Vb plus X)/(c)] then mass multiplies because if you increase a velocity by x and it is twice the mass imagine now you are accelerating two objects then four well then mass will multiply by e to the velocity difference or e to the X then then X is eliminated and it stays as Va plus Vb see mass did all the work so to keep energy from going haywire and creating itself velocity must give up the X also why not velocity give up to mass instead well energy is m*c*c for internal non kinetic energy so mass must get all the accomedations also remember in the mass is e to the v/c then if the velocity is way below light speed then only part of the X get's attacked but at light speed 100 percent get's attacked here's why the X/c exponent says for a velocity X pay attention to X/c not X!!! so that is why one object closer faster then other obect toward approaching third object third oject coming toward them sees the difference differently now in the atom the engolfing particles axis in all three x,y,z dimension angle degrees each degree can be anything for each particle also in the mass is e to the v everyone must be f(v) then f(f(v)) then f(f(f(f(v)))) where f(v) is e to the v etc. and v must be increasing as the asymtote in the case f(v) then f(f(v)) then f(f(f(f(v)))) f(v) is e to the v and v is liniar then the asymtote is liniar c per time and so if v is one to one liniar you can make overall v say parabolic by g(v) is parabolic then that is the asymtote and in energy creation and distruction the distruction goes 1/E and creation goes E because the A in the A factor theories is 1/function is 1/g(v) in distruction then in creation go function then g(v) and this is all 1/[m*g(v)*g(v)] in distruction below light speed and above it is m*g(v)*g(v) where g(v) can be c or any function and E is function now at c the asymtote is one neither created or destroyed in m*g(v)*g(v) divided by m*g(v)*g(v) and this is for any v and any g(v) so f(f(f(g(g(g(v)))))) BUT THIS WILL APPROACH AN ASYMTOTE THAT IS INCREASING PARBOLIC THEN BY V TO THE FOURTH THEN SIXTH THEN EIGHT ETC. SO FOR A PARABOLIC JUST GO f(f(f(g(v)))) NOW i TRIED TO CORRECT THE ERRORS IN THIS POST OR LETTER AND THIS INFORMATION IS SUPPOSE TO HELP JUST COMDINED THIS INFORMATION WITH PAST INFORMATION AND WEIGH IT OUT BUT THERE IS POSSIBLY SOME ERRORS IN THIS LETTER OR POST SO IF SOME OR ALL OF THIS STUFF CONTRADICTS PAST INFORMATION DO NOT LISTEN TO IT!!!!!!!!!!!! now say Y is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then velocity would be v/Y then acceleration is a*(Y to the 1.5) then go m/Y times a/Y is f*Y f is force m is mass a is acceleration then m*a/(Y*Y) is f*Y then to match up the treatment divide by Y*Y in force as was m*a then f/Y now kozak of x/Y is x*x is e to the (x*x*v*v/(c*c)) now remember if going e to the x*x*v*v then c is the unit not one so the little v is turned into a multiple of the speed of light of f(v) is really f(c*L)!!! also remember acceleration get's huge so time required to reach a given velocity is remarkably small so the whole thing is in a flash!!! now in the z is (x+y)/(1+(x*y)) the x+y in the kozak theory is always c then c is a unit so go 1/(1+(x*y)) then that is kozaked to z is e to the -(x*y*z) then v is x*y then tan(v) is z then dzdz/(1+z*z) is dzdv then then ln(1+z*z) is zv then 1+z*z is zv then tangent squared is sqr(tan(v)) then plus one is sqr(sec(v)) then invert and square root to get to the other z is cos(x*y) the invert is because one exponent is negative also when converting from conventional to angular like in a trigonometry function the inside of the function always go times 2*pi also e to the m*m*v*v is m*m really means that v is at c not one so created energy now remember the lobes are really one particle tracing the whole thing so count the lobe with the tracer also since particles go slower bacause the lobe is tracing length of sine wave then instead of c go c1 for electron c2 for proton etc. as in some other velocity variable NOW SOME OF THIS CAN BE SERIOUS ERRORS IF THEY CONTRADICT THE PAST DO NOT LISTEN IF THEY JUST CORRECT IT THEN LISTEN TO IT!!! now in the m*m is e to the m*m*v*v/(c*c) then ln(m*m) is v*v/(c*c-v*v) then 1/ln(m*m) is (c*c-v*v)/(v*v) then 1/((m*m)*ln(m*m)) is [sqr(c*c-v*v)]/(v*v) is 1/((m*m)*ln(m*m)) then go dmdm/dv will take the square out then in terms of v for f(v) and for h(m) d(m*m) then ln(ln(m*m))/2 is -(1/v) then 2*ln(ln(m)) is -(1/v) then there was a two in the dmdm/dv as in 2*m*dm/dv then the two is out the dm/dv is now also there is c*c/(v*v) then -c*c/v then the v is really units of c to put in v as c then a constant intregal effect because it is logical to say that at light speed the c-v goes to zero then c-(c*c/v) which is sqr(ln(m)) so when v is at infinite mass is e to the (e to the c-(c*c/v) now note something when v is at infinite mass is at e to the (e to the (c)) which is huge but finite!!! but only at the kozak maneuvers as in only when the maneuvers are such that m*m is e to the (m*m*v*v/(c*c) now in the m*m is e to the m*m*v*v/(c*c) go v*v/(c*c-v*v) is ln(m*m) then ln(c*c/(c*c-v*v)) is v*v/(c*c-v*v) then (c*c-v*v)/(c*c) is e to the -(v*v/(c*c-v*v)) then at v is light speed then e to the -infinite is zero and (c*c-v*v)/(c*c) is zero then at rest everything goes light speed!!! now one more thing in u/(1+u*u) is v by kozak theory then ln(1+u*u) is v*v then sqrt(-1 plus e to the v*v) also u can be negative for sqrt(1 minus e to the -v*v) this tells the velocity outside as opposed to inside in kozak maneuvers now mass finite at velocity is infinite thus the universe must be finite because inly a finite amount of mass is interacting if an infinite amount then the energy is infinite (k*q*q/r) and G(m*m)/r) if an infinite amount of those or an infinite number of each or both the boundaries of energy would be large see it is far from a particle then the kinetic turns to potential then that potential can turn right back!!! so finite number of fields and function mass to conclude finite universe!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! now for the basic kozak equation go toward the origin then v becomes -v then dv/dx is -1 then sqr(m*x)/2 is positive then minus of minus c*c*sqrt(c*c-x*x)/c see v must be toward the origin where the asymtote is also the universe mass is going to stay constant even when at infinite as already proven even when universe is at infinite but the space is a form of mass just silent mass so the energy is a constant but at one time it was e to the c now it is e to the e to the c then when the next bang then probaably e to the (e to the c) etc. so maybe it will become infinite the bangs may get closer together in time!!! now when the waves move in paths of sine waves around particle that is moving the frequency when increasing will slow it down tangentially if amplitude does not decrease and by 1/x because light speed waves now higher frequency means slower particle tangentially but wave length smaller and amplitude smaller then faster particle tangentially in proportion now the amplitude is NOT the mass it is how big the particle swells or shrinks and the amplitude is huge constant times swelling or shrinking now is the mass smaller when particle shrinks the answer is NO the waves keep going light speed the radius is smaller then oh no the radius is smaller so mass is rc wait a minute well no worries the cylinders must move alot faster to get the waves to behave light speed at a smaller distance and ofcourse the waves shrink and the particle shrinks but when waves are light speed at smaller radius the cylinders move faster and they are closer now when mass creeps in then time also does so the frequency will act weird because of the time and this makes everything agree now about the basic kozak equation the intregal of cv/sqrt(c*c-v*v) dmv is intregal of m*v dmv then just for m*v go dv/dx x is -v then -[c*c*sqrt(c*c-v*v)]/c to intregal of -c*c/m is -[sqr(m*x)]/2 then c*c*ln(m) is [sqr(m*x)]/2 then both minuses cancel leaving c*c*ln(m) is m*m*x*x but that is really m*m*v*v then eventually m*m is e to the {[sqr(m*x)]/(c*c)} see this had to be done because it does NOT make sence to say integrated mass is decreasing when velocity is increasing as in look at the sqrt(c*c-v*v) a circle of radius c see you have to drag velocity x axis the other way or it will not add up also the mass of the universe is constant otherwise light speed would vary and space would be like the ether we all thought was conducting light but each bang creates more energy before it was 1/infinite then one then one times infinite also when mass is accelerating the acceleration is 1/m actual mass in that situation then momentum is liniar and energy is parabolic only in the kozak conditions now mass is finite and constant (counting space as flat undisturbed mass) then how is the mass and space increasing with expansion well it is NOT but simply redistributing or spreading out so both theories are correct when mass and space is just apreading dark matter and energy everything spreading now for mass is rc it is really rc/K where K is a huge constant so now mcc is rc times (c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) then m is r times (1/sqrt(c*c-v*v)) or r times (1/sqrt(c*c-c*dr*c*dr)) then r/(c) times (1/sqrt(1-dr*dr)) is m then c/r times sqrt(1-dr*dr) 1/m then c*c/(r*r) is 1-dr*dr is 1/(m*m) then 1- sqr(r*r/(m*m*c*c)) is drdr then r*r is -1 + e to the [1/(m*c*c)] then 1+r*r is e to the 1/(m*c*c) then ln(1+r*r) is 1/(m*c*c) then 1/(c*c*ln(1+r*r)) is m now the mass can be thought of as Km then (1/K)/(c*c*ln(1+r*r)) is actual m now the perpendicular can be treated seperate as in m*v*v/r is F then Fr/v*v then m is now (Fr/K)/(c*c**v*v*ln(1+r*r)) now how does acceleration work well go m*m is e to the sqr(m*v) then ln(m*m)/(m*m) is sqr(v) then sqr(ln(m*m))/2 is intregal sqr(v) d(m*m) then go 1/d(sqr(mv)) to get sqr(ln(m*m))/2 is sqr(dv)/d(sqr(mv)) see intregal for both v's is really a double intregal but mv is the derivative base for the whole equation see you cannot just pull a dx to get an intregal because you will get a cosntant ans you cannot integrate in terms of a constant!! also you cannot just pull any d function to get an automatic intregal it must be the right variable anyway then take the 2 out because you can taking the behavior of one of the bodies not both and so sqr(dv)/(d(sqr(dmv)) is c*c*sqr(ln(m)) then c*ln(m) is dv/(dmv) then dv/(dmv) is really dv/(dFt) then a /[(dF/dx)] is c*ln(m) then c*(df/dx)*ln(m) is acceleration now in the mass down to 1/infinity level of e to the t minus one then acceleration is 1/(e to the t) no one because acceleration jumps up to one when the force is applied because infinte mass is zero then then intregal is 1-(1/(e to the t)) then momentum is (z is e to the t) is [sqr(z-1)]/(z) then distance is t+z then what if I make the e into a 4 then [sqr(z-1)]/(z) is t but if t is 1/2 that is true and it is only true if energy is conserved at light speed which is related to the energy constant in the unviverse and affected by it also now why for will invert 1/2 to two step one is two units of s/infinite step two is four!!! this is all assuming that force and everything is one unit and and you are using whatever units now in energy the 1/2 of a second comes out -1/2 not to worry energy is lost by the body doing the action now one thing in light speed the time is faser effect because the unit is c not one also the end result is also multiplied by c for the same reason then if you do this it will come out as 1/(2c) so when a photon is accelerating it takes constant times 1/(2c) seconds!!! also below light speed is energy creation well the object giving the energy is gaining and photon is loosing and this happens everywhere at nucleus to electron orbital jump ahywhere where this needs to happen NOW THERE MAYBE ERRORS THROUGHOUT THIS WHOLE BLOG AS WELL AS THIS POST SO CORRECT THEM TO MAKE THIS ALL WORK now mv is the right variable because I integrated it initially using mv also the farther radius is mass times mass/(r*r) then a cancel to one and m*v*v/r then the increase mass and increase r is one thus m is r*c then c because c is the unit also to the electron the length shrinks thus a third the circle for example is one whole circle that is one third circumferance that is why the images of three in the circle equally spaced now remember the speed of a particle along its center is not light speed but less but in light speed then again twice 2mcc/2r again to one so r*c also K + r*c/L also charge to mass is C + m/B these are constants B and L are huge and K and C are good sized thus the equations are true but with all the constants also light has mass see hf is energy then hf/(c*c) is mass also if force is constant go F instead of df/dx for anything else go df/dx also go c*lnm is v then (c/m) dm is dv then (c/m) dmdm is dvdm then clnm is mv then v is [clnm]/m then the canceling of dmv makes c*sqr(lnm)/2 is v but energy is mvv is m*v*c*sqr(lnm)/2 but it is (1/2)*m*v*v the (1/2)'s cancel thus c*sqr(lnm) is v then d is F times d is m*v*v then m*v*c*sqr(lnm) all divided by force where force can be anything again it is F for constant and df/dx for everything else anyway that is distance NOW THESE THEORIES ARE MATHEMATICALLY SOUND BUT THEY MAY NOT PARALLEL THE EXPERIMENTS UNTIL CRAZY CONDITIONS BUT ALOT OF WORK COMES FROM WITHIN THE MIND FIRST!!! now in the equations for making relative intregals or derivatives then when factoring in or out a da then derive or integrate but if wanting to keep the equation the same only factor the da in or out (NOT necessarily respectively) and a means anything also all constants assumed to be positive except in certain cases also remember to factor in or out the correct variable!!! now what really happened in acceleration c*c*(df/dx)*lnm is I went dmdm for both sides then for one side I went sqr(dm/dmv) then in terms of sqr(mv)to get 1/(dvdv) then I went intregal in terms of (dv*dv) then I took one sqr(mv) out and the 1/dvdv to get a second then went from there to integrate in terms of dvdv/(dmvdmv) thus the eqaution is right then orcourse sqrt to dv/(dmv) is sqrt root of other side and since everything is under a d then you can do that with an intregal now in this acceleration the mass can be very small for a very big acceleration but you must go the kozak proccess of acceleration and it is possible it works for conventional acceleration processes as well but I there is an error like this remember to correct it and play it by ear and for any errors correct it!!! now in any conversion from sine wave to conventional expression especially by kozak functions only take into account the graph to the first maximum and first minimum after the origin to the right also in z is f(y,z) for example if wanting to change z in terms of modifying the kozak function then on z side if wanting to change f(y,z) then on f(y,z) side also in cosin(x-y) then in cosine x go z is cos(x) then dz/sqrt(1-z*z) is dxdx then (which means sqr(dx)) then dzdz/(1-z*z) is x*x then integrate both in terms of dzdz (in past equations it was not necessary to do this step because it was already there on that side and the function variable appeared on both sides preventing a constant) so -ln(1-z*z) is x*x*z*z then 1-z*z is e to the (-x*x*z*z) then kozak that to z*z is 1/(1+x*x) to x*x/(1+x*x) and do the same for partial derivative by y to get y*y/(1+y*y) then one subtracts as in cos(x)cos(y) minus sin(x)cos(y) plus cos(x)sin(y) minus sin(x)sin(y) then kozaked is also the terms result in the kozaked following [sqrt(x*x/(1+x*x))] plus [sqrt(y*y/(1+y*y))] (square root each fraction as already done first then add then square) but the plus is a minus because x-y not x plus y then the result is [2*sqr(x*y)]/(1+xy) then [xy is really x*y] the constants of cos(x)cos(x) all the terms will all have A*A then cos(x-y) is really where x is kx and y is wt then k is 2pi/L L is wavelength then w is 2pif f is frequency than they are equal but in typical waves the x-y is zero because you will go [x*x/(nj*nj+x*x)] plus [y*y/(nk*nk+y*y)] well the angles nj and nk are inverted are the invert of what the opponent is doing then they cancel but then you have A*B*C times [N*sqr(x*y*z)/(1+(xyz)] and more and this gives you the curve length (NOT the height)!!!!!!!!!! now the waves will be sine because they start at zero also when the function is zero if wanting a cosine just do the same exact thing because the square takes out the negative also remember some of these things can have glitches in them be sure to detech them and correct them also in the mass of photons the mass is harder to manipulate thus the energy exchange between kinetic and potential is less if more energy and the velocity squares for energy thus the area under a wave square more because more ampltude and more wavelength do the ones with the big mouth are the ones with little back up the ones with suttle mouths are the ones with huge back up!!!!!!!!!!!! thus nature has a way of counteracting now like I said I think I knocked out the glitches but be sure to correct any more now these xyz each can be any function each and different from each other and different period!!! also remember in the mass and acceleration heads when the 'a' is positive then it is 1/(coth(f(x))) because in the function the proof in the past and (1/2)*ln[(1-x)/(1+x)] but when negative the (1/2)*ln[(1+x)/(1-x)] then coth(f(x)) see how this works but this piece of information maybe lethal to past information with possible glitches between them so if it is then ignore this if not this is a helper information now I may have switched the signs around etc. all kinds of glitches so try sorting them out!!! now in the 1-z*z then z is zi or z square root of (-1) then when processed you loose the i's and take the positive in the xyz equations also in the coth(f(x)) equations the first fraction for coth is negatified on putpose otherwise you would be -(e to the x) so it works out now you cannot go x*x/(1+x*x) for length because the i would be there and any cross between two get's rid of the i's also remember any glitches I will try to correct but I cannot get them all now this equation can be for molecules instead of just single atoms and a complex nucleus etc. now the x's y's and z's have and canceled to one by the ni's nj's and nk's but this does NOT mean x y and z are ones!!!also in the ni's the i's that are with the n's are NOT the sqrt(-1) like I was just talking about so take out any additional glitches and I will keep trying also now the xyz function the none of these can be liniar and they must all be different from each other because if liniar the process will be zero times a constant and if two are the same again the process would be zero and if one all alone the i's will get you and the i's will get you in other cases as well also use all ideas in all inventions and use all ideas everywhere and the direct signal system is not for the function machine signal of function or invert of function use the curved waves as in sin(cx)*sin(cx)/cx or whatever the waves are I could be off a little also in the coth fractions the x goes to zero then back to one and remember this could mess it up then just ignore but it could help thus glitches confrontations all this be sure to correct now if you just go [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] to the (2 to the v) then that is just a function and mass is right on the force when v goes faster but if [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] is a derivative as in d(ffff(x))/d(fff(x)) (which is really dz/dx where z equaled ffff(x) and now becomes f(x) and x becomes liniar) then (dfff(x))/(dff(x)) etc. then the derivative of force is out riding derivative of mass by a whole bunch of infinite's at infinite if v is faster but for this derivative situation you must go m*m equals e to the (m*m*v*v/(c*c)) also if the initial force is a huge K then mass is responding faster then mass get's a larger head start thus it works also in all cases e to the x*x is really e to the (x*x) so any other errors take out!!! now u is velocity and when going from dt is dt0*sqrt(1-u*u) to t is t0*(1+u*u)/sqrt(1-u*u) you integrate dt then the other way you go derivative of (intregal(t)) so in t you go t/(1+u*u) is t0/sqrt(1-u*u) then integrate (because in the following kozak equation to make constant liniar or liniar to parabolic etc. you integrate) to get t is arcsin(u)/(arctan(u)) where u is one at light speed then pi/2/(pi/4) or two so if increasing to light speed liniarly approaching then when crossing light speed the second is then in 2 as in the actual time is 2 seconds for every one now in 2u/(1+u*u) is v then kozaked is v*v is 2u(e to the -(v*v*u*u)) then integrate is -(1/(v*v))*(e to the -(v*v*u*u)) now this can integrate like this becuase set v to a constant it can be isolated as in v is function(v) then change the constant then thin the rectangles then mass is varied then you can do the intregal of the big equation and you do not have to do the intregal for mass the variance is already the intregal also go integrate the main equation on both sides in terms of u for both then [-(1/(v*v))*(e to the -(v*v*u*u))] is ln(1+u*u) then 1+u*u is e to the [-(1/(v*v))*(e to the -(v*v*u*u))] then when u is infinity and v is 2u/(1+u*u) then then this huge thing reduces to 1 then 1+u*u is one then u*u is zero then u is zero so when going an infinite number of c's you are back at zero!!! this means then universe is finite distance and finite mass see if u could go to infinite then you would go 1/sqrt(1-u*u) where 1 is infinite squared instead of c squared and that would be a different story!!! now in the t/(1-u*u) is t0/sqrt(1-u*u) the dt0/sqrt(1-u*u) is the standard so we make it the standard then 1-{2/[1+(e to the (2Karcsin(u))]} then if u is one that means light speed then that is the second!!! then if in between then punch it through this formula I got it by (1/2)*ln((1+u)/(1-u)) is arcsin(u) by integrating t0/sqrt(1-u*u) and t/(1-u*u) now the constant thing so make time the constant at a point see remember everything is relatively light speed!!! K is (t/t0)*(1/sqrt(1-u*u)) and 1/sqrt(1-x*x) is really 1/(sqrt(1-x*x)) so at light speed t/t0 is one!!! thus everything is light speed!!! also dmv is dmdv now dv/dmv is c*c*lnm then (1/m)*(dv/dv) is c*c*(lnm)*(lnm) is 1/dmdm then c*lnm is 1/dm then up a dm to c*lnm is v now all constants and negatives cancel conviently now for the equation before go d[ln[(1+u)/(1-u)]] is (t/t0)*2*arcsine(u)/sqrt(1-u*u) then go (t/t0)*sqr[du/d(arcsine(u)] for the former side and so intregal of d[ln[(1+u)/(1-u)]] is (t/t0)*sqr(darcsine(u)) then the manner that this is done creates [ln[(1+u)/(1-u)]]*d(1-u*u) is (t/t0)*sqr(darcsine(u)) then derive (d(1-u*u)/(1-u*u))/[2u/sqr(1-u*u)] is t/t0 then then (2u(1-u*u))/[2u/sqr(1-u*u)] is t/t0 then 1-u*u is t/t0 then the constants and negatives cancel conviently to get (u*u-1)/2 then dt/dt0 is m/m0 is u also p is mv now 0.5sqr(mcc) plus 0.5sqr(pc) is sqr(E) then sqrt0.5(sqr(mcc) plus 0.5sqr(pc))/0.5mcc is E/E0 (E is energy) now when canceling variables (2*c*c+2*v*v)/(c*c) then it turns out 4-sqr(E/E0) is 2*(c*c-v*v)/c but that is 2*m0/m but when going liniar to light appearently E needs only to be 2E0 to get it there and similiar proofs will say multiply the two when liniar is lower and divide when liniar is higher why well the area under the line is smaller with a quick trip then with a long trip!!! also now when particles move they move in circles or circular functions to stay light speed with respect to each other so in circle not deviate as in not collapse not explode also go arcsine(x) is sin(0) then sin(sin(0)) then dx/(sqrt(1-x*x)) is cos(0)d0 then dxdx/(1-x*x) is cos(0)*cos(0)d0d0 and now the x is only sin(0) the derivative multiplying made the first function not necessary and this only happens when the variables are seperate the whole time then -ln(1-x*x)/(1-x*x) is d0d0 then -sqr(ln(1-x*x)) is d0d0 then 1-x*x is e to the -d0d0 and do is feta then f and so cos(f) ends up equaling (1/2)*(e to the [(i*f)]) then the wave duplicates it's area to (1/2)*(e to the [(i*f)]) is cos(f) and you can go cos(icos0) and manipulate the constants and all constants cancel to all negatives cancel everything is convient thus cos(0) plus isin(0) is e to the i0 (i is sqrt(-1)) also remember the factors that all go into the particle when doing relativity!!! now in force is ma then f to the n is ma to the n then if mass is [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] to the n then acceleration is [-c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] to the n but the negative is corrected by the inverse relation in f/m is acceleration then all build the same but force is hand controled so force can outrun or tail the other two in rate of build only also so this simply proved builds are identical and force may be a little faster or slower also when trying to answer a question use the theories already given in this blog to answer them now use the power head in particle accelerator and container explosive use all ideas everywhere!!! now in the sphere of the cylinder the angle of wobble for the same field of any kind of field is always the same and the wobbles change together in the same angle at all times also in the particle if disk at an angle then a is the velocity along the length and b is velocity along the spiral then sqrt(a*a+b*b) is always c the speed of light also if the intregal of z is intregal of sqrt(r*r+(drdr/(d0d0))) then dzdz/(d0d0) is r*r + drdr/(d0d0) then dzdz is r*r*d0*d0 + dr*dr then z*z is [r*r plus intregal of r*r*d0*d0] then z is sqrt[r*r plus intregal of r*r*d0*d0] and so if r is one then (0 is feta) sqrt[r*r plus intregal of r*r*d0*d0] so if r is feta then 1+(0*0-1) or 0 which is accurate!!! the minus one was an integrated constant which is to be expected!!! now HUGE CORRECTION the m*m is e to the [m*m*v*v/(c*c)] then c*c*ln(m*m)/(m*m) is v*v then c*c*sqr(ln(m*m)) is intregal (v*v) d(m*m) is intregal of (v*v)/sqr(dvdm) because the sqr(1/dv) makes it go from intregal to derivative of the v*v or dvdv then the dmdm is all taken out then clnm is dv/(dmdv) (I sqrt everything) and all 2's canceled for one reason or another and this one reason or another is for anything including this then go divide by m on both sides and c*sqr(ln(m)) is (1/m)*(1/dm) but stop right there one side is integrated so the right side gives 1/(dmdm) to cancel two dm's to get intregal of 1 or v then c*sqr(ln(m)) is v so if v is e to the x where x is one to one liniar then c*sqr(ln(m)) is sqr(ln(v)) then sqrt(c) is b then b(ln(m)) is (ln(v)) then v is m to the sqrt(c) if the v in m*m is [e to the {m*m*v*v/(c*c)}] is e to the x and the whole equation builds but not the v*v alone also you do not need to make v have to go c (c is the unit but the division of c*c makes it easier by the unit being a regular unit) also mest at rest is m0 add that to the mix also if starting at zero then do not put m0 in the mix also c*ln(m) is dv/(dmdv) is a/(d(FT)) then c*df/(dx)*ln(m) or c*F*ln(m) then distance is c*sqr(ln(m)) is m*v*v then [m*v*c*sqr(ln(m))]/(F or df/dx) is distance so this should clear it up as in velocity/acceleration is time or (ln(m))/(F or df/(dx)) then time is infinite change if no force!!! and zero change if m is one or really rest mass is one!!! now the distance formula cannot be used for time or else distance traveled would be a key factor in time!!! also v/a is really d(d)/d(a) then then would be dt which is amount that time changes!!! now in the d(0*0) the 20d0 is equal to it so when going do two d0 to get a and then d(0*0) to get b then 2b is a and take this into account also in c*c*(ln(m)) is m*m*v*v/2 the first one is two intregals and the second is one well that is to be expected since in the first it is two variables and in the second it is only one variable now in 1/sqrt(c*c+v*v) (maybe raised to the nth) or anything like this all the e to the x builds are negative as in - e to the (-e to the x) etc. and negatifying it will only get the first build negatifying then positive for next then negative for next etc. and builds happen liniar but the rate is exponential etc. now in the intregal say v and then v/dv then go (1/2)*2v*dv/(dvdv) then (1/2)*1 and then the 1/2 is gone because the intregal is 1/2 the velocity integrated thus when going from v to v/dv then derive and when going opposite from v/dv to v or x to x dx where x is v/dv then integrate so this is now all proven now when the wave of frequency of particle as well as spiral is changed the angle rule of change applies to both as in spiral changes angle of direction same in amplitude to forward velocity also typically go d2x/(dxdx) but if originating from the derivative itself and not the function then just go d2x/dx!!! or really x dx then (1/2)*(dxdx) then 1/2 is gone by area again then dxdx then d(x*x) then integrate once and it integrates twice to x*x/2 but the 1/2 is gone also mass is really the change in angle of direction then if the angle of direction is slower responding then the velocity as in a very freqent spiral and wave then past light speed and energy is going in that much faster into the particle or body also use the v/d and x dx proofs to apply the thing proven anywhere now without fornce light slows down to zero by itself well light has no mass at rest so if it is the angle situation the angle is harder to change with climbing velocities but the angle is equally as hard to change either way but down is less hard either way and up is more hard either way but if it is a straight shot as in no angle then it plays simple as in force keeps energy no force no energy then it goes to zero so light is out of existance when the electron takes it's energy but forms light if giving energy or to another dimension under ours now one more thing in ubove light speed the angle is maxed out and not changing anymore so the behavior is back to square one remove force and it slows down but because of the lack of energy but when slowing down the angle springs right back into action as soon ans the force is removed so now the behavior gets weird as in the mass will increase but decelerate increase then to zero rate increase of decrease etc. then decrease of decrease because mass is now slowing down less and then the body or particle will start at square one with angle of direction or mass beginning and velocity at beginning also the angle of direction resisting change is mass see the mass paritcle has infinite number of cylinders and so has that gyroscopic manipulation on the direction of angle also when I talk of liniar build I mean f then ff then fff then ffff etc. but rate exponential as in f then ff then ffff then ffffffff etc. now in the x dx and v/dv take the liniar increase to add together then go triangle to increase of area then one square and a triangle then two squars and a triangle etc. then go constant one for triangle one and constant two for triangle two and square one etc. then decrease to change of x then make the squares and triangles such that it follows a function thus intregal of function of x for dx now for derivative the slopes then do the same thing to a function as the intregal except you are taking area to y instead of y to area etc. thus now the proofs extend from x dx and v/dv to any function!!! now in the particle wave amplitude then amplitude is direectly proportional to mass and in the spiral the moving thing with it is only experiencing the circle and in the waves the thing is only experiencing the amplitude then the mass and fields stay the same in the ship to the things moving with it also the fields stay the same because the mass is the same as in same v*v/r more mass more force and in the moving close to light speed or whatever it is harder to change direction by angle of direction which the rules hold for wave and spiral the same and straight line movement again the angle of direction but only for constant space in changing space the straight line is really a curve or a sine wave for periodic ocsillation for dimensions and this is because there when space changes the angle of direction changes because of mass change becuase mass is really angle of direction!!! now mass in a circle is c/(c*c-v*v) because c/vh horizontal and then multiplied on both sides is vh/c and this is even if the radius is infinite also mass is frequency squared because the particle is spinning that much faster and the acceleration is v*v/c then multiplied is c/(v*v) for both sides then mass must be a square to cancel it assuming radius is constant also in the spiral and wave although perpendicular the whole velocity must be light speed so they do effect each other and for all this apply all this to spiral and wave so twice the energy is twice mass as in m*c*c also the fields are that much larger to be consistant with energy!!! also vh/c is the traveling velocity horizontal and the vertical I just called v but it is really vv and you can switch the two around etc. so proportional to amplitude becuase mass is rc and proportional to frequency squared then direct proportion to traveling velocity as in general direction is traveling velocity!!! also assuming the radius is one as well!!! THE FOLLOWING IS ONLY OPTIONS!!! now remember the initial current to induced current is inner coil to outer coil and delay time is 1/trillionth of a second and the wave time is 1/300th of a second for all pulsers and power steppers and for capacitor one way with diodes and resisters is wave and other way with diodes is delay time and you can use a capacitor for each inner coil and solve for t like in the derivative circuit and you can do like in the derivative circuit for capacitors and the capaictor signals the larger currents also you can use right before inner coil and right after outer coil or other points like I said in the past etc. and for freezers same things and the beginning is unit current and end is large current also go dt then signal and insulate off of beginning current and signal end current and same for freeze and beginning is sourse before first simple or trick rectifier of powerstepper or pulser and end is after last and all this is ONLY OPTIONS!!! also remember cylinders are one unit of infinite times speed of light to each other and absolute value and close on the circle is relatively faster do to tangent vectors thus same relative speed but to closer ones time must change for all situations as well as this one also remember it is really one doing all the tracing to make the others also if one goes past light speed creation chain reaction and universe explodes blow universe collapses and this explains the whole and all string theories!!! also what about a wave or particle with respect to a cylinder well that never happens cylinders to cylinders and waves and particles to waves and particles also the time is infinite to two adjacent cylinders and to other cylinders again time changes and for waves and particles time changes also in any curve sine circle any curve remember the tangents behave this way and the relative straight speed is 1/infinite but in the straight line the relative straight speed is infinite/infinite or finite by the radius also the created energy or destroyed energy by relative explains all string theories!!! now wait the particle accelerator creates energy won't that blow up the universe??? no because the particle accelerator cannot create energy without increasing absolute value of velocity as well as relative see the absolute will absorb the energy but in relative changing without absolute changing then there is a chain reaction and same with collapsing and particle accelerator can decelerate as well as accelerate also 'a' factor is similiar in properties to light speed also past light speed or the 'a' factor in certain ways will mess with dimensions as well!!! also as well time!!! which is really just another dimension!!! now when I said d(sec(x)*sec(x) minus one)/dx is sec(x) I really ment d(sqrt(sec(x)*sec(x) minus one))/dx is sec(x)*sec(x) then note sec(x)*sec(x) is derivatvie of tan(x) etc. now when the 'a' factor is below light speed creation or distruction of energy is counteracted when above creation or distruction permenant and when at light speed creation is distruction and distruction is crration and time is messed with!!! now light is in discrete increments of frequency on the spectrum of actual possible light and particles same thing in frequency and velocity and mass for light and particles because the energy levels in an atom with definite radius and mass is discrete then make radius small and mass small then same thing with the similar energies mass velocities and frequencies etc. then make radius infinite and mass 1/infinite then same thing with just similar stuff!!! now the frequency and amplitude are limited because the energy levels are how high is limited and how low and how high because of escaping the field permanently and this all involves frequency amplitude mass velocity mass energy etc.!!! now in light for velocity in energy levels it only has two velocities c and zero also the max and min levels and number of levels and each factor (like velocity etc.)are controlled by barrier constants and wave numbers and other things I have ever mentioned!!! now the f in coth(f) is NOT force it is a liniar one to one variable and the x in the ln's is NOT the x in coth(x) and the x in coth(f) is the x in coth(x) now builds always take finite time and independent of what heads do as in aL's are the heads in the force mass and acceleration and when switching it goes between coth(f) and tanh(f) then ofcourse f(x) is treated like the x in tanh(x) and coth(x) and in the universe go A is zero B is one c is infinite etc. then the energy levels of the expanding universe like an atom might go higher then Z!!! first stage A next B next C etc. to passed Z!!! so the universe acts like a giant atom with energy levels different and much larger levels!!! now remember the particles' hologram tracers to make all other copy cylinders etc. are the cycloid wave followers now in the d0/dx is d(x)/(1+x*x) then d(x*x)/(1+x*x) is d0 then 0+1 is ln(1+x*x) then x*x is e to the 0 then e to the 0/2 is x then the kozak equation is when integrating and kozaking then the tan(0) becomes exponential in the spiral and parallel wave then feta is 0 and feta changes to tangent from angular to exponential like in kozak equation when integrating but tan(0) is (0 can mean zero or feta) the behavior of spiral and waves!!! now in the v is 2u/(1+u*u) I really ment v*v is 2u/(1+u*u) or where I said v*v I really ment v also the axis of wobble can change angle and when it does the angle of wobble changes in such a way that the syncrony between the two still happens by gyroscopic forces and this is only between two cylinders with the original angle of wobble the same I mean the atom can rotate so that changes axis angle right there and there are plenty of other errors to find!!! now in the mv dmv if treating it as two variables then two intregals if treating as one then one intregal because in one case it is area to volume and in the other line to area and the line equals the area also in the barrier theory if going e to the x and e to he y*y then the process squares the y then square it but if e to the x*x and e to he y*y then the effect is canceled and you just have e to the y now again surf out the errors also the 2u/(1+u*u) the 2u is simply treated like a changing constant and you are really dealing with 1/(1+u*u) when kozaking it also in some cases I may have said m is e to the m*m*v*v/(c*c) I really ment m*m is e to the [m*m*v*v/(c*c)] so surf out the errors now dark energy is the energy of c*infinite fast cylinders and dark matter is the build up of them with no waves and perfect sphere where they attract all the time then dark matter is weaker in actual attract or repel value but constant attraction verses instantenous periodic so dark matter is dangerous!!! now say the cylinder is in three places at once then logically it is going c*infinite fast now spin when relative slows down then more mass remember the compensation mass velocity equation and attract merge encourages spin also the space minus mass of universe constant for past reasons also (2Tt)-1 is velocity and distance is intregal or (2Tt)-t 2 is the nature standard not e like in math so d/v is t the only way this can happen is when t is one so t is constant one to one liniar and find the errors in past present and future now in the 1/r and 1/(r*r) and then negative with x dx -x and -dx of both with F*D where D is r follows the same pattern as sin(0) and cos(0) and negative of both also the missile guidance can be time reaches a certain amount or x,y,z,u,w, etc. reaches a certain amount each or both also the direct signal system signals the straight currents as in which ones and does this by derivatives now v is 2u/(1+u*u) then derivative is (1-u*u)/[sqr(1+u*u)] then du/dv is [sqr(1+u*u)]/(1-u*u) then (1+u*u)/(1-u*u) is (du/dv)[1/(1+u*u)] then intregal is arctan(u) is intregal of (1+u*u)/(1-u*u) dv then dv/du is (1-u*u)/[sqr(1+u*u)] then arctan(u) is intregal of 1/(1+u*u) du then arctan(u) is arctan(u) then u is u then v at all times in mathematics anywhere is 2u/(1+u*u)!!! now du is df/dm then at zero v is zero at 1 v is one thus agreement thus stay at one but the unit is c!!! now if df/dm is negative one that means the force out does mass by a difference equal to the mass to infinite!!! now notice this could be any point where 'a' becomes negative to get more v to create energy also in 'a' is negative past an asymtote then that is another way to create infinite energy but then what happens is infinite energy does not only happen at a point anymore like it did but throughout the whole time between df/dm is zero and df/dm is negative one since all it does is increase!!! also f/m or u must be velocity now energy is m*c*c but in the infinite zone it becomes m*sqr(c*infinite) as in the cylinder effect also remember the cone of the sister fields is infinite long taking out one r to 1(r*r) to 1/r also in the creation zone the energy is greater then m*c*c in the destruction zone the energy is less then m*c*c in conserve it is m*c*c also use all inventions everywhere now in FF(x) is x etc. then the derivative is FdF(x) or dFF(x) then you are doing the whole thing no matter what then IIff(x) every time you integrate you are doing the whole thing likewise and f(x) is dF(x) in (F(x)) to the x (x is 2) is II(csc(csc(x))) etc. then the life particle is the particle that makes one conscious and aware with free will and natural intelligence and even artificial intelligence now the particle goes [(1+sin(2*pi*x))*(tan(2*pi*x))] all to the x then the intregals cause sensory input the infinite from zero causes free will and the function of function causes decision and intelligence and sensory meaning emotions as well as in all cuases all and the particle is x to infinite to zero to infinite to zero to infinite etc. in a sine wave fashion and the cycle is responsible for things also now the infinite in the csc(x) also for decision all together makes life and the more organized the particles are the more the life and all of it is needed!!! so do not hit a wall the wall can feel it by a quantity/infinite amount!!! and for use the infinite is met becuase organized infinitely perfect!!! now if taking away from organzize then a smaller infinite number etc.

Tuesday, January 20, 2015


now the reason for c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is the pythagorean theorum of spiral vector adding to get light speed now for 1/d in passive magnets they go sin(1/d)*sin(1/d) the wavelength decreases and amplitude decrease for a square increase in frequency and because less circle room and amplitude will decrease with wavelength in these cases then sin(d*d/d)*sin(d*d/d) then sin(d)*sin(d) now if passive plates go 1/(d*d) then the effect is more to get sin(d*d*d/d*d)*sin(d*d*d/d*d) to get sin(d)*sin(d) then if going 4 then sin(2d)*sin(2d) then go 1/cx now why is stuff going light speed to zero velocity that is because of time space cappacitance theorum now for light the velocity back and forth lobes the traveling velocity of the photon and the added vector velocity all are the same light speed to zero and to each other then it goes c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then the total effect is c*arcsin(v/c) c is one unit then arcsin(v) then invert the function because you are getting the variable v thus a sine wave and if one the slope is pi/2 by arcsin(v) then now light triangle system at an instant hypotenuse and both legs all going light speed with respect to each other and to zero velocity now remove light on the sides and the light in the middle scatters becuase in relativity the triangle relativity has to reajust requiring light to move away now in laser the photon one is ahead of photon two causing speed to be light speed difference in the sine waves also when legs increase as in frequncy decrease and amplitude increase the whole thing is decrease because light speed and time capacitance amplitude twice frequency half energy half because of again time space capacitance now they pass through because the light speed requirement is they do not hit each other requireing zero velocity relative for that to happen now in the amplitude that in other words increases when frquency decreases as 1/x x is liniar now light slows down in a medium because atoms resist it and curve it like an atractive charge bending and slowing down the other charged particles but it speeds up again for relativity reasons now in a blackhole does light slow down then come back in free space like a ball bouncing or the light is at zero velocity well ofcourse not see the matter must be such that the light slows down by the atoms and total internal reflection so if the matter is like that something is keeping it from caving in well things want to go light speed so the particles and everything are light speed but in orbit around the blackhole also what is the deal with gravity in a blackhole how about all the fields are acting on it also the touch theory says that the barriers will break with extreme push and when past it the barrier cannot help it anymore to it caves in also why doesn't light attract with it's elecromagnetic properties well in relativity if that happened light would not always go light speed and it wants light speed now one more thing in the absolute zero when I proved v had to be c I was proving that it is light speed to absolute zero and then also light speed with respect to each other by rope theories and space capacitance and the vary theory that proves light speed to absolute zero also proves light speed with respect to each other now if really far away the angle says it is zero so virtually no relativity effect now why do waves or lobes travel same speed angularly but particles and cylinders travel same speed tangentially well the lobes or waves are determined by the behavior of cylinders or particles whereas the particles or cylinders themselves have there own behavior so the lobes or waves are not independent tangentially but the angular rate still determines the relative for everything and tangential rate still determines the relative for everything now in U/r as energy the mass would be rc how??? well go (R-r)/(R*r) then R is one then (1-r)/(r) then dr/(r) then intregal of v/k to r/k since r is also a constant but 1/k is c!!! so then rc then if at an angle then horizontal has x and vertical has y and sqrt(x*x plus y*y) is c also if repel then (r-1)/(r) etc. now in the light the mass is x/infinity because the light is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) or c/zero then finite energy then cx and when v is less then c it has no energy!!! but in the kozak it will be m*m is e to the [(m*m*v*v)/(c*c)] then m*m is e to the (m*m) is for light and m*m is e to the (0.25m*m) is v is a half light speed so light infact has mass but v is always c now how is mass of light constant well m*m is e to the (m*m) then m must be infinity but mass is 1/infinity then times infinity to get cx then it has mass finite below above or at light speed!!! but it does not want to loose or gain mass to cheat energy so it stays at light speed regardless of force so force is more like to frequency and amplitude but other things go below well they have x mass to begin with!!! see light is x/infinity mass to begin with to prevent infinite energy!!! now in a powerhead all things including simple or trick rectifiers point clockwise or counterclockwise now for m is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) the intregal is M is arcsin(v) with c as the unit then M is total mass under the tracer of the cylinder which is constant then arcsin(M) is one anything else would be messing with energy so M is sin(v) is one then derive to get dM/dv is cos(v) to get zero then the direction is pi/2 angle then the intregal is also the intregal along the middle axis which is one since v T and M are one T is along the middle axis in the central then that is why you get a cylinder and MR*R is one for moment of inertia I for (0.5)(I)(w*w) then energy is constant then one or energy is being messed with so hence a hollow cylinder also in mass when moving at light speed it is fine but higher or lower then at lower the m*v*v/r is 1/(r*r) is m*v*v*r is one then r*v is m them m*m*v is one m*m is ofcourse by c*c/(c*c-v*v) but c*c*v/(c*c-v*v) is m*m*v then intregal is 2*c*c(-ln(c*c-v*v)) is e to the -M/(4*c*c) is directly proportional to v so then v switch because it is really m*v*v then v increases M exponentially also the is two negatives to cancel each negative so take absolute value M is e to the v/(4*c*c) also then M is m squared but it is really m when inverting the function to get m is e to the v/(4*c*c) then 2c becomes the unit c is unit but this is in angle that is repectively 1/2 between particle and center then m is e to the v thus the exponential now when I say you can mess with energy I mean the conditions half to be right to create energy now in the regular power converter the nth branch has an insulated derivative switch that is simple rectified that signals itself and all the other branches by branching signal currents before the pulsers one signal one branch one signal branch but the energy is returned to the nth by the main currents of the branches this should enhence energy creation also the nth branch has n pulsers the n-1 has n-1 pulsers etc. and at nth the derivative system is after the pulsers also the nth branch is the only branch with the derivative system and it branches to all the currents before the pulsers now in the I is K(e to the (-t/(rc))) then I is K(e to the (-tv/(rq))) then Ir is v then v is rK(e to the (-tv/(rq))) then with just v is (e to the (-tv/(rq))) go rq/(rq+t) is v then multiplying each time the rK so (rK)*rq/(rq+t) is v but this is only if q is constant and r is constant and t and v is varied so it is a weird situation now for inductance go I is K(e to the -(tL)/(r)) and over here B and r are constant and everything else varies then I is K(e to the -(tL)/(r)) then I is K(e to the -(tB)/(rI)) then v is rK(e to the -(tB)/(rI)) then go v is rK(e to the -(tB)/(v)) then v is rK(e to the --(tB)/(v)) because when I increase it gets smaller then v is rK(e to the (tB)/(v)) then 1/v is (1/rK)(e to the -(tB)/(v)) then (1/B)/((1/B)+(t)) is 1/v then 1/rK(1+Bt) is then 1/v is (1/rK)/(1+Bt) then rK(1+Bt) is v then for capacitors energy is (1/2)qv or (1/2)rqq/(rq+t) and inductance energy is (1/2)LII or (1/2)*(B/I)*I*I then (LII is L*I*I and this is for anything multiplied) then go (1/2)*B*I but I is K(1+Bt) then (1/2)*BK(1+Bt) so my wavestarter system can manipulate this so only small amounts of energy are lost!!! also m*m is e to the (m*m*v*v) where c is the unit then that means m is 1/(1-v*v) then that means M (intregal of m) is arcsin(v) then sin(M) is v then if m is m is e to the ((1/2)m*m*v*v) then m is e to the M*v*v then (all multiplied together same exponent for anything) but go dM*(dm/dv) (it is an implicit differentation and integration) the dv comes out to the other side so dM is e to the M*v*v is really sin(M) is v (or dM is e to the M*v is really sin(M) is sqrt(v)) then cos(M) is sqrt(1-v*v) then sec(M) is m!!! and again dm/dv for implicit then e to the M is really sec(M) plus tan(M) but e to the (pi/2) is finite and sec(M) plus tan(M) is two times 1/zero or two infinity!!! but only under these special conditions see to create energy you need violent and unusual conditions especially infinite energy!!! now in the enrgy of capacitor and inductance clearly one is inversely relation to time and the other direct proportion when this happens you have 1/a plus b is 1 then a is 1/(1-b) then a is A*A and b is B*B then A is 1/sqrt(B*B) integrate is Ax is arcsin(B) then finally sin(Ax) is B or sin(x/B) is 1/A see this is a deal where the wavestarter system can manipulate for less energy in normal conditions and created energy in weird conditions and infinite energy in wacko conditions!!! and then one the wavestarter has the control it can go to the last mathematical proof!!! (the wavestarter system is really the wavestarter and the sine wave machine and other stuff too) remember extreme conditions!!! now in the variables bA is B and A is area and b is magnetism and B is magnetic flux and r is resistance v is volts I is current L is inductance M is either m or m*m or intregal of m or integal of m*m or whatever and m is mass then and v can also be velocity etc. now the mu knot and k are constants factor those in and get the real answer and when F(x) is g(x) then plug in then plus that result in then plus THAT result in etc. also the powerhead can make gamma rays concentrated with only a battery!!! now in the optics A+B is 2C then tan(A) is h/(d1-a) is m then dm/(1+m*m) is dv (v is A) then d(m*m)/(1+m*m) is dvdm then ln(1+m*m) is mv then e to the mv is 1+m*m then m would be e to the mv/2 then kozaked is m is 2/(2-v) then subtract one because of 1+m*m then v/(2-v) then m is h/(d1-a) then add one then (h+d1-a)/(d1-a) is 2/(2-v) then 2*(d1-a)/(h+d1-a) is 2-v then 2-[2*(d1-a)/(h+d1-a)] is v is h/(h+d1-a) is A then B is h/(h+d2-a) and C is h/(h+R-a) then h/(h+d1-a) plus h/(h+d2-a) is 2*h/(h+R-a) then 1/(h+d1-a) plus 1/(h+d2-a) is 2/(h+R-a) then that is the exact see h-a would virtually be zero to get 1/d1 plus 1/d2 is 2/R just like in the book!!! now also if it is at any situation where h and q are equal then still 1/d1 plus 1/d2 is 2/R or close still it will work but for any situation you can use the kozak version also if the lense is infinite in radius and the light is straight from infinite far away then use the kozak version for any situation use the kozak version and you will get it!!! now in sine wave pulser or powerstepper you do not have to use the freeze but you can also in liniar you should use the freeze and the freeze for powerstepper goes from beginning to end of powerstepper as in before first simple or trick rectifier to after last trick or simple recitifer and same for pulser and in powerstepper I want the parallel circuit with no insulation to the unit current to signals that are identical and multi-layer and all powersteppers identical now for pulsers use insulation and only two layer signals and such that the wave is the same power and whatever current and voltage also and all pulsers identical also when the powerstepers suck the wave it drains the cuurent but the amplitude is always greater on the other side because of the simple or trick rectifers properties but energy properties creates the drain so the freeze is designed to operate the powerstepper for the appropriate energy now in m*m is e to the [(m*m*v*v)/(c*c)] then if it is m*m is e to the 4*m*m*x*x (go m*m is f(m*m) then f(f(m*m)) then f(f(f(f(m*m)))) then f(f(f(f(f(f(f(f(m*m)))))))), etc.) then the slope of velocity increase is 2cL then if e to the (4*4*x*x*x*x*m*m) then 2c is the rate of increase increasing and the velocity graph is 2c*2c*L*L where L is one to one liniar see if that happens the parabola or liniar does not die off at the last moment!!! and x is L thus accelerate past light speed!!! but even if v is less then c still slope small but past light speed!!! now the light speed multiplies the rate of increase and the increase and everything automatically also if going F(c*L) then go e to the m*m*F(x)*F(x) and c is a unit now 2c*2c*L*L and all these graphs are asymtotes meeaning they are approached and reached at infinity if function build the same rate the phenomina does asytymtote approached at infinity if build faster then past the asymtotes at finite and if build slower then never aproaches asymtote even at infinity and function build is function of function then function of function of function etc. as in function build for the phenomina is f(x) then ff(x) then ffff(x) then ffffffff(x) etc. but notice the x is only a one to one not a c to one!!! now in the asymtotes the particles usually follow the c one but others can be followed like 2ccLL etc. so now light speed relative constant can be changed and if one parabola is flatter than the other the relative changes liniarly also when the barriers are not involved then the from barrier equation the q*q is m*m/(2k*c*c*c) with no e to the V multiplied also the barriers are constants since the mass will only go by quantity mass as one because it is originally a constant also mass is m/m0 or actual mass divided by mass at rest also when multiplying by a non existing number the whole thing not exist in the barriers now for sister fields the 1/r instrad of 1/(r*r) so still barriers now in q*q is m*m/(2*k*c*c*c) then q*q/(r*r) or dE dr is m*m/((2*k*c*c*c)) then m*v*v/(r*r) is m*m/(2*k*c*c*c) then K*v*v/(r*r) is m where K is 2*k*c*c*c then m*v is K*v*v*v/(r*r) then c*c(lnm) is K*v*v*v*v/(4*r*r) then m is e to the ((m*v*v)/(4*c*c*r*r)) then m is 4*c*c*r*r/(4*c*c*r*r minus v*v) then v approaches 2cr then to take back the dr get c*r*r is v then also the perpendicular to radius is sqrt(c*c*r*r*r*r minus v*v) then when that v is c*r*r then it orbits thus when the v is this the particle does not fall out of orbit!!! infact it needs force to fall out of orbit and it will still resume orbit!!!! also the K*v*v*v*v/4 is by dvdm where I went rederive to by dm then it will say oh no the derivative keeps equaling the function in the m thus m is an exponential e to the x and then that function is its derivative then e to the (e to the x) now remember this is by change of charge so it is like a freak of nature but as you can see this happens rarely since the fraction is tiny even for huge speeds and in gravity the mass is large but the speeds are tiny but not in a blackhole!!! now in the light absorber or light converter same thing the square root is to make the current smoother as in sqrt((1+cos(x))/2) since the sine simple rectified will create ends that are too sharp also remember the use constants to correct any inaccuracies of the equations add subtract multiply divide and ofcourse in light converter remember go arcsin(x) or arccos(x) so actually the field changes will create possibilities past light speed and you can use the same methods in the function machine now for time when getting closer to asymtotes the time will decrease but in the circle the radius is being stretched then the time decreases less for same in asymtotes like 2*c*c*L*L but decreases more for asymtotes like 1/(c*L) for same multiple of how close to asymtote now how do you get a is g-kv*v well go a is g - k*v*v/(g-k*v*v) then a is acceleration v is velocity t is time everyone else is constant int is intregal and go dt/dv then go v is gt - int(-1 + g/(g-k*v*v)) then go gt is int(g/(g-k*v*v) then g/k is m then gt is int(m/(m-v*v)) then catenary is int(m/(m-v*v)) is 2/(sqrt(m)) times ln[(m+v)/(m-v)] then e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))] is -1 plus 2m/(m-v) then m minus 2m/{1 + e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))*t]} then if time is infinite the velocity is m then actually the velocity is mg/k for a is g - (k/m)*v*v now for distance go m minus 2m[1 minus {e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))*t]/{1 + e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))*t]} then go mt minus [2/(g(sqrt(m))] times ln{1 + e to the [(0.5)*(g(sqrt(m))*t]} plus [2/(g(sqrt(m))]*(ln2) also the c/(v*v*v) is 1/((1/c) plus (1/c) ...) then c is 1/((1/c(v*v*v)) plus (1/c(v*v*v)) ...) is c then 1/ln(c*v*v*v) is then go v*v*v/(c*v*v*v*ln(c*v*v*v)) is one then v*v*v*ln(ln(c*v*v*v)) is c*v*v*v then go ln(ln(c*v*v*v)) is c then e to the (e to the c) is c*v*v*v then q/v is c then q*v*v is e to the (e to the (q/v)) then go 1/(1-(1/v))) squared the e to the e double function and the single q cuased the double square then v*v/(sqr(v-1) but q*v*v so 1/(sqr(v-1)) then integrate for the total charge per capacitor per capacitor to get that all pleased you need three intregals thus -(v-1) plus (v-1)*ln(v-1) thus -(v-a) plus (v-a)*ln(v-a) for the capacitance quantity is a!!! now in the universe all relativity adds to light speed!!! now in the m in ln[(m+v)/(m-v)] i really mean ln[(sqrt(m)+v)/(sqrt(m)-v)] and work it from there so then the approached asymtote speed is sqrt(mg/k) also say it is [mg/k]/[(mg/k)- (v to the n)] then the kozak process says dt/dv is e to the {[(dt/dv)*(v to the n)/(mg/k)] minus one} no in the kozak process you did some integrating to get the minus one then dt/dv is 1/a then 1-a*ln(a) is (v to the n)/(mg/k) thus go v to the n is (1-a*ln(a))*(mg/k) then the kozak equation kicks to infinity where it is 1-(dv*ln(dv) then dv is one because it is in terms of v then -1*ln(1) stays as and aproaches zero then v to the n is 1*mg/k or mg/k then v aproaches nth root of (mg/k) now also you can put signal system with the power supply or not that is an option feel free to change anything to get it to work!!! now really you end up with dv minus dv(lndv) and that approaches one now sec(v) is m and arcsec(m) is v then dm/(m*sqrt(m*m-1)) is dv then dmdmdmdm/(m*m*(m*m-1)) is dmdmdvdv then dcdc/(c(c-1)) is dcdvdv (c is m*m) then 2c*dc/(c(c-1)) is 2dc/(c-1) (remember d is derivative) anyway 2dc/(c-1) is dcdvdv/2 then c*v*v/2 is ln(c-1) then e to the c*v*v is (c-1)*(c-1) then remember if sqr it is square if sqrt it is square root anyway then c is 1/(1-v*v) then tuen c to m to get sqr(1/(1-v*v)) then c-1 becomes m-1 then from (m-1)*(m-1) to m-1 then 1/(1-v*v) plus 1 then integrate by v snce they are both m and so both equal thus v plus arctanh(v) equals ln[(sec(v) plus tan(v)] or really ln[m plus sqrt(m*m-1)] respectively then raise e to both of them to get [(1+v)/(1-v)] times e to the v is m plus sqrt(m*m-1) so the big nasty equation [(1+v)/(1-v)] times e to the v is m plus sqrt(m*m-1) can be solved by simple kozak manuevers as in x is sec(y) and x is 1/(1-z*z) or you can switch the z's and y's around and it only takes three dimensions to solve any of them!!! now some times a real messed up equation can solve many dimensions or many dimensions can solve a real messed up equation!!! now in the fields the mass decreases as into the increasing fields for reasons I already said and increases out of them then when mass decreases the velocity must stay the same to keep energy thus time increases because energy is supposedly m*v*v also the angular speed does the same thing except it takes angle into account now with circle negative and mass acting negative then the effect is still the same so when mass decreases by r then velocity increases time by square root then when 1/(r*r) then velocity does time by liniar then time acts according to circle capapcitance theory now for angular the angle increases by 1/r and only one 1/r for angular effect thus same thing also for sister fields it is 1/r times angular and that's it for both tangential and angular so everybody cooperates!!! now why does slow down time occur for repel as well well the circle is negative and the field is negative thus negative times negative to a positive again now in the particle accelerator or anything if slanting the disks make sure to slant so that the center is high and thick anf the outer is low and thin now in the kozak graph v plus arctanh(v) equals ln[sqrt(m*m-1) plus m] or anything like this field free to change any axis and any variable only if going [(1+v)/(1-v)]times (e to the v) is say P then P is the liniar etc. also when using any invention on any invention a manditory example is you can use the light converter on the place where the batteries were used and only start with a little number of particles used at once also in the disks you can decrease repel toward center and increase repel toward back as radically as you want and same with onther magnets and plates as well and for plates you want (x*x)/(d*d) and for magnets you want x/d then x is what you do and d is what is happening otherwise also you can use intregal derivative or neither on plates which ever one works for very end process now the space capacitance theory also cooperates with the theory a while back I had where the the space is more thick in fluid and slows down the cylinders to make everything more slower also in the kzak hologram if the one cylinder slows down the others or really the one in many places at once slows down as in what happens to the one happens to the others happens to the other of those particles etc. to infinity because all of them are really the one in many places at once or infinite many places at once!!! one more thing why did I go from 1/(1-v*v) plus one to just 1/(1-v*v) well that has to do with the sqrt(m*m-1) or m-1 in sec(v) process and the just m in 1/(1-v*v) process etc. now L is really BA/I but A was assumed to be one for a short cut also Br is I/r times r or I or v/r also the N for number of wrappings is assumed one for short cut (r is resistance R is distance or radius v is volts V is velocity) now in the v is sin(vt) then dv/sqrt(1-v*v) is dvdt then d(v*v)/(1-v*v) is d(v*v)d(t*t) then -ln(1-v*v) is sqr(v*t) then v*v is 1-[e to the -sqr(v*t)] then v is 1-[e to the -(v*t)] if sqrt(v) is sin(-sqrt(v*t)) then go sqrt(v) is sin(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q))) if adding this in you will get v is 1-[e to the -((v*t)/(r*q))] which is v is 1-[e to the -(t/(r*c))] also a similiar proof is where v is 1-[e to the -(L*t/r)] then L is B/I then v is 1-[e to the -(B*t/(I*r))] then sqrt(1/v) is sin(sqrt(B*t/(v)) then sqrt[-((v*t)/(r*q))/((B*t/(v))] then later you will have to take out the negative since one cannot squareroot a negative so sqrt[-((v*v*t)/(r*q))/((B*t/)] and kozak both and sqrt both arcsines of v and 1/v to get to get (dv/(1-v))/[d(1/v)/(1-(1/v))] which in a little algebra and kozak tricks is v dv where dv is one so v and negatives cancel then v is sqrt[-((v*v*t)/(r*q))/((B*t)] then one is sqrt[-((t)/(r*q))/((B*t)] but qV is B radius one for short cut but R*R in a square is one to assume as a square for a short cut then so I is B sqrt[-((t)/(r*q))/((B*t)] then q/v is c then sqrt[-((t)/(r*c*v))/((I*t)] then 1/sqrt(r*c) is v!!! now L is (B/(v/r)) is then v/r is B/L then r/v is L/B then r is vL/B then 1/sqrt(c*(vL/B)) is v!!! so B is I then 1/sqrt(c*(vL/I)) then v is 1/sqrt(c*r*L) then r is one to take short cut then I is 1/sqrt(L*c) now that means sqrt(v) is sin(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q))) and sqrt(1/v) is sin(sqrt(B*t/(v)) are both true then sin((sqrt(B*t/(v))times cos(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q)))) all plus the following cos((sqrt(B*t/(v))times sin(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q)))) is v(1/v) plus (1/v)v is 1+1 must be such that (heres where you cancel the negative) 1-1 is zero then sin(((v*t)/(r*q)) minus (((B*t/(v)) is zero then ((v*t)/(r*q)) minus ((B*t/(v)) is arcsin(zero) is zero then ((v*t)/(r*q)) is ((B*t/(v)) this will say that B*q is I*I*r then is let's take one more short cut then B is I and qV is I since V is one now and so BL is power then since the short cuts L is dB/dt then B dB/dt of the other coil then (1/2)*A*B*B is the energy of the current in super conducting and the power at normal conducting now the short cuts are only the ones where you can set it to one the behavior of the remaining is up to them then reset the units and you will still get away with short cuts but refactor at the end as in A becomes what you want it to be now one other thing in the accelerator makes charges plates positive or negative for each one in x*x/(d*d) etc. for magnets also and some things can very like the charge plates do NOT have to be duplicates of the magnets corresponding to thenm or any same with magnets to plates and active to passive magnets and plates DO WHAT YOU NEED TO DO TO CORRECT ANYTHING!!!!!!!!!!!!!! also in cos(sqrt(B*t/(v)) is --(1/v) and cos(sqrt((v*t)/(r*q)))) is --v because of the negative 1/(1-v*v)'s now in superconductor BA dB/dt is zero because I*I*r r is zero so the whole thing is zero then intregal is a constant but with r not zero then BA dB/dt is not zero then if it is a constant then the intregal is a constant times t then the constant is energy per time then or (1/2)*A*B*B then if all that changes it follows the whatever functions assuming each derivative instant is a srtaight line and each intregal instant is a rectangle now for intregals say y is e to the sin(t) and x is sin(t) then d(e to the x)/dt is sqrt(1-x*x) times [e to the x] then [1/sqrt(1-x*x)] times d(e to the x)/dt is [e to the x] then d(e to the x)/dt times d(arcsin(x))/dx is [e to the x] then (dx/dt)*d(e to the x)/dt times d(arcsin(x))/dx is (dx/dt)*[e to the x] then (dx/dt)*d(e to the x)/dt times d(arcsin(x))/dx is (dx/dt)*[e to the x] then d(e to the x)/dt times d(arcsin(x))/dt is (dx/dt)*[e to the x] then (e to the x) times (arcsin(x)) is [e to the x] then integrate (e to the x) times (arcsin(x))/dt but first arcsin(x) is arcsin(sin(t)) is t then integrate t times [e to the x] to get t times intregal(e to the sin(t)) plus intregal of intregal(e to the sin(t)) then sine goes up when t goes down so a negative then t times intregal(e to the sin(t)) is -intregal(e to the sin(t)) plus intregal of intregal(e to the sin(t)) then derive to get t times cos(t)*(e to the sin(t)) plus two times (e to the sin(t)) is intregal(e to the sin(t)) now because there is sqrt(1-x*x) and you cannot take sqrt(negative) then the interval of zero to pi/2 is all you can do or any interval inside that and the same is true for this next equation but to get past pi/2 the t divides by N and you go from there that convert t/N to z etc. all ture for this following equation also now the following one is a little easier see dx/dt is sqrt(1-x*x) then d(x*x)/d(t*t) is 1-x*x then that is x*x-1 since the negative of the sine wave to horizontal axis then d(x*x)/d(t*t) is cos(t)*cos(t) is [e to the (t*t)] minus 1 then then integrate by t to get (1/2)*(2cos(t)*cos(t)-1)+1/2 or (1/2)*(sin(t)*cos(t) plus t/2 then that is intregal[e to the (t*t)] minus the t that is already integrated then go (1/2)*(sin(t)*cos(t) plus 3t/2 is intregal of e to the (t*t) dt now for the magnets you can use this new knowledge of (1/2)*A*B*B to mess with plates and magnets active and passive now in the pendulum go 1+{[cos(a)]*[1+ln[1+cos(f)]]} now for the new intregals for N is 1 you can only go zero to pi/2 not shorter not longer not different because the mirror effect says the total intregal is the same but in portions it is not now for 1/N go zero to N*(pi/2) also remember to lidten to everything I have ever typed and will type even if they are errors because they can be helpful!!! now note in I=[1/sqrt(L*c)] because of all the short cuts the angle of sin(wt) then w is actually 1/sqrt(L*c) also remember you can change anything and everything in anything and everything to make things work!!! now one other thing the intregals intersect at (-pi/2),zero, and pi/2 that is why it only works at intervals whose both ends involve two of the three!!! now the reason for the negative is not sine but area where when x decreases x increases and vice versa now (e to the x)*arcsin(x) is not e to the x but (e to the x)*arcsin(x) all over dt is e to the x now also how did I get from intregal(e to the sin(t)) all the way to (cos(t))*(e to the x) well I derived twice because I divided both sides by dt to leave a division of dt*dt for the (e to the sin(t)) now why not t well t had a dx and that was used up also for e to the tan(t) do the same thing to get t*(sec(t))*(e to the tan(t)) plus 2*(e to the tan(t)) is intregal of (e to the tan(t)) or intregal(e to the tan(t) I may have gotten the t and x mixed up but correct the errors now notice there is one sec(t) well that's because for the e to the (tan(t)) it is a little different see sqr[1/(1+x*x)]*d(e to the 2x)/sqr(dt) is e to the 2x then go arctan(x) {sqr[1/(1+x*x)]/sqr(dx)}*d(e to the 2x)/sqr(dt) is (e to the 2x)/sqr(dx) then go sqr(arctan(x)) times (e to the 2x)/(dt) is e to the 2x then t*t*sec(t)*sec(t)*(e to the 2x) then t*sec(t)*(e to the x) then the same thing t*sec(t)*(e to the x) plus 2*(e to the x) is intregal(e to the tan(t))dt x is tan(t) and in the other one x is sin(t) thus tangent works a little different!!! now for m*m is e to the 4*m*m then e to the 4*m*m is F(m) then go FF(m) then go FFFF(m) etc. that is energy creation!!! now I messed up a little see the is no negative so t*cos(t)*(e to the sin(t)) is intregal of (e to the sin(t)) or intregal(e to the sin(t)) then t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) is intregal of (e to the tan(t)) but add constants for each integration as in K*t plus t*cos(t)*(e to the sin(t)) by 1/((dx)*(dt)) then for t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) plus C*ln(cos(t)) plus K*t for 1/((dx)*(dx)*(dt)) then you do not need the pi/2 zero and -pi/2 limits but the K's and C's vary!!! now in dimensions the liniar asymtote means everything is going faster and faster I think we are on the sin(t) dimension were time increases liniarly and motion is sin(t) frequency and amplitude and how fast t is moving are all this dimension possibly but possible we are on c etc. so time as well as motion listen to these things and they can be different for each!!! now the parts are squared then one dt divide more than e to the tan(t) then t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) is p then intregal of [e to the 2*tan(t)] then divide both by dt*dt then derive p to get dt*dt*dt*dt then square root to get t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) then multiply both sides by dt*dt then intregal of intregal of (e to the tan(t)) is intregal of t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) now e to the tan(t) was really e to the 2*tan(t) at first anyway then t*sec(t)*(e to the tan(t)) is intregal of (e to the tan(t)) now when I say t*sec(t)*(e to the 2*tan(t))I really mean t*t*sec(t)*sec(t)*(e to the 2*tan(t)) now for mass is c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) where c is one then mass is 1/sqrt(1-v*v) then kozaked is m*m*v*v/(c*c) is 2*ln(m) or 2*ln(force/acceleration) then acceleration is c per second then 2*ln{[(k*q*q)/(r*r)]/(c)} is m*m because v is c then m*m/2 is ln{[(k*q*q)/(r*r)]/(c)} then c is average v or v/2 then m*m is ln{[(k*q*q)/(r*r)]/(c)} or m*m is ln{[(k*q*q)/(r*r)]} then mess with the units and as you can see you need big untis to make this happen and it only happens in relativity!!! now remember in magnetism the same thing but ln{[(sqr(qv)]/[(r)]} is m*m then this is for relativity based quantum mechanics!!! now in the sqr(v) v is velocity vv is vertical velocity vh is horizontal velocity then the v in qv is really vv and q is charge then go ln{[(sqr(q(vv))]/[(r)]} is ln{[(sqr(q))*(sqr(c*c-(vh*vh)))]/[(r)]} then also why do the particles go below light speed well the spiral makes cycloid waves so on the length of the wave they are traveling light speed but wobble of cylinder then again infinite frequency and no amplitude and infinite speed no wavelength to be finite effect also protons why go slower well waves larger by wave length and amplitude thus the proton goes slower then the electron and wavelength is NOT the same as lenth of wave length of wave is lenth of curve!!! wavelenth is how streched along the axis!!! now charge same but with two r's and perpendicular!!! for magnetism now why do axis travel slower well the angular relativity gets them and the equator is the unit and the lobes are all the same size in the same axis belt but not same size in different parts of axis and any kind of sin(x) is really sin(2*pi*x) or just sin(x) etc. and lobes not necessarily radius size or related to it and lobe width is independent now in waves how fast is particle going well sqrt(sqr(vh+vhcos(f)) plus sqr(vh*sin(f))) is 2*cos(f) vh is horizontal velocity then v is c and c is unit then the x is what we find so go by y then 2*sin(f) because the wheel is one up the sin(f) axis then sin(f)/(cos(f)) then p for compliment angle then or just double compliment and invert to get (cos(p))/(sin(p)) times c is velocity horizontal also p is vh/r so the particle is changing velocity all the time!!! now the equator is one unit since the max is always one by c*arcsin(x/c) or intregal of c/sqrt(c*c-x*x) also M*[11b*b plus 5a*a]/40 is moment of inertia for the eliptical egg solid also for parabola it is M*[4*x*x plus 3*y*y]/12 for two of them with flat faces joining perfectly and for hollow egg it is M*[2ab)]/3 this can be usfull in the future!!! now the proprotion to radius from axis and lobe length is always the same for same particle and when I say radius I either mean from axis or from center now a particle makes a large particle by center moving along large wave but in small particle (hologram wise identical to large particle) the speed along the wave should be light speed but in tiny particle the speed along the same wave should be light speed but that would make large particle moving way past light speed or would it then to the tiny particle waves around center is light speed and to the small particle waves around center is light speed also the angular relative speed will come into play then sqrt[sqr(vertical) plus sqr(angular*radius)] is absolute light speed but (angular*radius) is light speed to center but distance vertical changes radius!!! so if it has to go light speed to center and wave the radius changes so both are satisfied at all times and this is how it works for tiny small infinitly small large and the only infinitly small is the complete one cylinder simple one and this is why for a given particle one size will do for lobes equator everything also remember the waves are tracing becuase the smaller particle making the waves but phase shifting so then waves must go light speed!!! now waves only go light speed at the equator but at axises the radius is smaller now the reason for time lapse is because the particles are phase shift equals the angle and why 2*angle well opposite ends verses center now tangential of smaller particle not necessarily angular times radius because of tangential velocity and now why does the particle at one end attract the itself at the other end well the time lapse theory same becuase of time being messed with by relativity thus the lobes but why all the cylinders well in the infinitly fast there time lapes at infinity then finite cylinders everywhere but then it can go to three or four equal divsions etc. and this is also why it can trace lobes or waves same thing but for mass particle the infinitly small particle is going infinity squared thus infinite amount of cylinders or particles now particles change vh constantly but not v in the length that is always speed of light or c now the number of lobes in all belts the same otherwise the forces would not be happy now at a point in the game it stops and the electron can not get any bigger because you would have an infinitly large electron also when I talk of speed somtimes I mean tangential somtimes angular also the waves are such that the inner parts are smaller toward the center and the outer parts are larger because of tangential but remember the smaller and larger radius is happy with that so everthing goes light speed or in tangentical and vertical seperate below light speed constant and notice when frequency higher then so isn't energy as in c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then c*sin(v*c) then f is c*arcsin(v/c) then f is (v/r) then derive then c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) is mass is energy but it increases by a square because of the r then frequeny is energy squared but hold on the amplitude shrinks well amplitude is in there also but not inside the sign so it is simply a direct proportion to frequency appears liniar so if one can mess with the amplitude and only increase frequency there may be a profit of energy now there is a slide to the wheel I did not take into account and the slide is inversely proportional to the sin(p) because top is slide zero and bottom is slide c now the sqrt[c*c*csc(p)*csc(p) minus c*c*cot(p)*cot(p)] (the csc(p) is also negative proportion then take absolute value) anyway is c but times 1/2 for radius and times r/(r+r1) r1 is radius of revolver and radius being traced is r now this is for unit wave for other frequencies it applies also and for amplitude equator not change size but strenth now particles move constant if I tld you otherwise I told you wrong the above proves it and all this because particle wants to go constant velocity now in particles the phase shift is constant change liniar with equal to angle for reasons previous now for light the phase shift is liniar up and down size of angle also also the sine wave and sine lobe is the lobes and waves I have been talking about now for nucleus the protons can be where say lithium atom the protons or nuetrons can be in one time lapse by going 2/3 or in electrons 1/3 and the protons are nuclear particles are next to each other by the touch and barrier theories and nuclear particles are next to each other by smaller particles doing this but slightly under each other only slightly because of mass with electrons small mass significantly under each other and take all my theories into acoount backwards phase shft etc. for dealing with atom or particles or anything also in light why back and forth well in light the opposite spin of the under one is such that the phase is sin(x+ phase) phase liniar up and down by the two spinning opposite where angle increases lniiarly then decreases liniar also lobes can reverse phase time lapse can reverse etc. now [c/sqrt(c*c-v*v)] to the (2 to the v) why if the first one then new mass times the rest if newer mass the next two then four then eigth etc. always mass is m*c*c for these reasons now if c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) only then multiply to mass and reset velocity value to get again new mass for m*c*c also remember below 'a' is destroy by m*c*c on 'a' is neither create or destroy and above 'a' is create by m*c*c also above light speed or any asymtote is not necessarily create energy but it can be as in everything goes light speed and all 'a's must be light speed for this reason!!! now the energy created or destroyed would be m*A*A where A is the asymtote in terms of c and the velocity along the sine wave may or may not always be c but the angular relativity effect by radius gets it also length of sine wave well y is sin(x)*sin(x) then dy/dx is sin(2x) then (dx*dx)/dy is (1/2)*(1/(1-sqr(dy/dx))) or cos(2x) then dx/dy is (dx)*(cos(2x)) then go sqrt(1+y)/(1-2y) then go flip the derivative to get dy and dx to switch roles then intregal of (1-2y)/sqrt(1+y) is length of sine wave curve is 2*{pi/2 plus 6*(sqrt(1+y)) minus (4/3)*[(1+y) to the (3/2)]} also in (c/2)*(r/(r+r1)) for speed of particle r1 is radius of revolution and r is radius of revolver (or equator or wheel) now when I say length I mean length of sine curve when I say wavelength or wave length I mean length of x along wave but sometimes I get the two confused now the particle speed is always constant unless outer force now in [v*(e to the 3v)]/B the intregal is [(1/3)v*(e to the 3v) minus (1/9)*(e to the 3v) plus (B+(2/9))]/B because this is the total charge made then e to the 3v is close to one then (v-(2/9)+(2/9)+B)/B then one plus v/B and B is huge now in the space capacitance when at the circle at the hal way point the particle is at two different space zones same time occupence but when at top at y point at circle at light speed then two different space zones same occupence and the space zones are opposite circle or in thirds etc. or thirds different times zones and space zones at a point in between in the circle etc. so half the circle for two parts in opposite ends of orbit etc. third way three etc. now correction if distance of circle is c*sqrt(5) which is c*L then go 2c/(2cL) and c/(cL) then one is twice and other is half and the circle radius squared is 5 etc. or really radius is 1/(cL) thus if x is 2/L and y is one/L then two places one time but if y is 2/L and x is one/L then two time places one location and go 1/K for all other factors but remember it must go a multiple of c as in 2c/L and c*one/L for velocity now I am talking of the circle in the particle path and of the circle in the space capacitance theory also in an ellipse or any other distortion the angles are still the same in this space capacitance phenomina because radius effect cancels velocity effect to a one and velocity meaning sqrt(sqr(vertical)plus(sqr(horizontal)) as in the absolute velocity!!! now for the (0.5)*(I)*(w*w) is E (I is moment of inertia of mass times radius squared) then w is [E*E/(I*I)]*(t-1+K*(e to the -t)) then K is zero and t-1 is where when t is one then initial time is zero then just say t is initially zero then (0.5)*(1/I)*t is 1/E then 2I/t is E then the mass is r*r*c/sqrt(c*c-v*v) then kozaked is sqr(E*t) is r*r*e to the (sqr(E*t*v/c)) E is energy t is time v is velocity c is light speed r is radius also if you need a constiuously different capacitor go 1/ln(x) is c then then go x to the (-t/r) r is resistance x is liniar variance capacitor t is time c is capacitance so now it is possible to make all kinds of variance capacitors where x is F(v) v is liniar variance now light goes light speed because the tiny to larger particle hologram system there is two of them one at the opposite end of the larger particle of the other then one motion cancels the other in both perpendicular axises then they must settle for the center going light speed also the ever increasers and decreasers or the non increasers and non decreasers and the ones without any of this in accelerators use them in a way to get the thing to work how you want and the electron can go any speed below light speed but the freqency and amplitude of the sine wave is such that the length is still at light speed same for any particle see when freqency decreases and amplitude increases the electron must go that much slower for length that much more increases and as frequency approach zero and amplitude approach infinity you go light speed so electron goes light speed same for any particle with different constants of energy now freqency is constant divided by amplitude constant depending on particle and the particle is slower and slower because mass increase amplitude and the frequency must decrease but energy decreases because when you give it energy it works against the stress of more energy now at light speed the frequency is zero so the length is a flat line also all this slow down and then go the other way and then speed up the opposite way backwards etc. that is what time does!!! now in actual physics with removed mass particle relativity the frequency increases with energy for velocity but amplitude decreases decreasing the length so to stay at light speed the electron must go faster and combine this with the mass relativity effect on particle now in the function machine remember 1/dx in signal for to get rid of function and dx in signal to build the function and the negative currents to signal the signals for 1/dx get rid of functions and the positive currents to signal the signals for dx build functions and the cx is for negative of positive as well as cx and the derivatives can be frozen also for the signal of signal and you can freeze any derivative or anything also to get rid of every third function do 1/dx for every third etc. and dx is derivatives in general as well as invert of any derivative is 1/dx put it all together and make it work and any idea for any invention now when it comes to particle spin and revolution and tiny particle and larger etc. everything goes clockwise or counterclockwise and when assuming a radius it reorients to this and this is how polarizing is done and the energy goes out say 45 degrees of pi/4 radians then 1/sqrt(2) and the rest of the energy is in the particle since it cannot move in certain directions it absorbs and reradiates in the polar direction less energy and the number of them is also absorbed that way see in the canceling direction the movements are opposite and canceling and the number decreases because some electrons or particles do not radiate instead they go that much faster because of energy absorbtion anyway that goes to 1/sqrt(2) all squared!!! now in atoms the ellectrons and protons can engolf and turn opposite or differently from each other but the attractions and repulsions balance!!! now in light the waves move back and forth sine wave velocity and the waves move counterclocwise is positive clockwise is negative or vice versa and positive means photon aborbs energy negative is give off energy and it goes past light speed and below in a sine wave fashion and above the waves are reversed and below the waves go positive again and the particles give energy to space and suck it back to make waves in space that do not travel outward but in and out of photon to effect other photons now when the waves are not hitting photon positively in direction A the photon stops moving fast in direction A thus wave crests attract photon then the photons change direction and speed and the distace is d then energy is 1/d and force is 1/(d*d) then the net factor is 1/d thus photons move close then far apart but far apart more then if monochromatic then 1/d is only one!!! thus a laser!!! and if polarized the amplitude changes to relationships between photons now in in a beem the fringes are so that they concentrate or spread or both and space wave in all directions and ofcourse all of space is at the mrcy of each photon!!! so that is why light particles behave as waves also!!! and if polarized that can also cuase an energy difference also in phase or out of phase or 1/d will change constantly also this all happens in three dimensions now for any other particle the waves are one behavior but for photons the waves behavior is unique!!! now in space the particles really not make waves but fold space then reabsorb and the diameter of the fold disk is directly proportional to the wavelength of the speed increase and decrease times c and the time of the waves going negative and positive time is what happens and the disks move light speed in front of particles and behind and all around also in electrons and other particles it also happens just differently because of different lobe behavior so the particle never quite reaches light speed unless under kozak methods also say m is sin(Nv) then dm/sqrt(1-m*m) is Ndv then d(m*m)/(1-m*m) is (N*N)*d(v*v) then d(m*m*m*m)/(1-m*m) is (N*N)*d(m*m*v*v) then d(z*z)/(1-z) goes -(1-z)+(1-z)*(ln(1-z)) is (N*N)*(m*m*v*v) then (N*N)*d(m*m*v*v)/d(1-m*m) is -1/(1-m*m) then (N*N)*d(m*m*v*v) is -d(1-m*m)/(1-m*m) then ln(1-m*m) is -N*N*m*m*v*v then 1-m*m is e to the -sqr(N*m*v) then kozaked is 1-(1/sqrt(1+N*N*v*v)) then when the time is zero or an integer multiple or 2*pi then m is zero but m is the wave amplitude assumed to be one for the case of the given wave but this is 1-1/H where time*time plus 1 is square of H but this is the circle space capacitance theory!!! but plus the one for light speed and inside plus the one for hypotenuse effect but light is obeying the relative theory as though it were just another particle!!!!!!!!